Visit here for our full Cisco 350-701 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 1:
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of Cisco Stealthwatch in a network environment?
A Network segmentation
B Threat detection and behavioral analytics
C Endpoint antivirus management
D VPN configuration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch is a network traffic analytics solution that leverages behavioral modeling and anomaly detection to identify threats within the network. Its primary purpose is threat detection and behavioral analytics, which allows security teams to detect unusual patterns such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, and insider threats. While network segmentation (A) is a part of overall network security, Stealthwatch does not perform segmentation; it monitors and analyzes traffic flows. Endpoint antivirus management (C) is outside its scope, as Stealthwatch focuses on network telemetry rather than host-based protection. VPN configuration (D) is a network connectivity function unrelated to Stealthwatch’s analytics capabilities. Stealthwatch relies on NetFlow, IPFIX, and telemetry data from various devices to create a baseline of normal network behavior.
It then uses machine learning algorithms to detect deviations from this baseline, which may indicate potential threats. It integrates with other Cisco security technologies like Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) and Cisco Firepower, providing context-rich alerts. Importantly, Stealthwatch also supports encrypted traffic analytics, allowing the detection of threats even when traffic is encrypted without decrypting it. This capability helps organizations maintain privacy while enhancing security. By using Stealthwatch, organizations gain comprehensive visibility across their network infrastructure, improving incident response and forensic investigations. Understanding the role of Stealthwatch is essential for the 350-701 SCOR exam, particularly in the visibility and enforcement domain, as candidates are expected to identify the purpose and function of Cisco network security solutions.
Question 2:
Which Cisco solution provides centralized management of endpoint security, including malware protection, device compliance, and configuration enforcement?
A Cisco AMP for Endpoints
B Cisco Umbrella
C Cisco ISE
D Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints represents a comprehensive solution specifically engineered for centralized endpoint security management across enterprise environments. This platform delivers a multifaceted approach to protecting organizational endpoints through integrated capabilities including advanced malware detection and remediation, real-time threat intelligence integration, device compliance monitoring, and granular configuration enforcement. Unlike alternative Cisco security solutions that serve different purposes, AMP for Endpoints focuses exclusively on endpoint-level protection, making it the primary choice for organizations seeking to secure workstations, servers, and mobile devices against sophisticated threats. Cisco Umbrella, while valuable for DNS-layer security and cloud-delivered protection, operates at the network perimeter rather than on individual endpoints. Similarly, Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) excels at identity-based network access control and policy enforcement for users and devices but lacks the malware detection and endpoint-level threat remediation capabilities essential for comprehensive endpoint security. Stealthwatch concentrates on network traffic monitoring and behavioral analytics, providing visibility into network activities rather than endpoint-specific protection.
What distinguishes AMP for Endpoints is its robust feature set that includes continuous monitoring, retrospective security analysis, and advanced sandboxing capabilities. These features ensure that threats are identified and neutralized even when they initially evade detection, providing organizations with defense-in-depth protection against zero-day exploits and polymorphic malware. The platform’s seamless integration with Cisco Threat Grid significantly enhances its analytical capabilities, enabling deep forensic analysis of suspicious files and URLs through automated sandboxing and behavioral analysis. This integration allows security teams to understand attack vectors, identify indicators of compromise, and implement proactive defenses based on actionable threat intelligence. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, mastering AMP for Endpoints concepts is absolutely critical, as this solution frequently appears in questions covering content security and endpoint protection domains. Understanding how AMP for Endpoints fits within Cisco’s broader security architecture, particularly its approach to protecting endpoints through integrated threat intelligence, automated response capabilities, and comprehensive policy enforcement, is essential for success on the exam and for implementing effective endpoint security strategies in real-world environments.
Question 3:
In a Cisco Firepower deployment, which policy determines whether traffic is allowed, blocked, or inspected for threats?
A Access Control Policy
B Intrusion Prevention Policy
C Network Discovery Policy
D Security Intelligence Policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Access Control Policy in Cisco Firepower serves as the foundational and primary policy framework that governs all traffic flow decisions within the firewall infrastructure, ultimately determining whether network traffic is permitted to pass, blocked entirely, or subjected to deeper inspection before final disposition. This centralized policy acts as the cornerstone of Firepower’s security architecture, providing administrators with comprehensive control over network traffic behavior through a hierarchical and rule-based approach. While the Intrusion Prevention Policy plays a crucial role in applying IPS signatures to detect and prevent known threats and vulnerabilities, it functions as a subordinate component that operates within the context of the Access Control Policy during the traffic inspection phase. Similarly, the Network Discovery Policy, though important for determining the scope and parameters of network monitoring and asset identification, does not possess the authority to make enforcement decisions regarding traffic flow. The Security Intelligence Policy leverages blacklists, reputation databases, and threat intelligence feeds to proactively block communications with known malicious hosts and suspicious IP addresses, but this capability is implemented as an integrated layer within the broader Access Control Policy framework rather than functioning as an independent policy mechanism.
The true power of the Access Control Policy lies in its granular configurability and comprehensive scope. Administrators can construct sophisticated rules based on multiple criteria including source and destination addresses, specific applications and protocols, port numbers, user identities authenticated through integration with directory services, and security zones. This multidimensional approach enables precise traffic control that aligns with organizational security requirements and business objectives. Furthermore, the Access Control Policy seamlessly integrates various threat inspection modules including advanced malware protection, intrusion prevention signatures, URL filtering categories, and file policy controls, creating a unified and cohesive framework for multilayered security enforcement. This integration allows security teams to apply different inspection depths and security controls based on traffic characteristics and risk profiles. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, developing a thorough understanding of the Access Control Policy is absolutely fundamental, as it demonstrates essential knowledge of policy hierarchy, traffic inspection methodologies, and the operational relationships between different security components within the Cisco Firepower platform, concepts that frequently appear throughout the exam’s security policy and firewall configuration domains.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the primary function of Cisco Umbrella in a network security architecture?
A Email security and phishing protection
B DNS-layer security and content filtering
C Endpoint firewall enforcement
D Identity-based access control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella delivers comprehensive cloud-delivered security operating primarily at the DNS and IP layers, enabling organizations to proactively prevent access to malicious domains, suspicious IP addresses, and harmful URLs before network connections are even established. This preemptive approach fundamentally distinguishes Umbrella from other security solutions within Cisco’s portfolio, as it intercepts threats at the earliest possible point in the connection lifecycle, effectively stopping malicious traffic before it reaches the network perimeter or endpoint devices. While email security functions are comprehensively addressed by Cisco Secure Email through advanced phishing detection, malware scanning, and content filtering capabilities, Umbrella concentrates specifically on proactive DNS-layer threat prevention rather than content inspection at the endpoint level or email gateway. Similarly, endpoint firewall enforcement responsibilities fall under the domain of solutions like Cisco AMP for Endpoints or traditional host-based firewall implementations, which provide granular control over application traffic and network connections directly on individual devices. Identity-based access control, another critical security function, is primarily managed through Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) or comparable network access control systems that authenticate users and enforce policy based on identity attributes and device posture.
Umbrella’s strategic positioning as a DNS-layer enforcement mechanism establishes it as a critical first line of defense in modern security architectures, intercepting and blocking malicious requests destined for the internet before connections materialize. This capability proves especially valuable in today’s distributed computing environments where users operate from remote locations, branch offices, mobile networks, and cloud infrastructure beyond traditional network perimeters. Beyond basic DNS filtering, Umbrella incorporates advanced functionality including secure web gateway (SWG) capabilities for granular web traffic control, cloud access security broker (CASB) features for monitoring and securing cloud application usage, and sophisticated threat intelligence integration that leverages Cisco Talos research to identify emerging threats and maintain current threat signatures. These integrated capabilities enhance security posture across all users and devices regardless of their physical location or network connection method, providing consistent protection whether employees work from corporate headquarters, home offices, or public networks. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, developing comprehensive understanding of Umbrella’s architectural role and operational capabilities is absolutely critical for success in the cloud security and network visibility domains, as it exemplifies modern approaches to preemptive, location-agnostic threat protection that addresses contemporary security challenges posed by cloud adoption, remote work, and increasingly sophisticated cyber threats.
Question 5:
Which of the following protocols is primarily used by Cisco ISE for posture assessment and device profiling?
A RADIUS
B SNMP
C HTTP
D ICMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) leverages RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) as its fundamental protocol for delivering comprehensive authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) functions across enterprise network infrastructures. When performing posture assessment and device profiling operations, RADIUS serves as the essential communication channel that enables ISE to interact with network access devices including switches, wireless controllers, and VPN concentrators to verify endpoint compliance status, evaluate device health conditions, and enforce granular access policies based on identity and security posture. In contrast, SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) fulfills a distinctly different role focused on network device monitoring, performance metrics collection, and configuration management, but does not participate in posture assessment or authentication workflows. HTTP, while utilized for web-based administrative interfaces and guest portal communications within ISE deployments, does not function as the primary protocol for AAA operations or policy enforcement communications between ISE and network infrastructure devices. Similarly, ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) serves exclusively for basic network connectivity testing, reachability verification, and diagnostic functions such as ping and traceroute, remaining entirely unrelated to authentication processes or posture enforcement mechanisms.
The architectural significance of RADIUS within ISE extends beyond simple authentication to encompass dynamic policy enforcement through Change of Authorization (CoA) messages, VLAN assignment, downloadable access control lists, and security group tag assignment. Cisco ISE seamlessly integrates with the AnyConnect posture module to perform detailed endpoint compliance checks including antivirus status verification, operating system patch levels, firewall enablement, and custom compliance requirements defined by organizational security policies. Additionally, ISE supports integration with third-party endpoint compliance systems and mobile device management platforms, enabling comprehensive visibility and control across diverse endpoint ecosystems. Despite these varied integration capabilities, RADIUS consistently remains the central protocol facilitating policy enforcement communications between ISE policy decision points and network enforcement points. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, thoroughly understanding the critical role of RADIUS within ISE deployments is absolutely essential for mastering the secure network access domain. Exam questions frequently assess candidates’ ability to recognize how endpoints are systematically evaluated against compliance policies, how authentication and authorization decisions flow through RADIUS exchanges, and how network access is dynamically granted, restricted, or quarantined based on the combination of user identity attributes, device posture status, and contextual factors such as time of day and location.
Question 6:
Which feature of Cisco Firepower allows inspection of encrypted HTTPS traffic without compromising privacy?
A SSL Decryption with SSL/TLS interception
B Access Control Policy
C URL Filtering
D Security Intelligence Feeds
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSL Decryption with SSL/TLS interception in Cisco Firepower represents a critical security capability that enables comprehensive inspection of encrypted HTTPS traffic to identify and mitigate threats concealed within encrypted communication channels, including sophisticated malware, command-and-control communications, data exfiltration attempts, and other malicious activities that adversaries increasingly hide within encrypted sessions. This functionality empowers security administrators to decrypt incoming and outgoing encrypted traffic at the inspection point, thoroughly analyze the decrypted content for threat indicators and policy violations, and subsequently re-encrypt the traffic before forwarding it to its intended destination, thereby maintaining the integrity of end-to-end encryption while simultaneously providing essential visibility into encrypted traffic flows that would otherwise remain opaque to security controls. In contrast, the Access Control Policy, while serving as the foundational framework for defining traffic handling rules based on various criteria including applications, users, and destinations, does not possess inherent capabilities for encryption inspection or the processing of encrypted payloads. URL Filtering applies category-based content policies that block or allow access to websites based on their classification into categories such as social media, gambling, or malicious sites, but this mechanism cannot effectively inspect the actual content within encrypted traffic streams without first performing decryption operations. Similarly, Security Intelligence Feeds provide valuable reputation-based threat blocking by leveraging continuously updated databases of known malicious IP addresses, domains, and URLs to preemptively block communications with identified threats, yet these feeds operate at the network layer and cannot decrypt or inspect the contents of encrypted traffic sessions.
Implementing SSL Decryption requires careful architectural planning and thoughtful consideration of various technical, legal, and ethical factors to ensure successful deployment while maintaining organizational compliance and user privacy. Organizations must deploy trusted SSL certificates to endpoint devices, either through enterprise certificate authorities or by distributing the Firepower inspection certificate to managed endpoints, preventing certificate warnings that would otherwise alert users to the man-in-the-middle inspection occurring at the firewall. Administrators must also establish clear policies regarding which traffic categories warrant decryption, often exempting sensitive categories such as healthcare portals, financial services, and government websites where privacy regulations or legal requirements prohibit interception. Additional considerations include performance impact assessments, as SSL decryption operations are computationally intensive and can significantly affect firewall throughput, as well as establishing organizational policies that balance security visibility requirements against employee privacy expectations and regulatory compliance obligations under frameworks like GDPR, HIPAA, or industry-specific regulations. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, developing comprehensive understanding of SSL decryption concepts is absolutely critical within the content security and network visibility domains, as exam questions frequently assess candidates’ ability to explain the technical mechanisms underlying encrypted traffic inspection, articulate the security benefits and operational limitations of SSL decryption, identify appropriate use cases and exemption scenarios, and demonstrate awareness of the privacy considerations, compliance requirements, and best practices that govern responsible implementation of encrypted traffic inspection in enterprise environments.
Question 7:
Which Cisco solution provides cloud-delivered malware protection and threat intelligence for mobile and remote users?
A Cisco Umbrella
B Cisco Firepower
C Cisco Stealthwatch
D Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella delivers comprehensive cloud-delivered security services that encompass advanced malware protection, real-time threat intelligence integration, and DNS-layer enforcement specifically designed to safeguard users operating in mobile, remote, or distributed environments beyond traditional network perimeters. Unlike conventional on-premises security solutions that require users to connect through corporate infrastructure to receive protection, Umbrella fundamentally transforms the security model by extending consistent, policy-based protection to devices and users regardless of their physical location, network connection method, or whether they are working from corporate offices, home environments, public networks, or while traveling. This location-agnostic approach addresses the contemporary security challenges posed by increasingly mobile workforces, cloud application adoption, and the dissolution of traditional network boundaries that defined earlier security architectures. Cisco Firepower, while providing robust next-generation firewall capabilities including application control, intrusion prevention, and advanced malware protection, primarily operates as an on-premises or virtual appliance protecting network perimeters and does not inherently deliver cloud-based protection that follows remote users across diverse network environments. Stealthwatch concentrates its capabilities on network visibility, behavioral analytics, and anomaly detection through flow data analysis, providing security teams with insights into network traffic patterns and potential threats, but it does not offer endpoint protection or cloud-delivered malware defense mechanisms. Similarly, AMP for Endpoints delivers powerful endpoint protection through continuous monitoring, malware detection, and retrospective security capabilities installed directly on individual devices, yet it operates primarily as endpoint-resident software rather than functioning as a cloud-delivered DNS and web security gateway that intercepts and filters internet requests before connections are established.
Umbrella’s architectural strength lies in its seamless integration with Cisco Talos, one of the world’s largest commercial threat intelligence organizations, which continuously analyzes billions of daily web requests, email messages, and malware samples to identify emerging threats, malicious domains, and attack patterns. This integration ensures that Umbrella maintains current, actionable threat intelligence that provides organizations with up-to-date protection against evolving threats including sophisticated phishing campaigns, zero-day malware, ransomware delivery mechanisms, and malicious domains used for command-and-control communications or data exfiltration. The DNS-layer enforcement model enables Umbrella to block malicious requests before connections are established, preventing malware downloads, blocking access to phishing sites, and stopping communication with known malicious infrastructure at the earliest possible point in the attack chain. Additionally, Umbrella’s secure web gateway functionality extends protection beyond DNS to include URL filtering, application visibility and control, and cloud access security broker capabilities that provide visibility into sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud application usage. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, developing thorough understanding of Umbrella’s operational role, architectural positioning, and technical capabilities is absolutely essential for success in the cloud security and endpoint protection domains, as modern exam questions increasingly emphasize cloud-delivered security models, remote workforce protection strategies, and the integration of multiple security technologies to create comprehensive defense-in-depth architectures that address contemporary threat landscapes and evolving organizational computing models.
Question 8:
Which Cisco technology allows network devices to share telemetry data for advanced threat detection?
A Cisco SecureX
B Cisco AnyConnect
C Cisco Stealthwatch
D Cisco Umbrella
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch collects comprehensive network telemetry data from diverse infrastructure devices throughout the enterprise network using industry-standard protocols such as NetFlow, IPFIX (Internet Protocol Flow Information Export), and other flow-based monitoring technologies, enabling sophisticated advanced threat detection, anomaly identification, and behavioral analytics capabilities that provide security teams with deep visibility into network communications and traffic patterns. This telemetry collection framework allows Stealthwatch to aggregate massive volumes of metadata describing network conversations, including source and destination addresses, protocols, ports, packet counts, byte volumes, timing information, and application identifiers, creating a rich dataset for security analysis without requiring full packet capture or content inspection. SecureX, while serving as Cisco’s powerful security orchestration, automation, and response platform that integrates numerous security products and provides unified visibility across the security architecture, does not function as the primary data collector for network telemetry but rather acts as an aggregation and correlation layer that consumes data from various security tools including Stealthwatch. AnyConnect operates exclusively as a secure remote access VPN client that establishes encrypted tunnels between endpoint devices and corporate networks, providing authentication, encryption, and secure connectivity for remote workers, but it does not collect or transmit network telemetry data for security analytics purposes. Similarly, Umbrella concentrates its functionality on DNS-layer protection, secure web gateway services, and cloud-delivered security enforcement, monitoring DNS queries and web requests to block malicious domains and enforce acceptable use policies, but it does not engage in continuous network telemetry collection or flow-based traffic analysis across enterprise infrastructure devices.
Stealthwatch’s analytical power emerges from its ability to correlate traffic patterns, communication behaviors, and network anomalies across heterogeneous infrastructure components including routers, switches, firewalls, wireless controllers, and data center devices, constructing a holistic view of network activity that enables detection of sophisticated threats that traditional signature-based security methods frequently miss. By establishing baselines of normal network behavior for individual hosts, users, applications, and network segments, Stealthwatch can identify deviations indicating potential security incidents such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, command-and-control communications, reconnaissance activities, and insider threats. The platform employs machine learning algorithms and statistical analysis techniques to detect subtle anomalies including unusual data transfer volumes, communications with rarely accessed destinations, protocol misuse, abnormal connection patterns, and behavioral changes that suggest compromised systems or malicious insider activity. This behavioral approach proves particularly effective against zero-day threats, advanced persistent threats, and sophisticated attack campaigns that evade signature-based detection by using encryption, legitimate protocols, or novel attack vectors. Stealthwatch also provides context enrichment by integrating with identity management systems, vulnerability scanners, and threat intelligence feeds, allowing security analysts to understand not just what is happening on the network but also who is involved, which devices are affected, and the potential business impact of detected anomalies. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, developing comprehensive understanding of telemetry collection, flow-based monitoring, and behavioral analytics is absolutely crucial within the network visibility and security enforcement domains, as modern exam questions increasingly emphasize the importance of centralized monitoring architectures, the technical mechanisms underlying network telemetry collection, the analytical techniques used for threat detection, and how visibility platforms like Stealthwatch enhance overall security situational awareness by transforming raw network data into actionable intelligence that enables proactive threat hunting, rapid incident response, and continuous security posture improvement across complex enterprise environments.
Question 9:
Which Cisco Firepower feature inspects files and detects malware by running them in a virtual environment?
A Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
B Access Control Policy
C Security Intelligence
D URL Filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco AMP (Advanced Malware Protection) integrated with Firepower leverages sophisticated sandboxing techniques to thoroughly inspect suspicious files within isolated virtual environments, enabling the detection of advanced malware, zero-day exploits, and sophisticated threats that traditional signature-based detection methods frequently fail to identify. This dynamic analysis approach involves submitting potentially malicious files to secure sandbox environments where they are executed and monitored in real-time, allowing security systems to observe actual file behavior, system modifications, network communications, registry changes, and other indicators of malicious intent that static signature matching cannot reveal. The Access Control Policy, while serving as the foundational framework for enforcing traffic handling rules based on applications, users, zones, and other network attributes, does not possess capabilities for analyzing file content or executing behavioral analysis of suspicious objects traversing the network. Security Intelligence operates through reputation-based blocking mechanisms that leverage continuously updated threat intelligence feeds containing known malicious IP addresses, domains, and file hashes to preemptively block communications with identified threats, but this approach cannot effectively inspect unknown files or detect zero-day threats that lack established reputation scores or signatures. URL Filtering provides valuable web security by categorizing internet destinations into classifications such as social networking, gambling, streaming media, or malicious sites and enforcing access policies based on these categories, yet it does not offer file sandboxing capabilities or the ability to perform deep content inspection of files downloaded through allowed web connections.
AMP’s sandboxing architecture incorporates integration with Cisco Threat Grid, a cloud-based or on-premises malware analysis platform that provides comprehensive automated analysis of suspicious files through behavioral observation, static analysis, and dynamic execution monitoring. When files traverse the Firepower firewall, AMP can extract them for analysis, calculate cryptographic hashes to check against known malware databases, and submit unknown or suspicious files to Threat Grid sandboxes for detailed examination. Within these controlled environments, files are executed across multiple operating system versions and configurations while sophisticated instrumentation captures their behavior including process creation, file system modifications, network connection attempts, API calls, and attempts to exploit system vulnerabilities. This behavioral analysis generates detailed threat scores and disposition verdicts that inform subsequent policy enforcement decisions. One of AMP’s most powerful capabilities is retrospective security analysis, which continuously monitors file dispositions even after initial inspection and network traversal. When files that initially appeared benign are later identified as malicious based on subsequent intelligence updates or behavioral analysis from other deployments, AMP can retroactively alert administrators about the presence of these threats within the environment, identify all affected systems, and provide remediation guidance including file deletion, system isolation, or forensic investigation. This retrospective capability addresses the inherent limitation of point-in-time inspection by providing continuous vigilance against evolving threat intelligence and delayed malware activation techniques.
Question 10:
Which Cisco ISE component is responsible for evaluating device posture and compliance before granting network access?
A Policy Service Node (PSN)
B Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node (MnT)
C Administration Node (PAN)
D Active Directory Connector (ADC)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Policy Service Node (PSN) in Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) serves as the critical enforcement component responsible for evaluating authentication requests, conducting comprehensive posture assessments, verifying device compliance against organizational security policies, and ultimately making authorization decisions before granting network access to endpoints and users. This node functions as the operational workhorse of the ISE deployment architecture, directly interfacing with network access devices such as switches, wireless controllers, VPN concentrators, and network access servers through RADIUS protocol exchanges to authenticate users, authorize access privileges, and account for network resource usage. The PSN processes authentication credentials presented by endpoints, evaluates these credentials against configured identity sources including Active Directory, LDAP directories, or internal user databases, and subsequently determines appropriate access policies based on the authenticated identity combined with contextual factors such as device type, compliance status, time of day, and location. In contrast, the Monitoring and Troubleshooting (MnT) node fulfills distinctly different responsibilities focused exclusively on centralized logging aggregation, real-time monitoring of authentication sessions, generating compliance and operational reports, providing historical analysis of network access patterns, and facilitating troubleshooting activities through detailed session logging and diagnostic tools, but it does not participate in policy enforcement or authentication decision-making processes. The Administration Node functions as the centralized management interface where administrators configure authentication policies, authorization rules, profiling policies, posture requirements, guest portal settings, and system-wide configurations that govern ISE behavior, but this node does not directly process authentication requests or enforce access decisions during actual network admission control operations. Active Directory Connector (ADC) components facilitate integration with Microsoft Active Directory infrastructure by establishing secure communication channels, performing user and machine authentication against domain controllers, retrieving group membership information, and synchronizing identity data, yet ADC does not directly evaluate device posture or make authorization decisions independently.
The PSN’s architectural significance extends far beyond simple authentication processing to encompass sophisticated policy evaluation engines that assess multiple dimensions of endpoint security posture and compliance. When endpoints attempt network access, the PSN coordinates with the AnyConnect posture module or other NAC agents installed on client devices to retrieve comprehensive compliance information including antivirus software installation and update status, operating system patch levels, personal firewall enablement, disk encryption status, and custom compliance checks defined by organizational security requirements. The PSN compares this collected posture data against posture policies configured within ISE, determining whether endpoints meet minimum security requirements for network admission or require remediation before receiving full access privileges. Based on these evaluations, the PSN can dynamically assign endpoints to appropriate network segments through VLAN assignments, apply granular access restrictions through downloadable access control lists (dACLs), assign security group tags (SGTs) that enable software-defined segmentation across the network infrastructure, redirect non-compliant devices to remediation portals for automated or manual compliance correction, or completely deny access to endpoints that fail critical security requirements. The PSN also performs continuous device profiling by collecting attributes through various discovery mechanisms including DHCP packet analysis, SNMP queries, NetFlow data, HTTP user-agent strings, and MAC address vendor identification, building comprehensive device profiles that inform authorization decisions and enable visibility into all endpoints connecting to the network regardless of whether they support authentication protocols.
PSN nodes must be strategically deployed throughout the network infrastructure to ensure high availability, optimal performance, and geographic distribution that minimizes authentication latency for distributed user populations. In enterprise deployments, organizations typically implement multiple PSN nodes configured in load-balanced clusters behind network load balancers or distributed across sites to provide redundancy and failover capabilities ensuring continuous authentication services even during node failures or maintenance activities. Each PSN maintains synchronized policy configurations from the Administration Node and can independently process authentication requests, though all nodes reference centralized identity sources and policy definitions to ensure consistent enforcement across the deployment. The PSN also supports session accounting functions, tracking active network sessions, monitoring bandwidth consumption, recording session duration, and providing data for compliance auditing and capacity planning purposes. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, developing thorough understanding of the PSN’s functional role, operational responsibilities, and architectural positioning within ISE deployments is absolutely vital for success in the secure network access domain. Exam questions frequently assess candidates’ ability to differentiate between the distinct roles of Administration, Policy Service, and Monitoring nodes, explain the authentication and authorization workflow involving PSN interactions with network devices and endpoints, articulate how posture assessment and device profiling inform access decisions, understand the technical mechanisms underlying policy enforcement including VLAN assignment and dACL application, and demonstrate comprehensive knowledge of how PSN deployment architecture affects authentication performance, high availability, and scalability in enterprise network access control implementations that support thousands of concurrent users and diverse endpoint populations across complex, geographically distributed network infrastructures.
Question 11:
Which Cisco technology provides centralized threat intelligence and orchestration across multiple security products?
A Cisco SecureX
B Cisco Umbrella
C Cisco Firepower
D Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco SecureX is a cloud-native security platform designed to integrate, orchestrate, and automate security operations across Cisco products and third-party solutions. It provides a centralized dashboard for incident response, threat intelligence sharing, and automated workflows, allowing security teams to reduce response times and operational complexity. Cisco Umbrella (B) focuses on DNS-layer security and cloud-delivered protection, but it does not provide orchestration across multiple products. Firepower (C) enforces firewall and intrusion prevention policies, but without SecureX, it lacks centralized orchestration. AnyConnect (D) provides VPN and secure endpoint connectivity, not threat intelligence integration. SecureX collects telemetry and alerts from network, endpoint, cloud, and email security solutions, correlating them for comprehensive visibility. It also enables automation of repetitive tasks, such as quarantine or blocking malicious IPs, and supports collaborative investigation via a unified interface. For 350-701 SCOR candidates, SecureX is crucial in the visibility and enforcement domains, as it demonstrates Cisco’s approach to centralized threat detection, automated response, and enhanced situational awareness.
Question 12:
In Cisco Firepower, which component is responsible for traffic analysis and policy enforcement on the network?
A Firepower Threat Defense (FTD)
B Firepower Management Center (FMC)
C Security Intelligence Feed
D AMP for Endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) is the core traffic analysis and policy enforcement component in a Cisco Firepower deployment. FTD combines stateful firewalling, intrusion prevention, application control, and advanced malware protection. The Firepower Management Center (FMC) (B) provides centralized management, policy configuration, and reporting, but does not directly inspect traffic. Security Intelligence Feeds (C) provide reputation-based threat data, which FTD enforces but cannot act alone. AMP for Endpoints (D) focuses on endpoint-level malware protection, not network-level traffic inspection. FTD supports inline traffic inspection, including SSL decryption, IPS signatures, URL filtering, and file analysis, making it a comprehensive solution for network defense. SCOR exam candidates should understand the distinct roles of FTD and FMC to answer questions about deployment architecture and operational responsibilities. FTD enforces policies based on traffic characteristics, applications, and user identities, enabling fine-grained security controls and reducing the risk of breaches through real-time inspection.
Question 13:
Which Cisco solution integrates DNS-layer security, secure web gateway, and cloud access security broker capabilities?
A Cisco Umbrella
B Cisco ISE
C Cisco Stealthwatch
D Cisco Firepower
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella integrates multiple cloud-delivered security services, including DNS-layer security, secure web gateway (SWG), and cloud access security broker (CASB) functionality. DNS-layer security blocks malicious domains before a connection is established, SWG provides URL filtering, content inspection, and malware blocking, and CASB enforces cloud application usage policies. Cisco ISE (B) manages identity-based access control and posture assessment, but does not provide cloud security enforcement. Stealthwatch (C) monitors network traffic for anomalies but does not enforce web or cloud policies. Firepower (D) is a network security solution, but lacks cloud-delivered DNS-layer and CASB capabilities. Umbrella’s integration allows organizations to protect users both on and off the corporate network, making it essential for remote workforce security. For the SCOR exam, candidates need to understand how Umbrella consolidates multiple security functions into a single cloud-delivered service and how it complements on-premises security infrastructure.
Question 14:
Which Cisco ISE component provides logging, reporting, and troubleshooting capabilities for network access?
A Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node (MnT)
B Policy Administration Node (PAN)
C Policy Service Node (PSN)
D Active Directory Connector (ADC)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node (MnT) in Cisco ISE is responsible for collecting logs, generating reports, and providing troubleshooting capabilities for network access. MnT stores authentication and authorization events, posture assessments, and endpoint profiling information, allowing administrators to monitor compliance and troubleshoot access issues. The Policy Administration Node (PAN) (B) handles system configuration and policy management, not reporting. PSN (C) enforces access policies but does not provide detailed reporting or troubleshooting dashboards. ADC (D) connects to Active Directory for identity services, but does not provide network access visibility. MnT is vital for SCOR exam candidates to understand the visibility domain, as it shows how ISE collects telemetry, supports forensic investigations, and provides compliance visibility, ensuring that network access decisions are properly logged and auditable.
Question 15:
Which Cisco Firepower feature provides dynamic blocking of malicious IP addresses based on threat intelligence feeds?
A Security Intelligence (SI)
B Access Control Policy
C URL Filtering
D SSL Decryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security Intelligence (SI) in Cisco Firepower allows dynamic blocking of malicious IP addresses, domains, and URLs based on real-time threat intelligence feeds. SI uses reputation data from sources like Cisco Talos to automatically update rules and protect the network from known threats. Access Control Policy (B) enforces general traffic rules but does not provide automated threat feed integration. URL Filtering (C) focuses on web content categorization and policy enforcement, not IP-based reputation. SSL Decryption (D) allows inspection of encrypted traffic but does not dynamically block IPs. SI is essential for rapidly mitigating threats, particularly those emerging from compromised or malicious infrastructure. SCOR candidates must understand how SI integrates with Firepower policies to enable automated threat response and minimize the window of exposure for network attacks.
Question 16:
Which of the following best describes the purpose of Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client?
A Provides secure VPN access and endpoint posture assessment
B Performs network traffic analysis and anomaly detection
C Offers centralized malware protection and sandboxing
D Enforces DNS-layer security for mobile users
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client provides secure VPN connectivity to the corporate network, while also offering posture assessment and endpoint compliance checks. AnyConnect ensures that remote or mobile users comply with corporate policies before granting access, which is critical for zero-trust network access. Network traffic analysis (B) is performed by solutions like Stealthwatch. Centralized malware protection and sandboxing (C) are functions of AMP for Endpoints. DNS-layer security (D) is provided by Cisco Umbrella. AnyConnect supports multiple security modules, including posture, VPN, and ISE integration, allowing organizations to enforce compliance, monitor endpoint health, and maintain secure access. SCOR exam candidates need to understand AnyConnect’s role in secure network access and endpoint enforcement, as it represents a critical layer of protection for mobile users and branch offices.
Question 17:
Which protocol is commonly used to collect flow telemetry data for Cisco Stealthwatch analysis?
A NetFlow/IPFIX
B SNMP
C HTTP
D ICMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
NetFlow and IPFIX are the primary protocols used by Cisco Stealthwatch to collect flow telemetry data from network devices. These protocols export metadata about traffic flows, including source and destination IPs, ports, protocols, and byte counts, allowing Stealthwatch to analyze traffic behavior, detect anomalies, and identify potential threats. SNMP (B) is used for device monitoring and performance statistics but does not provide detailed flow information. HTTP (C) is an application protocol and irrelevant to network telemetry collection. ICMP (D) is used for connectivity testing, not flow analytics. Stealthwatch uses this telemetry to establish baselines, detect lateral movement, and identify suspicious activity without inspecting full packet payloads, making it efficient for high-volume network environments. For SCOR candidates, understanding telemetry collection is key to the visibility domain, as it enables proactive threat detection using network-based behavioral analytics.
Question 18:
Which Cisco solution allows organizations to enforce security policies based on user identity and device compliance?
A Cisco ISE
B Cisco Umbrella
C Cisco AMP for Endpoints
D Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) allows organizations to enforce security policies based on user identity, device posture, and role-based access control. ISE evaluates authentication requests, checks endpoint compliance, and applies access policies dynamically. Umbrella (B) provides cloud security, but it does not enforce identity-based policies for network access. AMP for Endpoints (C) secures endpoints but does not control network access. Stealthwatch (D) provides network visibility but does not enforce policies based on identity or device compliance. ISE integrates with AnyConnect, Firepower, and third-party devices, allowing seamless enforcement of zero-trust policies. For the SCOR exam, candidates need to understand ISE’s role in the secure network access domain, including posture assessment, profiling, and policy enforcement, which ensures that only compliant and authorized users access corporate resources.
Question 19:
Which feature of Cisco AMP allows detection of previously unknown malware through retrospective analysis?
A File Trajectory and Retrospective Security
B Security Intelligence Feeds
C Access Control Policy
D URL Filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
File Trajectory and Retrospective Security in Cisco AMP allows the detection of previously unknown or missed malware by analyzing files after initial delivery. If a file initially appears safe but is later found malicious, AMP retrospectively alerts administrators and can trigger remediation actions on endpoints. Security Intelligence Feeds (B) provide reputation-based blocking for known threats, but cannot detect zero-day malware retrospectively. Access Control Policy (C) controls traffic flow but does not analyze files over time. URL Filtering (D) categorizes web content and blocks malicious sites but does not perform retrospective file analysis. Retrospective security is critical for the SCOR exam because it demonstrates AMP’s capability to provide continuous protection, even when new threats emerge, ensuring that endpoints remain secure over time.
Question 20:
Which Cisco technology enables detection of lateral movement and anomalous behavior within an enterprise network?
A Cisco Stealthwatch
B Cisco Umbrella
C Cisco AnyConnect
D Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch is designed to detect lateral movement, insider threats, and anomalous behavior within an enterprise network using network telemetry and behavioral analytics. By analyzing flow data, Stealthwatch can identify unusual patterns, such as privilege escalation, unusual connections, or data exfiltration, which may indicate a breach. Umbrella (B) provides DNS-layer security and does not monitor internal traffic for lateral movement. AnyConnect (C) provides secure access but does not perform network-wide anomaly detection. ISE (D) enforces identity and access policies, but does not analyze behavioral patterns across network flows. Understanding Stealthwatch’s functionality is essential for SCOR candidates in the visibility domain, as it enables organizations to detect threats that bypass traditional perimeter defenses and supports incident response and forensic investigations by correlating network activities.
