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Question 181:
Which Cisco technology integrates with SecureX to correlate DNS-layer events with endpoint and firewall telemetry for unified threat investigation?
A) Cisco Umbrella
B) Cisco ISE
C) Cisco Stealthwatch
D) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella is a cloud-delivered security platform that provides DNS-layer protection, acting as the first line of defense against malware, phishing, and command-and-control activity. By inspecting DNS requests before a connection is made, Umbrella blocks access to malicious domains before an IP session is ever established, stopping threats at the earliest stage of the attack chain. This proactive approach reduces the likelihood of endpoint compromise, network intrusion, and lateral movement within the environment. The solution leverages Cisco Talos intelligence, which continuously analyzes billions of internet queries, threat feeds, and malware activity to identify high-risk domains, IPs, and URLs.
When integrated with Cisco SecureX, Umbrella’s cloud-scale telemetry becomes part of a broader, unified security ecosystem. SecureX collects data such as blocked DNS requests, flagged domains, risky IP addresses, and policy violations, and correlates it with endpoint, firewall, and network events. This correlation provides security teams with end-to-end visibility, enabling them to trace a threat from the initial phishing email or malicious download, through DNS resolution, to potential endpoint compromise. By providing a single investigation timeline, SecureX allows analysts to understand the full scope of an attack, identify affected users and devices, and determine the attack’s origin. This reduces mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR), a critical factor in minimizing business risk.
Option B, Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE), focuses on network access control and device posture assessment rather than DNS-layer threat detection. Option C, Stealthwatch (Secure Network Analytics), analyzes NetFlow and telemetry data to detect abnormal traffic patterns but does not provide domain-level preventative blocking. Option D, AMP for Endpoints, delivers malware detection and remediation at the host level but cannot prevent malicious connections at the DNS layer before they occur. While these solutions complement Umbrella, they do not replace its role in preemptively stopping threats at the network edge.
Umbrella’s integration with SecureX also enables automated response workflows. For example, endpoints that repeatedly attempt to access blocked domains can trigger ISE to quarantine the device or adjust access policies dynamically. Similarly, firewall rules can be automatically updated to block traffic to newly identified malicious IPs. These playbooks reduce the manual workload on security teams while ensuring rapid containment of threats. Analysts can pivot directly from a blocked domain to see all associated endpoints, users, and related firewall events, providing comprehensive situational awareness.
Moreover, Umbrella extends protection to roaming users and branch offices without requiring on-premises infrastructure. AnyConnect VPN or SD-WAN integration ensures that all DNS traffic, even from remote locations, is routed through Umbrella for inspection. This maintains consistent enforcement of security policies regardless of user location, aligning with the principles of Zero Trust by ensuring all traffic is verified and monitoreD)
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Umbrella, when integrated with SecureX, provides cloud-based DNS-layer security that is correlated with endpoint and network telemetry. This combination delivers comprehensive threat visibility, investigation capabilities, and automated response across the enterprise, ensuring that threats are blocked before they can reach critical systems and providing a powerful foundation for proactive cybersecurity. By preventing malicious domain access and connecting DNS intelligence with on-premises telemetry, organizations gain both speed and context in threat detection and response, strengthening their overall security posture.
Question 182:
Which protocol does Cisco ISE primarily use for dynamic VLAN assignment and downloadable ACL enforcement after successful authentication?
A) RADIUS
B) TACACS+
C) SNMP
D) NetFlow
Answer: A
Explanation:
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is the primary protocol used by Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) to facilitate authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for network access. When a user or device attempts to connect to the network, the network access device—such as a switch, wireless LAN controller, or VPN gateway—acts as the authenticator and forwards the credentials to ISE over RADIUS, typically using UDP ports 1812 for authentication and 1813 for accounting. Upon successful verification of credentials, ISE responds with a RADIUS Access-Accept message that includes specific attributes defining post-login conditions, such as VLAN IDs, downloadable Access Control Lists (dACLs), and Security Group Tags (SGTs). These attributes allow the network device to enforce policies dynamically based on user identity, device type, and security posture.
Option B, TACACS+, is focused on securing administrative access to network devices rather than managing end-user network access. Option C, SNMP, is used primarily for device monitoring and performance management, not authentication or policy enforcement. Option D, NetFlow, exports traffic telemetry for analysis and does not handle access control functions. While these protocols serve important roles in network management, none of them perform the dynamic, identity-based enforcement that RADIUS enables in conjunction with ISE.
Using RADIUS, Cisco ISE can implement fine-grained, policy-driven network segmentation. For example, employees in the HR department may be assigned to VLAN 30 and tagged with the SGT “HR-Users,” while contractors might be placed in a separate guest VLAN with restricted access enforced via dACLs. This dynamic approach ensures that access privileges are tied to the user or device identity rather than a static IP address, improving both security and operational flexibility. Furthermore, ISE supports Change of Authorization (CoA) messages, allowing network devices to update a session’s privileges in real-time if a device’s compliance posture changes—for instance, if antivirus software is outdated or encryption is disableD) This continuous enforcement aligns with Cisco’s Zero Trust model, where trust is never implicit and is constantly validateD)
By leveraging RADIUS, Cisco ISE forms the backbone of identity-based network access control, integrating authentication, dynamic policy enforcement, and continuous compliance verification. Therefore, A is correct, because RADIUS underpins ISE’s ability to deliver dynamic VLAN assignments, downloadable ACLs, and SGT-based segmentation, enabling secure, identity-driven access across the network and supporting a Zero Trust architecture.
Question 183:
In a site-to-site IPsec VPN, which component negotiates security parameters and keys between peers before encrypted data flow begins?
A) ISAKMP/IKE Phase 1
B) ESP Header
C) Diffie-Hellman Group
D) GRE Encapsulation
Answer: A
Explanation:
During the establishment of a site-to-site VPN, ISAKMP/IKE Phase 1 is responsible for creating a secure control channel between VPN peers. This phase handles the negotiation of security policies, authentication of devices, and the exchange of cryptographic keys, ultimately establishing an IKE Security Association (SA). By completing Phase 1 successfully, a protected management tunnel is formed, which allows Phase 2 to securely negotiate the parameters that protect actual user data within the IPsec data plane using ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) or AH (Authentication Header).
Option B, ESP, is part of the data-plane packet structure used to encrypt or authenticate traffic, not a control-plane negotiation phase. Option C, Diffie-Hellman, defines the strength of key exchange but is not itself a phase; it is a component used within Phase 1 for secure key agreement. Option D, generic tunneling encapsulation, merely encapsulates traffic without negotiating security parameters or performing encryption.
IKE Phase 1 supports two modes: Main Mode, which exchanges six messages for robust negotiation and protection of identities, and Aggressive Mode, which completes in three messages but exposes identities earlier. During these exchanges, the peers authenticate each other using pre-shared keys or digital certificates, and negotiate algorithms for encryption, hashing, and Diffie-Hellman groups. Successful negotiation ensures that both sides agree on the same parameters; mismatched encryption or hashing algorithms will result in negotiation failure, preventing the VPN from establishing.
Once Phase 1 completes, a secure IKE SA exists, providing confidentiality and integrity for further negotiation. Phase 2 then leverages this secure channel to establish IPsec Security Associations, defining how actual traffic between the sites will be protecteD) Without Phase 1, Phase 2 cannot proceed securely, as the key exchange and mutual authentication would not be guaranteeD)
Therefore, A is correct, because ISAKMP/IKE Phase 1 establishes the secure control channel that negotiates the parameters and cryptographic keys essential for IPsec VPN operation. It ensures that the VPN peers can authenticate each other and agree on security policies, forming the foundation for a trusted, encrypted data connection between sites. This phase is critical to maintaining confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity for all subsequent IPsec traffiC)
Question 184:
Which Cisco email security feature verifies that messages originate from legitimate senders to prevent domain spoofing?
A) SPF, DKIM, and DMARC Validation
B) Time-of-Click Protection
C) AMP File Reputation
D) Spam Quarantine
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Email Gateway uses SPF (Sender Policy Framework), DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail), and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) to authenticate email senders and protect recipients from domain spoofing and impersonation attacks. These mechanisms form a layered approach to verifying the legitimacy of incoming email.
SPF checks whether the sending IP address is authorized by the domain’s DNS records to send email on behalf of that domain. If the IP is not listed, the message can be flagged, quarantined, or rejected according to policy. DKIM provides a cryptographic signature for the message, created with the sender’s private key. The recipient server retrieves the corresponding public key from DNS and verifies the signature to ensure the message has not been tampered with in transit and that it originated from the claimed domain.
DMARC builds on SPF and DKIM by defining how mail receivers should handle messages that fail authentication checks. It enforces alignment between the sender domain in the From header and the domains validated by SPF and DKIM. Administrators can configure DMARC to quarantine or reject failing messages and receive reports on unauthorized use of their domain, enabling continuous monitoring and adjustment of email security policies.
Option B, URL inspection, focuses on identifying malicious links rather than validating sender identity. Option C, attachment scanning, protects against malware but does not authenticate the sender. Option D, spam isolation, filters unwanted email but does not provide cryptographic verification of sender domains.
By implementing SPF, DKIM, and DMARC, Cisco Secure Email Gateway significantly mitigates threats like business email compromise (BEC) and phishing attacks that rely on forged sender addresses. Messages failing DMARC can be automatically quarantined, flagged, or rejected, and integration with Cisco Talos Reputation Scores adds an additional layer of risk assessment, improving overall email security.
Therefore, A is correct, because the combined use of SPF, DKIM, and DMARC ensures that email senders are authenticated, helping prevent spoofed-domain attacks and protecting users from phishing and social-engineering threats. This multilayered approach provides both verification and enforcement, aligning with best practices for enterprise email security and supporting a zero-trust strategy for communication integrity.
Question 185:
Which Cisco Secure Firewall capability allows security policies to be applied consistently across physical, virtual, and cloud deployments using centralized management?
A) Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC)
B) Cisco Stealthwatch
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco Threat Grid
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC) serves as the centralized management platform for Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (FTD) appliances, including physical, virtual, and cloud-based deployments. It consolidates configuration, policy management, event monitoring, and reporting into a single interface, providing organizations with comprehensive control over their firewall infrastructure. FMC is designed to support complex, multi-device environments, ensuring consistent security policies and operational visibility across the network.
Unlike individual firewalls managed locally, FMC allows administrators to define global objects, intrusion policies, access-control rules, and URL or content filters centrally. Once policies are created, they can be consistently deployed to hundreds of FTD appliances, eliminating configuration drift and reducing the potential for misconfigurations that could create security gaps. This centralized approach streamlines operations, simplifies auditing, and enhances compliance with corporate and regulatory security standards.
Option B, analyzing flow data, is primarily associated with Cisco Stealthwatch, which focuses on network telemetry and behavioral analysis. Option C, enforcing access control, is a function performed by the firewalls themselves rather than FMC, which acts as the centralized policy manager. Option D, sandboxing and malware detonation, is the domain of Cisco Threat Grid or AMP for Endpoints, which handle file inspection and behavioral analysis outside of the firewall policy framework.
FMC also integrates intrusion prevention and detection capabilities. Administrators can fine-tune intrusion rules to reduce false positives while maintaining high detection fidelity. The platform correlates security events across multiple devices, helping analysts identify patterns and respond more effectively to threats. For example, an FMC-managed deployment can aggregate logs from distributed firewalls, revealing a coordinated attack that might otherwise be missed when monitoring devices individually.
Integration with Cisco SecureX further enhances FMC’s capabilities. Security analysts can automate incident response workflows, such as isolating compromised hosts, blocking malicious domains, or updating access policies across the network in real time. Role-based access control ensures that administrative tasks are appropriately segmented among security teams, and multi-domain management enables large enterprises to manage firewalls across multiple locations or business units while maintaining a unified security posture.
FMC also supports extensive reporting and dashboards, giving security teams visibility into network traffic, blocked threats, and policy enforcement. This visibility is essential for compliance reporting, operational oversight, and ongoing risk management. By centralizing these capabilities, FMC reduces operational complexity, ensures consistency across deployments, and improves the efficiency and effectiveness of security operations teams.
Therefore, A is correct, because Firepower Management Center centralizes configuration, monitoring, and policy management for Cisco Secure Firewall deployments. It provides consistent, enterprise-wide firewall policies, enhances visibility, supports intrusion prevention, and enables integration with SecureX for automated incident response, making it an essential component for managing hybrid and large-scale security infrastructures.
Question 186:
Which Cisco technology provides automated policy enforcement for workloads across Kubernetes and virtualized environments to prevent lateral movement?
A) Cisco Secure Workload (Tetration)
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco AnyConnect
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Workload, previously known as Cisco Tetration, provides advanced micro-segmentation and security policy enforcement across data center and cloud environments. Its primary function is to deliver deep visibility into workload communications, continuously monitoring application dependencies and network flows to create a comprehensive map of which workloads interact with one another. This insight enables administrators to implement least-privilege, allow-list policies that strictly limit communications to only what is necessary for proper application operation, effectively reducing the risk of lateral movement in the event of a breach.
Option B is incorrect because DNS-layer protection is provided by Cisco Umbrella, not Secure WorkloaD) Option C, VPN connectivity, is unrelated to workload-level segmentation. Option D, network access control, is handled by Cisco ISE rather than Secure WorkloaD)
The platform deploys lightweight agents on workloads—whether physical servers, virtual machines, or containers—to collect detailed telemetry, including process IDs, system calls, connection patterns, and metadata about inter-workload communications. Secure Workload uses this data to build a dynamic application dependency map, which becomes the foundation for automated policy recommendations. Machine learning algorithms analyze normal workload behavior and propose segmentation policies that allow only approved interactions, effectively implementing a zero-trust micro-segmentation strategy.
Administrators can review and refine these policies before enforcement, ensuring that business-critical communications are not disrupted while malicious or unintended connections are blockeD) Integration with Cisco SecureX and Cisco Stealthwatch allows security teams to correlate workload activity with broader network telemetry, detecting anomalous behavior that may indicate compromise. This combined visibility supports automated response workflows, including isolating affected workloads or updating segmentation policies in real time.
Secure Workload’s micro-segmentation is particularly valuable in hybrid cloud and containerized environments, where traditional network segmentation methods—like VLANs and ACLs—are difficult to maintain and scale. By applying policy at the workload level, organizations can enforce security consistently across on-premises and cloud workloads without relying on IP addresses or network topology, aligning with modern zero-trust principles.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Secure Workload automates visibility, micro-segmentation, and policy enforcement across hybrid and containerized infrastructures. By continuously mapping workload communications and restricting interactions to only what is required, it reduces the attack surface, prevents lateral movement of threats, and integrates with Cisco’s broader security ecosystem to provide comprehensive workload protection.
Question 187:
What is the primary function of the Cisco Threat Grid platform?
A) Dynamic Malware Analysis and Sandboxing
B) VPN Termination
C) Log Collection
D) Flow Telemetry
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Threat Grid is Cisco’s cloud-based dynamic malware analysis and sandboxing solution, designed to detect and classify advanced threats that may evade traditional static inspection techniques. When a file is flagged as suspicious—whether it originates from email, endpoints, or network traffic—Threat Grid detonates it in an isolated virtual environment. This controlled execution allows the platform to monitor and record the file’s full behavior, including process creation, registry modifications, file system changes, and network connections. The observed actions generate behavioral indicators that form the basis for assigning IOC (Indicators of Compromise) scores, helping security teams classify the threat and determine its severity.
Option B is incorrect because VPNs provide secure remote connectivity, not malware analysis. Option C, SIEM solutions, collect and correlate log data but do not perform sandbox-based behavioral inspection. Option D, Stealthwatch, analyzes network telemetry for anomalies but does not execute suspicious files in a sandbox.
Threat Grid’s strength lies in its integration with Cisco’s broader security ecosystem. Products like Cisco Secure Email, Secure Firewall, and Secure Endpoint can automatically submit unknown files to Threat Grid for analysis. Once a file is detonated, the resulting behavioral reports and IOC data are shared with Cisco’s Talos Intelligence ClouD) This global intelligence feed enhances the detection capabilities of all connected security appliances, ensuring that similar threats are blocked across multiple vectors and environments.
Administrators gain detailed insights into malware behavior, including indicators of lateral movement, persistence mechanisms, and data exfiltration attempts. This visibility allows for more accurate threat hunting and faster incident response, as the behavioral context provides actionable guidance on containment and remediation. Additionally, Threat Grid’s reports can be used to improve existing detection rules and signatures, reinforcing both static and dynamic defenses.
By combining dynamic analysis with threat intelligence sharing, Cisco Threat Grid enables organizations to detect sophisticated malware that might bypass traditional signature-based solutions. It exposes behaviors that are otherwise invisible during static analysis, helping security teams identify previously unknown or polymorphic threats before they impact the network or endpoints.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Threat Grid delivers sandbox-based dynamic malware analysis, observing the real behavior of suspicious files to generate actionable IOCs. This approach enhances threat detection, integrates with Cisco’s security products, and provides visibility into malicious activity that static inspection alone cannot reveal.
Question 188:
Which feature of Cisco Duo enables adaptive authentication based on contextual factors such as user location and device health?
A) Policy & Control Engine
B) Cloud Proxy
C) AMP Connector
D) NetFlow Sensor
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Policy & Control Engine in Cisco Duo is a core component that enables administrators to enforce adaptive, context-aware multi-factor authentication (MFA) across enterprise applications. This engine evaluates the risk associated with each authentication attempt and applies policies dynamically based on factors such as user location, device posture, network type, and the sensitivity of the application being accesseD) For example, a login attempt from an unfamiliar country or an unmanaged device can trigger a stronger authentication requirement, such as a push notification, one-time passcode, or biometric verification. This adaptive approach ensures that access is granted only when both user identity and device compliance meet security standards.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they refer to unrelated functionalities. Option B relates to sandboxing or threat analysis, C to DNS-layer security, and D to endpoint telemetry—none of which handle MFA policy enforcement.
Duo’s Policy & Control Engine works in conjunction with the Duo agent, which assesses device health metrics including operating system version, disk encryption status, screen lock configuration, and antivirus presence. These checks allow the engine to enforce device trust policies, preventing access from compromised or non-compliant endpoints. By integrating with existing identity providers such as Active Directory, SAML, or OAuth, Duo verifies both the user’s identity and the security posture of their device before allowing access.
This dynamic enforcement aligns closely with Cisco’s Zero Trust Access framework, which operates on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” Continuous evaluation of context ensures that risk-based decisions are applied in real time, reducing the likelihood of credential-based compromise or unauthorized access. Additionally, administrators can create granular policies for different user groups, applications, or geographies, tailoring authentication requirements to organizational needs while maintaining a seamless user experience wherever possible.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Duo’s Policy & Control Engine enforces adaptive, context-aware multi-factor authentication. By continuously evaluating user and device trust, it dynamically adjusts authentication requirements, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and supporting a robust Zero Trust security model.
Question 189:
Which Cisco Stealthwatch component collects and exports NetFlow or IPFIX records from network devices?
A) Flow Collector
B) Management Console
C) Flow Sensor
D) Identity Services Engine
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Flow Collector is a fundamental component of Cisco Stealthwatch (also branded as Cisco Secure Network Analytics) that serves as the central repository and processing engine for network telemetry. Its primary function is to ingest, normalize, aggregate, and store flow records received from network devices such as routers, switches, and firewalls. These flow records are generated using protocols like NetFlow, IPFIX, and sFlow, which summarize network traffic by providing metadata about connections, including source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, packet counts, and byte counts. By centralizing this information, the Flow Collector enables Stealthwatch to provide comprehensive visibility into network communications and establish baselines of normal behavior.
Option B is incorrect because dashboards are provided by the Stealthwatch Management Console (SMC) or Security Analytics console, not the Flow Collector. Option C is inaccurate because flow generation occurs on the network devices themselves or via span ports and taps; the Flow Collector only receives and processes these flows. Option D is also incorrect because the Flow Collector is an integral, native component of Stealthwatch rather than an external system.
Once flow records reach the collector, it normalizes the data into a consistent format suitable for analysis. This normalization allows Stealthwatch to process flows from diverse vendors and device types uniformly, making cross-network visibility possible in heterogeneous environments. The collector also performs aggregation to reduce storage requirements and improve processing efficiency, combining multiple flow records that represent similar traffic patterns over time. By storing this enriched flow data, the collector enables historical analysis, trend detection, and forensic investigations, which are essential for identifying both active threats and latent risks in the network.
The Flow Collector’s capabilities are critical for behavioral analytics. By analyzing patterns and deviations from baseline behavior, Stealthwatch can detect anomalies such as unusual data exfiltration attempts, lateral movement within the network, port scanning, and command-and-control (C2) communications. For instance, if a workstation suddenly begins transferring large volumes of data to an external IP address at unusual hours, the Flow Collector ensures that this traffic is captured and fed into Stealthwatch’s Security Analytics Engine, which then generates alerts for further investigation.
Integration with Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) and other telemetry sources further enriches the flow data, adding context such as user identity, device type, and security group membership. This contextualization allows for more precise threat detection and prioritization. For example, a flow originating from a critical server tagged with a high-security classification can trigger a higher-severity alert than one from a less sensitive workstation, enabling security teams to respond proportionally to the risk.
By efficiently gathering, processing, and contextualizing network flow telemetry, the Flow Collector forms the backbone of Stealthwatch’s ability to provide continuous monitoring, real-time anomaly detection, and actionable threat intelligence. It underpins both proactive threat hunting and reactive incident response, allowing organizations to detect and mitigate network threats before significant damage occurs.
Therefore, A is correct, because the Flow Collector is responsible for ingesting, normalizing, and analyzing network-flow telemetry, which powers Cisco Stealthwatch’s behavioral analytics, threat detection, and incident response capabilities, providing organizations with comprehensive visibility and security intelligence across their network.
Question 190:
Which Cisco cloud-native solution provides DNS-layer protection, secure web gateway, firewall-as-a-service, and CASB features in a single platform?
A) Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway
B) Cisco Cloudlock
C) Cisco AnyConnect
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway (SIG) is a cloud-native platform that consolidates multiple security functions into a single, unified solution, providing comprehensive protection for users both on and off the corporate network. As organizations increasingly adopt cloud services and support remote work, traditional perimeter-based defenses are no longer sufficient. Umbrella SIG addresses this by integrating DNS-layer security, secure web gateway (SWG) functionality, firewall-as-a-service (FWaaS), and cloud access security broker (CASB) capabilities within a single scalable platform. This unified approach simplifies management while delivering consistent policy enforcement across all users and locations.
Option B is incorrect because it refers only to a dedicated CASB solution, which lacks the broader SWG and DNS-layer protections. Option C is a VPN client, which provides encrypted connectivity but does not inspect or control web traffic for security purposes. Option D is an access-control system, which governs user permissions but does not actively block or filter threats.
Umbrella SIG works by routing user traffic—including DNS queries, HTTP, and HTTPS sessions—through Cisco’s global cloud infrastructure. DNS-layer protection provides the first line of defense by blocking connections to domains known to host malware, phishing, or command-and-control servers, leveraging threat intelligence from Cisco Talos. The SWG component enforces URL and content policies, inspects web traffic, and blocks malicious or unauthorized content, while FWaaS capabilities enable inspection and control of traffic between users and the internet, including application-level policies. CASB integration allows visibility into cloud application usage, identifying shadow IT and enforcing data-protection policies.
Integration with Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client extends Umbrella SIG protections to remote and roaming users, ensuring that security policies are consistently applied regardless of location. Additionally, integration with Cisco SecureX provides centralized visibility and automated incident response by correlating threat data across the security stack, accelerating detection and remediation of threats.
By unifying these functions, Umbrella SIG reduces the complexity of managing multiple point solutions and ensures that security controls follow users wherever they go. This cloud-delivered model also enables rapid scalability, low latency, and continuous updates from Cisco Talos threat intelligence, which continuously monitors the internet for emerging threats.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway consolidates DNS-layer security, secure web gateway, firewall-as-a-service, and CASB functionality into a single cloud-native platform, providing comprehensive, scalable protection for users everywhere without relying on traditional network perimeters. This approach aligns with modern security strategies that emphasize cloud-first, user-centric protection.
Question 191:
Which Cisco technology provides behavior-based detection of threats across the network by analyzing flow data and metadata without relying on signatures?
A) Cisco Stealthwatch
B) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch, now branded Cisco Secure Network Analytics, is a network security solution that uses behavioral analytics on network telemetry—such as NetFlow, IPFIX, and sFlow—to detect threats and anomalous activity across an enterprise network. Unlike traditional signature-based security solutions that rely on known patterns of attacks, Stealthwatch establishes a baseline of normal network behavior for hosts, applications, and subnets. By continuously monitoring deviations from this baseline, it can detect subtle threats like lateral movement, unusual data exfiltration, or communication with command-and-control servers, which might otherwise evade conventional defenses.
Option B, AMP for Endpoints, primarily protects individual hosts against malware, while option C, Cisco Umbrella, functions at the DNS and web layers to prevent access to malicious domains. Option D, Cisco ISE, enforces network access control and authentication but does not provide deep network-based threat detection.
Stealthwatch’s strength lies in its ability to correlate flow telemetry with contextual information, including user identity and device details from Cisco ISE. This integration allows security operations teams to map network activity to specific users and devices, providing actionable insights for incident investigation. Additionally, integration with Cisco SecureX enables correlation of alerts across multiple security layers, including endpoints, firewalls, and DNS, offering a unified threat picture that accelerates detection and response.
Behavioral analytics in Stealthwatch leverage machine learning algorithms to adapt to changing traffic patterns and evolving network behavior. For instance, if a host that normally communicates only internally suddenly begins transferring large volumes of sensitive data to an external, previously unseen IP address, Stealthwatch generates an alert. Alerts include contextual details such as the device, user, and application involved, reducing the time analysts spend determining the significance of anomalies. This proactive approach enables early identification of stealthy threats that might bypass signature-based antivirus or intrusion detection systems.
Furthermore, Stealthwatch supports a variety of deployment models, including physical and virtual appliances, and cloud-based telemetry collection, making it suitable for hybrid network environments. The platform’s ability to scale and analyze millions of flow records per second ensures comprehensive visibility across complex networks.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Stealthwatch provides network-based anomaly detection and enhanced visibility by analyzing flow data, enabling organizations to identify and respond to emerging threats proactively without relying solely on traditional signature-based methods. Its integration with ISE and SecureX ensures that behavioral alerts are enriched with user and device context, streamlining investigations and improving overall security posture.
Question 192:
Which Cisco solution enforces endpoint posture compliance before granting network access?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco AMP
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) performs posture assessment on endpoints to determine whether they comply with defined security policies. During authentication, ISE checks for OS version, antivirus status, patches, disk encryption, and other posture attributes. Devices failing compliance can be placed into a quarantine VLAN, given limited access, or redirected to remediation portals.
Option B, AMP, focuses on malware detection; C, Umbrella, protects DNS and web traffic; D, AnyConnect, provides VPN connectivity but does not assess posture directly.
ISE uses RADIUS to communicate with network access devices (switches, WLAN controllers, VPN gateways). It supports Dynamic VLAN assignment, downloadable ACLs (dACLs), and Security Group Tags (SGTs) based on posture results. Integration with SecureX and Stealthwatch allows SOC teams to correlate compliance failures with other security telemetry.
By enforcing posture compliance, ISE ensures only secure devices access critical resources, reducing the risk of malware spreading laterally within the network. This aligns with the Zero Trust model, where continuous verification is required for access.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco ISE evaluates device posture and enforces network access policies, ensuring endpoint compliance before granting connectivity.
Question 193:
Which Cisco technology allows administrators to automate incident response and orchestrate security actions across multiple products?
A) Cisco SecureX
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: A
Explanation
Cisco SecureX is a cloud-native security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platform that centralizes visibility and enables coordinated response across multiple Cisco security products. It aggregates telemetry from Firepower, AMP, Umbrella, Duo, Stealthwatch, and third-party solutions to provide a single-pane-of-glass view of threats.
Option B, Umbrella, focuses on DNS security; C, ISE, handles network access control; D, AnyConnect, provides VPN connectivity.
SecureX allows the creation of automated playbooks, such as isolating a compromised endpoint, blocking malicious domains, or quarantining emails. Analysts can pivot from one alert to related events across devices, reducing mean time to detect (MTTD) and respond (MTTR). SecureX also integrates threat intelligence feeds from Talos for dynamic updates.
By automating repetitive response tasks, SecureX reduces human error and improves SOC efficiency. Custom dashboards provide detailed correlation of alerts, user activity, and endpoint status, ensuring comprehensive threat visibility.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco SecureX automates investigation and response across multiple security products, streamlining incident handling and threat mitigation.
Question 194:
Which Cisco solution provides secure VPN access with endpoint posture assessment and SAML integration for cloud applications?
A) Cisco AnyConnect
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client offers VPN connectivity to on-premises and cloud networks while integrating with ISE for posture assessment. It can verify device compliance, enforce remediation, and support SAML-based single sign-on for cloud applications.
Option B, Umbrella, protects DNS/web traffic; C, ISE, manages access policies but is not a VPN client; D, Stealthwatch, provides network monitoring.
AnyConnect supports multiple VPN protocols (SSL, IPsec) and includes posture modules that check for antivirus status, disk encryption, OS version, and other attributes. If non-compliant, the client can prompt remediation or restrict access. The combination of SAML integration and posture assessment enables secure cloud application access, aligning with Zero Trust principles.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco AnyConnect provides secure remote access with device posture validation and SAML integration for cloud resources.
Question 195:
Which Cisco Secure Firewall feature inspects application-layer traffic to enforce granular security policies?
A) Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS)
B) NetFlow Export
C) VPN Tunnels
D) Port Mirroring
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS) within Cisco Secure Firewall inspects traffic at Layer 7, identifying applications regardless of port or protocol. It uses signatures, behavioral analysis, and anomaly detection to block threats, enforce policies, and prevent data exfiltration.
Option B exports flow data, C establishes VPN connectivity, D mirrors traffic for monitoring but does not inspect it.
NGIPS allows administrators to define application-aware rules, block risky behaviors, and prioritize business-critical traffiC) Integration with Firepower Management Center centralizes policy management and correlates events with broader security telemetry.
Therefore, A is correct, because NGIPS enables deep application-layer inspection and enforcement of granular security policies.
Question 196:
Which Cisco product provides cloud access security broker (CASB) capabilities to protect SaaS applications?
A) Cisco Cloudlock
B) Cisco AnyConnect
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Cloudlock is a cloud-native CASB that monitors and secures SaaS applications. It discovers applications in use, enforces security policies, detects insider threats, and protects sensitive datA)
Option B, AnyConnect, is a VPN client; C, Umbrella, protects DNS/web traffic; D, ISE, manages network access.
Cloudlock integrates with SaaS APIs (e.g., Microsoft 365, Google Workspace) to monitor user activity, enforce DLP policies, and remediate risky behavior. By detecting compromised accounts, excessive sharing, or data leakage, Cloudlock reduces exposure in cloud environments.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Cloudlock secures SaaS applications with discovery, policy enforcement, and risk mitigation features.
Question 197:
Which component of Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents known malware from executing on devices?
A) Local Malware Protection
B) NetFlow Analyzer
C) DNS Security Module
D) Stealthwatch Collector
Answer: A
Explanation:
Local Malware Protection in Cisco AMP for Endpoints uses signature-based detection to block known malware before execution. It scans files in real time and compares hashes against Talos intelligence.
Option B analyzes flows, C inspects DNS, D collects network telemetry.
AMP also provides retrospective security by tracking file behavior over time and generating alerts if a previously benign file later exhibits malicious behavior. Integration with SecureX enables automated containment and remediation.
Therefore, A is correct, because Local Malware Protection blocks known threats at the endpoint before they can execute.
Question 198:
Which Cisco solution integrates with firewalls, endpoints, and cloud security to provide a single view of threats and automate response?
A) Cisco SecureX
B) Cisco AnyConnect
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
SecureX collects telemetry from Cisco products (firewalls, AMP, Umbrella, Duo) and correlates it with third-party tools. It provides incident visualization, automated playbooks, and threat intelligence integration for fast response.
Option B, AnyConnect, is VPN; C, Umbrella, provides DNS/web protection; D, ISE, handles access control.
SecureX enables SOC teams to pivot across alerts, reduce MTTD, and orchestrate containment, such as isolating endpoints or blocking malicious domains automatically.
Therefore, A is correct, because SecureX centralizes visibility and orchestrates automated response across multiple security layers.
Question 199:
Which Cisco security product performs file detonation to detect zero-day malware in a sandboxed environment?
A) Cisco Threat Grid
B) Cisco ISE
C) Cisco AnyConnect
D) Cisco Umbrella
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Threat Grid detonates suspicious files in a virtual sandbox to observe behavior, including process execution, registry changes, and network activity. Behavioral indicators are analyzed for zero-day malware.
Option B, ISE, handles access control; C, AnyConnect, provides VPN; D, Umbrella, protects DNS and web traffiC)
Threat Grid integrates with AMP, Firepower, and Secure Email to automatically submit files for analysis, ensuring threats are detected even before signatures exist. The platform generates reports with detailed IOC data, which can be used for automated enforcement across Cisco security products.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco Threat Grid dynamically analyzes files in isolation to detect previously unknown malware.
Question 200:
Which Cisco technology enforces identity-based access policies and segmentation across wired, wireless, and VPN networks?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco AMP
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) provides centralized identity-based access control for wired, wireless, and VPN networks. It evaluates authentication, posture, and device compliance, then dynamically assigns VLANs, ACLs, and SGTs.
Option B, AMP, protects endpoints; C, Umbrella, provides DNS/web security; D, Stealthwatch, monitors network flows.
ISE supports policy enforcement, dynamic segmentation, and CoA for changing authorization mid-session. Integration with Duo and SecureX enhances Zero Trust security by ensuring only trusted users and devices can access sensitive resources.
Therefore, A is correct, because Cisco ISE enforces granular identity-based policies and network segmentation across multiple access methods.
