Cisco CCNA 200-301 Routing Tables and Forwarding Decisions Practice Test 1

 

Topic 10 Practice Test 1 covers Routing Tables and Forwarding Decisions for Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 CCNA and maps to objectives 3.1–3.2. For broader exam preparation, review the Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Dumps. Every option includes focused technical reasoning explaining both the networking concept and its fit to the scenario.

Question 1

Lumen has installed routes 10.20.0.0/16 and 10.20.30.0/24. A packet is destined for 10.20.30.44. Which route is used? Choose ONE.

1. 0.0.0.0/0
2. 10.20.30.0/24
3. The route with the lowest administrative distance
4. 10.20.0.0/16

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because Packet forwarding selects the most specific installed prefix, so a /24 match wins over a /16 for an address contained in both. For CHG-7131 at Lumen, the branch administrator checks Lumen’s protocol state; CHG-7131 is judged from the observable result at Lumen. For CHG-7131, this choice fits Lumen: the branch administrator gets the required Lumen outcome and can verify CHG-7131 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer D is incorrect because The /16 is a valid match, but it is less specific than the installed /24 and therefore is not selected for this destination. For CHG-7131 at Lumen, the branch administrator checks Lumen’s protocol state; CHG-7131 is judged from the observable result at Lumen. For CHG-7131, this choice fails Lumen: the branch administrator leaves the required Lumen condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q01, should reject it for chg-7131.

Answer A is incorrect because A default route is used only when no more-specific installed prefix matches the destination. For CHG-7131 at Lumen, the branch administrator checks Lumen’s protocol state; CHG-7131 is judged from the observable result at Lumen. For CHG-7131, this choice fails Lumen: the branch administrator leaves the required Lumen condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q01, should reject it for chg-7131.

Answer C is incorrect because Administrative distance influences which competing routes to the same prefix enter the RIB; it does not override longest-prefix matching during forwarding. For CHG-7131 at Lumen, the branch administrator checks Lumen’s protocol state; CHG-7131 is judged from the observable result at Lumen. For CHG-7131, this choice fails Lumen: the branch administrator leaves the required Lumen condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q01, should reject it for chg-7131.

 

Question 2

Orchid learns 192.0.2.0/24 from OSPF and also has a static route to the same /24. With default distances, which route source is preferred for the RIB? Choose ONE.

1. OSPF route
2. Static route
3. Whichever route was learned first
4. Whichever route has the longer prefix

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because A normal static route has administrative distance 1, which is lower and therefore preferred over OSPF AD 110 for the same prefix. For CHG-7148 at Orchid, the change reviewer checks Orchid’s protocol state; CHG-7148 is judged from the observable result at Orchid. For CHG-7148, this choice fits Orchid: the change reviewer gets the required Orchid outcome and can verify CHG-7148 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer A is incorrect because OSPF has default AD 110, so it loses to a normal static route with AD 1 when both describe the same prefix. For CHG-7148 at Orchid, the change reviewer checks Orchid’s protocol state; CHG-7148 is judged from the observable result at Orchid. For CHG-7148, this choice fails Orchid: the change reviewer leaves the required Orchid condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q02, should reject it for chg-7148.

Answer D is incorrect because The prefixes are identical here, so longest-prefix comparison does not distinguish the candidate routes during RIB installation. For CHG-7148 at Orchid, the change reviewer checks Orchid’s protocol state; CHG-7148 is judged from the observable result at Orchid. For CHG-7148, this choice fails Orchid: the change reviewer leaves the required Orchid condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q02, should reject it for chg-7148.

Answer C is incorrect because Route age is not the primary selection rule between static and OSPF sources for the same prefix. For CHG-7148 at Orchid, the change reviewer checks Orchid’s protocol state; CHG-7148 is judged from the observable result at Orchid. For CHG-7148, this choice fails Orchid: the change reviewer leaves the required Orchid condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q02, should reject it for chg-7148.

 

Question 3

Redwood has two OSPF paths to 203.0.113.0/24 with costs 20 and 35. Which path is preferred? Choose ONE.

1. The path with the highest router ID
2. The path with OSPF cost 35
3. The path with OSPF cost 20
4. Both paths because OSPF ignores metric

Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer C is correct because Within the same routing protocol and route type, the lower metric is preferred; for OSPF that means the lower accumulated cost. For CHG-7165 at Redwood, the branch administrator checks Redwood’s protocol state; CHG-7165 is judged from the observable result at Redwood. For CHG-7165, this choice fits Redwood: the branch administrator gets the required Redwood outcome and can verify CHG-7165 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because A higher OSPF cost represents a less preferred path, not a better one. For CHG-7165 at Redwood, the branch administrator checks Redwood’s protocol state; CHG-7165 is judged from the observable result at Redwood. For CHG-7165, this choice fails Redwood: the branch administrator leaves the required Redwood condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q03, should reject it for chg-7165.

Answer D is incorrect because OSPF explicitly uses cost as its metric, so unequal-cost paths are not both selected merely because they share a protocol. For CHG-7165 at Redwood, the branch administrator checks Redwood’s protocol state; CHG-7165 is judged from the observable result at Redwood. For CHG-7165, this choice fails Redwood: the branch administrator leaves the required Redwood condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q03, should reject it for chg-7165.

Answer A is incorrect because Router ID participates in OSPF control-plane identification and elections, not ordinary unequal-cost path selection for a destination. For CHG-7165 at Redwood, the branch administrator checks Redwood’s protocol state; CHG-7165 is judged from the observable result at Redwood. For CHG-7165, this choice fails Redwood: the branch administrator leaves the required Redwood condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q03, should reject it for chg-7165.

 

Question 4

In Union, `show ip route` displays a route code `C` beside 10.1.1.0/24. What does `C` indicate? Choose ONE.

1. Connected network
2. Static route
3. OSPF route
4. Local host route

Correct Answer: A

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer A is correct because The C code identifies a directly connected network installed because an interface in that subnet is operational. For CHG-7182 at Union, the change reviewer checks Union’s protocol state; CHG-7182 is judged from the observable result at Union. For CHG-7182, this choice fits Union: the change reviewer gets the required Union outcome and can verify CHG-7182 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because Static routes use the S route code rather than C. For CHG-7182 at Union, the change reviewer checks Union’s protocol state; CHG-7182 is judged from the observable result at Union. For CHG-7182, this choice fails Union: the change reviewer leaves the required Union condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q04, should reject it for chg-7182.

Answer C is incorrect because OSPF-learned routes normally use O or an O-derived code, not C. For CHG-7182 at Union, the change reviewer checks Union’s protocol state; CHG-7182 is judged from the observable result at Union. For CHG-7182, this choice fails Union: the change reviewer leaves the required Union condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q04, should reject it for chg-7182.

Answer D is incorrect because The L code identifies the local interface-address host route; C represents the connected subnet. For CHG-7182 at Union, the change reviewer checks Union’s protocol state; CHG-7182 is judged from the observable result at Union. For CHG-7182, this choice fails Union: the change reviewer leaves the required Union condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q04, should reject it for chg-7182.

 

Question 5

A Xenon route appears with code `S` in `show ip route`. Which route source does the code represent? Choose ONE.

1. Connected route
2. Static route
3. Local interface address
4. OSPF route

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because Cisco route code S denotes a route configured statically rather than learned from a dynamic routing protocol. For CHG-7199 at Xenon, the branch administrator checks Xenon’s protocol state; CHG-7199 is judged from the observable result at Xenon. For CHG-7199, this choice fits Xenon: the branch administrator gets the required Xenon outcome and can verify CHG-7199 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer D is incorrect because OSPF routes use O-related codes, not S. For CHG-7199 at Xenon, the branch administrator checks Xenon’s protocol state; CHG-7199 is judged from the observable result at Xenon. For CHG-7199, this choice fails Xenon: the branch administrator leaves the required Xenon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q05, should reject it for chg-7199.

Answer A is incorrect because Connected networks are marked C. For CHG-7199 at Xenon, the branch administrator checks Xenon’s protocol state; CHG-7199 is judged from the observable result at Xenon. For CHG-7199, this choice fails Xenon: the branch administrator leaves the required Xenon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q05, should reject it for chg-7199.

Answer C is incorrect because A local interface host route is marked L on IPv4 IOS routing tables. For CHG-7199 at Xenon, the branch administrator checks Xenon’s protocol state; CHG-7199 is judged from the observable result at Xenon. For CHG-7199, this choice fails Xenon: the branch administrator leaves the required Xenon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q05, should reject it for chg-7199.

 

Question 6

At Aspen, a routing-table entry begins with `O 172.16.4.0/24`. What source does `O` indicate? Choose ONE.

1. Static routing
2. OSPF
3. Local interface host route
4. Connected interface

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because The O route code identifies a prefix learned through Open Shortest Path First. For CHG-7216 at Aspen, the change reviewer checks Aspen’s protocol state; CHG-7216 is judged from the observable result at Aspen. For CHG-7216, this choice fits Aspen: the change reviewer gets the required Aspen outcome and can verify CHG-7216 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer A is incorrect because Static routes use S. For CHG-7216 at Aspen, the change reviewer checks Aspen’s protocol state; CHG-7216 is judged from the observable result at Aspen. For CHG-7216, this choice fails Aspen: the change reviewer leaves the required Aspen condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q06, should reject it for chg-7216.

Answer D is incorrect because Connected subnets use C. For CHG-7216 at Aspen, the change reviewer checks Aspen’s protocol state; CHG-7216 is judged from the observable result at Aspen. For CHG-7216, this choice fails Aspen: the change reviewer leaves the required Aspen condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q06, should reject it for chg-7216.

Answer C is incorrect because Local interface addresses use L rather than O. For CHG-7216 at Aspen, the change reviewer checks Aspen’s protocol state; CHG-7216 is judged from the observable result at Aspen. For CHG-7216, this choice fails Aspen: the change reviewer leaves the required Aspen condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q06, should reject it for chg-7216.

 

Question 7

A Drift route entry shows `via 192.0.2.1`. What does that address represent? Choose ONE.

1. The administrative distance
2. The route metric
3. The next-hop router for that route
4. The destination prefix

Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer C is correct because The `via` address is the Layer 3 next hop to which packets matching the route are forwarded after neighbor resolution. For CHG-7233 at Drift, the branch administrator checks Drift’s protocol state; CHG-7233 is judged from the observable result at Drift. For CHG-7233, this choice fits Drift: the branch administrator gets the required Drift outcome and can verify CHG-7233 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because Metrics are separate numeric values used by routing protocols and are not represented by the next-hop IP address. For CHG-7233 at Drift, the branch administrator checks Drift’s protocol state; CHG-7233 is judged from the observable result at Drift. For CHG-7233, this choice fails Drift: the branch administrator leaves the required Drift condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q07, should reject it for chg-7233.

Answer D is incorrect because The destination prefix is listed separately from the `via` next-hop address. For CHG-7233 at Drift, the branch administrator checks Drift’s protocol state; CHG-7233 is judged from the observable result at Drift. For CHG-7233, this choice fails Drift: the branch administrator leaves the required Drift condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q07, should reject it for chg-7233.

Answer A is incorrect because Administrative distance is normally shown in brackets with the metric, not as a next-hop IP address. For CHG-7233 at Drift, the branch administrator checks Drift’s protocol state; CHG-7233 is judged from the observable result at Drift. For CHG-7233, this choice fails Drift: the branch administrator leaves the required Drift condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q07, should reject it for chg-7233.

 

Question 8

At Grove, `show ip route` reports `Gateway of last resort is 198.51.100.1`. What does that mean? Choose ONE.

198. The default route through 198.51.100.1
199. The OSPF DR
200. The DNS server
201. The NTP source

Correct Answer: A

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer A is correct because The gateway of last resort identifies the next hop associated with the default route used when no more-specific route matches. For CHG-7250 at Grove, the change reviewer checks Grove’s protocol state; CHG-7250 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q08, the observable result at grove. For CHG-7250, this choice fits Grove: the change reviewer gets the required Grove outcome and can verify CHG-7250 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because A designated router is an OSPF broadcast-segment role and is unrelated to the router-wide default forwarding gateway. For CHG-7250 at Grove, the change reviewer checks Grove’s protocol state; CHG-7250 is judged from the observable result at Grove. For CHG-7250, this choice fails Grove: the change reviewer leaves the required Grove condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q08, should reject it for chg-7250.

Answer C is incorrect because DNS resolves names and does not act as the routing gateway of last resort. For CHG-7250 at Grove, the change reviewer checks Grove’s protocol state; CHG-7250 is judged from the observable result at Grove. For CHG-7250, this choice fails Grove: the change reviewer leaves the required Grove condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q08, should reject it for chg-7250.

Answer D is incorrect because NTP provides time synchronization, not default packet forwarding. For CHG-7250 at Grove, the change reviewer checks Grove’s protocol state; CHG-7250 is judged from the observable result at Grove. For CHG-7250, this choice fails Grove: the change reviewer leaves the required Grove condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q08, should reject it for chg-7250.

 

Question 9

Jasper has a default route and a 172.16.50.0/24 route. A packet targets 172.16.50.25. Which route is selected? Choose ONE.

1. Whichever route has the newer timestamp
2. 172.16.50.0/24
3. Both routes equally
4. 0.0.0.0/0

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because A /24 is more specific than 0.0.0.0/0, so longest-prefix matching selects it for destinations inside that subnet. For CHG-7267 at Jasper, the branch administrator checks Jasper’s protocol state; CHG-7267 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q09, the observable result at jasper. For CHG-7267, this choice fits Jasper: the branch administrator gets the required Jasper outcome and can verify CHG-7267 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer D is incorrect because The default is a fallback and loses when a more-specific installed route matches. For CHG-7267 at Jasper, the branch administrator checks Jasper’s protocol state; CHG-7267 is judged from the observable result at Jasper. For CHG-7267, this choice fails Jasper: the branch administrator leaves the required Jasper condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q09, should reject it for chg-7267.

Answer A is incorrect because Forwarding does not select between installed prefixes based on route age. For CHG-7267 at Jasper, the branch administrator checks Jasper’s protocol state; CHG-7267 is judged from the observable result at Jasper. For CHG-7267, this choice fails Jasper: the branch administrator leaves the required Jasper condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q09, should reject it for chg-7267.

Answer C is incorrect because Different prefix lengths are not equal-cost alternatives for the same forwarding lookup; the longest match wins. For CHG-7267 at Jasper, the branch administrator checks Jasper’s protocol state; CHG-7267 is judged from the observable result at Jasper. For CHG-7267, this choice fails Jasper: the branch administrator leaves the required Jasper condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q09, should reject it for chg-7267.

 

Question 10

Which default administrative distance applies to a directly connected IPv4 route on Monarch? Choose ONE.

1. 1
2. 0
3. 120
4. 110

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because Connected routes have administrative distance 0, reflecting that the subnet is directly attached to an operational interface. For CHG-7284 at Monarch, the change reviewer checks Monarch’s protocol state; CHG-7284 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q10, the observable result at monarch. For CHG-7284, this choice fits Monarch: the change reviewer gets the required Monarch outcome and can verify CHG-7284 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer A is incorrect because AD 1 is the normal default for static routes, not connected routes. For CHG-7284 at Monarch, the change reviewer checks Monarch’s protocol state; CHG-7284 is judged from the observable result at Monarch. For CHG-7284, this choice fails Monarch: the change reviewer leaves the required Monarch condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q10, should reject it for chg-7284.

Answer D is incorrect because AD 110 is the normal OSPF default. For CHG-7284 at Monarch, the change reviewer checks Monarch’s protocol state; CHG-7284 is judged from the observable result at Monarch. For CHG-7284, this choice fails Monarch: the change reviewer leaves the required Monarch condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q10, should reject it for chg-7284.

Answer C is incorrect because AD 120 is associated with RIP, not connected routing. For CHG-7284 at Monarch, the change reviewer checks Monarch’s protocol state; CHG-7284 is judged from the observable result at Monarch. For CHG-7284, this choice fails Monarch: the change reviewer leaves the required Monarch condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q10, should reject it for chg-7284.

 

Question 11

What is the default administrative distance of a normal static route on Beacon? Choose ONE.

1. 110
2. 0
3. 1
4. 90

Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer C is correct because A normal static route uses administrative distance 1 unless another distance is explicitly configured. For CHG-7301 at Beacon, the branch administrator checks Beacon’s protocol state; CHG-7301 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q11, the observable result at beacon. For CHG-7301, this choice fits Beacon: the branch administrator gets the required Beacon outcome and can verify CHG-7301 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because AD 0 is reserved for connected routes. For CHG-7301 at Beacon, the branch administrator checks Beacon’s protocol state; CHG-7301 is judged from the observable result at Beacon. For CHG-7301, this choice fails Beacon: the branch administrator leaves the required Beacon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q11, should reject it for chg-7301.

Answer D is incorrect because AD 90 is the familiar default for internal EIGRP. For CHG-7301 at Beacon, the branch administrator checks Beacon’s protocol state; CHG-7301 is judged from the observable result at Beacon. For CHG-7301, this choice fails Beacon: the branch administrator leaves the required Beacon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q11, should reject it for chg-7301.

Answer A is incorrect because AD 110 is OSPF, which is less preferred than a normal static route for the identical prefix. For CHG-7301 at Beacon, the branch administrator checks Beacon’s protocol state; CHG-7301 is judged from the observable result at Beacon. For CHG-7301, this choice fails Beacon: the branch administrator leaves the required Beacon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q11, should reject it for chg-7301.

 

Question 12

What is the default administrative distance for an OSPF route on Ember? Choose ONE.

1. 110
2. 1
3. 90
4. 120

Correct Answer: A

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer A is correct because Cisco IOS uses administrative distance 110 for OSPF by default. For CHG-7318 at Ember, the change reviewer checks Ember’s protocol state; CHG-7318 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q12, the observable result at ember. For CHG-7318, this choice fits Ember: the change reviewer gets the required Ember outcome and can verify CHG-7318 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because AD 1 is the normal static-route default. For CHG-7318 at Ember, the change reviewer checks Ember’s protocol state; CHG-7318 is judged from the observable result at Ember. For CHG-7318, this choice fails Ember: the change reviewer leaves the required Ember condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q12, should reject it for chg-7318.

Answer C is incorrect because AD 90 is typically internal EIGRP. For CHG-7318 at Ember, the change reviewer checks Ember’s protocol state; CHG-7318 is judged from the observable result at Ember. For CHG-7318, this choice fails Ember: the change reviewer leaves the required Ember condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q12, should reject it for chg-7318.

Answer D is incorrect because AD 120 is typically RIP. For CHG-7318 at Ember, the change reviewer checks Ember’s protocol state; CHG-7318 is judged from the observable result at Ember. For CHG-7318, this choice fails Ember: the change reviewer leaves the required Ember condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q12, should reject it for chg-7318.

 

Question 13

Harbor needs a static route to act only as backup for an OSPF route to the same prefix. Which property makes it floating? Choose ONE.

1. A shorter prefix than the OSPF route
2. A static administrative distance greater than 110
3. A higher OSPF metric on the static route
4. A static administrative distance of 1

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because A floating static route uses an AD higher than the preferred dynamic route, so OSPF remains installed until it becomes unavailable. For CHG-7335 at Harbor, the branch administrator checks Harbor’s protocol state; CHG-7335 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q13, the observable result at harbor. For CHG-7335, this choice fits Harbor: the branch administrator gets the required Harbor outcome and can verify CHG-7335 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer D is incorrect because AD 1 would make the static route preferred over OSPF instead of a backup. For CHG-7335 at Harbor, the branch administrator checks Harbor’s protocol state; CHG-7335 is judged from the observable result at Harbor. For CHG-7335, this choice fails Harbor: the branch administrator leaves the required Harbor condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q13, should reject it for chg-7335.

Answer A is incorrect because Changing prefix length creates a different forwarding destination and does not implement backup for the same route. For CHG-7335 at Harbor, the branch administrator checks Harbor’s protocol state; CHG-7335 is judged from the observable result at Harbor. For CHG-7335, this choice fails Harbor: the branch administrator leaves the required Harbor condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q13, should reject it for chg-7335.

Answer C is incorrect because Static routes do not use OSPF cost as their selection metric. For CHG-7335 at Harbor, the branch administrator checks Harbor’s protocol state; CHG-7335 is judged from the observable result at Harbor. For CHG-7335, this choice fails Harbor: the branch administrator leaves the required Harbor condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q13, should reject it for chg-7335.

 

Question 14

Two OSPF routes at Keystone reach the same prefix with costs 10 and 40. Which metric is preferred? Choose ONE.

1. Cost 40
2. Cost 10
3. The route with the longer next-hop address
4. The route with higher administrative distance

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because OSPF selects the lower cost when comparing paths from the same protocol to the same destination. For CHG-7352 at Keystone, the change reviewer checks Keystone’s protocol state; CHG-7352 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q14, the observable result at keystone. For CHG-7352, this choice fits Keystone: the change reviewer gets the required Keystone outcome and can verify CHG-7352 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer A is incorrect because Higher OSPF cost is less preferred. For CHG-7352 at Keystone, the change reviewer checks Keystone’s protocol state; CHG-7352 is judged from the observable result at Keystone. For CHG-7352, this choice fails Keystone: the change reviewer leaves the required Keystone condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q14, should reject it for chg-7352.

Answer D is incorrect because Administrative distance is equal for the two OSPF candidates, so the OSPF metric resolves the choice. For CHG-7352 at Keystone, the change reviewer checks Keystone’s protocol state; CHG-7352 is judged from the observable result at Keystone. For CHG-7352, this choice fails Keystone: the change reviewer leaves the required Keystone condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q14, should reject it for chg-7352.

Answer C is incorrect because The numeric appearance of a next-hop address is irrelevant to OSPF path preference. For CHG-7352 at Keystone, the change reviewer checks Keystone’s protocol state; CHG-7352 is judged from the observable result at Keystone. For CHG-7352, this choice fails Keystone: the change reviewer leaves the required Keystone condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q14, should reject it for chg-7352.

 

Question 15

At Northstar, OSPF finds two equal-cost paths to the same prefix and the platform allows multiple paths. What can the RIB install? Choose ONE.

1. Neither path until one metric changes
2. Only the path learned first
3. Both equal-cost paths
4. Only the path with the higher router ID

Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer C is correct because OSPF can install multiple equal-cost paths to the same destination, allowing equal-cost load sharing when the platform maximum-path setting permits it. For CHG-7369 at Northstar, the branch administrator checks Northstar’s protocol state; CHG-7369 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q15, the observable result at northstar. For CHG-7369, this choice fits Northstar: the branch administrator gets the required Northstar outcome and can verify CHG-7369 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because Equal-cost multipath is supported; first-learned alone is not the general rule. For CHG-7369 at Northstar, the branch administrator checks Northstar’s protocol state; CHG-7369 is judged from the observable result at Northstar. For CHG-7369, this choice fails Northstar: the branch administrator leaves the required Northstar condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q15, should reject it for chg-7369.

Answer D is incorrect because Router ID does not replace equal-cost forwarding when both valid OSPF paths have the same cost. For CHG-7369 at Northstar, the branch administrator checks Northstar’s protocol state; CHG-7369 is judged from the observable result at Northstar. For CHG-7369, this choice fails Northstar: the branch administrator leaves the required Northstar condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q15, should reject it for chg-7369.

Answer A is incorrect because Equal metrics do not prevent route installation; they can support ECMP. For CHG-7369 at Northstar, the branch administrator checks Northstar’s protocol state; CHG-7369 is judged from the observable result at Northstar. For CHG-7369, this choice fails Northstar: the branch administrator leaves the required Northstar condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q15, should reject it for chg-7369.

 

Question 16

Quartz has 0.0.0.0/0 via ISP-A and 198.51.100.0/24 via ISP-B. Where does traffic to 198.51.100.77 go? Choose ONE.

198. The 198.51.100.0/24 route
199. The default route via ISP-A
200. The route with the lower gateway IP
201. The route with the lower interface number

Correct Answer: A

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer A is correct because The /24 is a longer prefix match than /0 for that destination, so it is selected regardless of the presence of a valid default. For CHG-7386 at Quartz, the change reviewer checks Quartz’s protocol state; CHG-7386 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q16, the observable result at quartz. For CHG-7386, this choice fits Quartz: the change reviewer gets the required Quartz outcome and can verify CHG-7386 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because The default loses whenever a more-specific matching prefix is installed. For CHG-7386 at Quartz, the change reviewer checks Quartz’s protocol state; CHG-7386 is judged from the observable result at Quartz. For CHG-7386, this choice fails Quartz: the change reviewer leaves the required Quartz condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q16, should reject it for chg-7386.

Answer C is incorrect because Gateway numeric value is not a forwarding-selection rule. For CHG-7386 at Quartz, the change reviewer checks Quartz’s protocol state; CHG-7386 is judged from the observable result at Quartz. For CHG-7386, this choice fails Quartz: the change reviewer leaves the required Quartz condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q16, should reject it for chg-7386.

Answer D is incorrect because Interface numbering does not determine best matching route. For CHG-7386 at Quartz, the change reviewer checks Quartz’s protocol state; CHG-7386 is judged from the observable result at Quartz. For CHG-7386, this choice fails Quartz: the change reviewer leaves the required Quartz condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q16, should reject it for chg-7386.

 

Question 17

A Timber route is listed as 10.44.8.0/21. Which field identifies how many leading bits form the network prefix? Choose ONE.

1. Routing metric
2. Prefix length
3. Next-hop count
4. Administrative distance

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because The slash value is the prefix length, indicating the number of leading network bits used to match destination addresses. For CHG-7403 at Timber, the branch administrator checks Timber’s protocol state; CHG-7403 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q17, the observable result at timber. For CHG-7403, this choice fits Timber: the branch administrator gets the required Timber outcome and can verify CHG-7403 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer D is incorrect because Administrative distance is a route-source trust value and is not encoded by the slash prefix length. For CHG-7403 at Timber, the branch administrator checks Timber’s protocol state; CHG-7403 is judged from the observable result at Timber. For CHG-7403, this choice fails Timber: the branch administrator leaves the required Timber condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q17, should reject it for chg-7403.

Answer A is incorrect because Protocol metrics are separate from the destination mask or prefix length. For CHG-7403 at Timber, the branch administrator checks Timber’s protocol state; CHG-7403 is judged from the observable result at Timber. For CHG-7403, this choice fails Timber: the branch administrator leaves the required Timber condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q17, should reject it for chg-7403.

Answer C is incorrect because The number after the slash does not count next hops. For CHG-7403 at Timber, the branch administrator checks Timber’s protocol state; CHG-7403 is judged from the observable result at Timber. For CHG-7403, this choice fails Timber: the branch administrator leaves the required Timber condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q17, should reject it for chg-7403.

 

Question 18

A Willow static route points to next hop 192.0.2.9. Before forwarding, what must the router be able to determine about that next hop? Choose ONE.

1. The DNS name of the next hop
2. How to reach the next-hop address through an outgoing interface
3. The OSPF DR MAC address
4. The NTP stratum of the next hop

Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer B is correct because A recursive next-hop route depends on another installed route or connected network that resolves the next-hop address to an egress interface. For CHG-7420 at Willow, the change reviewer checks Willow’s protocol state; CHG-7420 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q18, the observable result at willow. For CHG-7420, this choice fits Willow: the change reviewer gets the required Willow outcome and can verify CHG-7420 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer A is incorrect because IP forwarding does not require DNS resolution for a numeric next-hop address. For CHG-7420 at Willow, the change reviewer checks Willow’s protocol state; CHG-7420 is judged from the observable result at Willow. For CHG-7420, this choice fails Willow: the change reviewer leaves the required Willow condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q18, should reject it for chg-7420.

Answer D is incorrect because Time synchronization attributes are unrelated to recursive route resolution. For CHG-7420 at Willow, the change reviewer checks Willow’s protocol state; CHG-7420 is judged from the observable result at Willow. For CHG-7420, this choice fails Willow: the change reviewer leaves the required Willow condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q18, should reject it for chg-7420.

Answer C is incorrect because A static recursive next hop need not be the OSPF designated router and is resolved through routing and adjacency mechanisms. For CHG-7420 at Willow, the change reviewer checks Willow’s protocol state; CHG-7420 is judged from the observable result at Willow. For CHG-7420, this choice fails Willow: the change reviewer leaves the required Willow condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q18, should reject it for chg-7420.

 

Question 19

On Zephyr, `show ip route` includes `L 10.10.10.1/32` after 10.10.10.1 is configured on an interface. What does L identify? Choose ONE.

1. A floating static route
2. The connected subnet
3. The router’s own local interface address
4. A learned OSPF loopback

Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer C is correct because The L route is a host route for an IP address assigned to the router itself, allowing traffic destined to that address to be delivered locally. For CHG-7437 at Zephyr, the branch administrator checks Zephyr’s protocol state; CHG-7437 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q19, the observable result at zephyr. For CHG-7437, this choice fits Zephyr: the branch administrator gets the required Zephyr outcome and can verify CHG-7437 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because The connected subnet is represented by a C route such as 10.10.10.0/24. For CHG-7437 at Zephyr, the branch administrator checks Zephyr’s protocol state; CHG-7437 is judged from the observable result at Zephyr. For CHG-7437, this choice fails Zephyr: the branch administrator leaves the required Zephyr condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q19, should reject it for chg-7437.

Answer D is incorrect because OSPF-learned prefixes use O-related codes; L specifically denotes local interface addressing. For CHG-7437 at Zephyr, the branch administrator checks Zephyr’s protocol state; CHG-7437 is judged from the observable result at Zephyr. For CHG-7437, this choice fails Zephyr: the branch administrator leaves the required Zephyr condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q19, should reject it for chg-7437.

Answer A is incorrect because Floating statics retain the S code and do not become L routes. For CHG-7437 at Zephyr, the branch administrator checks Zephyr’s protocol state; CHG-7437 is judged from the observable result at Zephyr. For CHG-7437, this choice fails Zephyr: the branch administrator leaves the required Zephyr condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q19, should reject it for chg-7437.

 

Question 20

A packet reaches Canyon after both an OSPF /24 and a static /16 are installed. At forwarding time, which information is compared first? Choose ONE.

1. The destination is matched against installed prefixes using longest-prefix match
2. Administrative distance is recomputed for every packet
3. OSPF metric is always checked before the prefix length
4. The gateway of last resort is always chosen first

Correct Answer: A

Correct Answer

 

 

Answer A is correct because Administrative distance and metrics are used earlier to decide which routes are installed; forwarding then applies longest-prefix matching to the installed routes. For CHG-7454 at Canyon, the change reviewer checks Canyon’s protocol state; CHG-7454 is judged from, under t10-pt1-q20, the observable result at canyon. For CHG-7454, this choice fits Canyon: the change reviewer gets the required Canyon outcome and can verify CHG-7454 directly.

Incorrect Answers

 

Answer B is incorrect because AD is a route-installation preference, not a per-packet forwarding comparison across different prefixes. For CHG-7454 at Canyon, the change reviewer checks Canyon’s protocol state; CHG-7454 is judged from the observable result at Canyon. For CHG-7454, this choice fails Canyon: the change reviewer leaves the required Canyon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q20, should reject it for chg-7454.

Answer C is incorrect because Metrics do not override longest-prefix match across different installed destination prefixes. For CHG-7454 at Canyon, the change reviewer checks Canyon’s protocol state; CHG-7454 is judged from the observable result at Canyon. For CHG-7454, this choice fails Canyon: the change reviewer leaves the required Canyon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q20, should reject it for chg-7454.

Answer D is incorrect because The default route is considered only when no more-specific installed route matches. For CHG-7454 at Canyon, the change reviewer checks Canyon’s protocol state; CHG-7454 is judged from the observable result at Canyon. For CHG-7454, this choice fails Canyon: the change reviewer leaves the required Canyon condition unmet and, under t10-pt1-q20, should reject it for chg-7454.

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