Visit here for our full Cisco 350-701 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 21:
Which Cisco security component integrates with Cisco Firepower to dynamically apply network access policies based on user identity?
A Cisco ISE
B Cisco Stealthwatch
C Cisco Umbrella
D Cisco SecureX
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) integrates seamlessly with Cisco Firepower to deliver comprehensive identity-based access control that enables administrators to construct dynamic, context-aware security policies based on user identity, organizational role, group membership, and device posture compliance rather than relying solely on traditional static IP address-based rules. This architectural integration fundamentally transforms security policy enforcement by shifting from network-centric models to identity-centric frameworks that recognize users and devices as the primary security perimeter in modern distributed computing environments. When ISE successfully authenticates a user attempting network access, whether through wired 802.1X authentication, wireless authentication, VPN login, or web portal access, it gathers extensive contextual information including authenticated username, Active Directory group memberships, assigned security group tags, endpoint device type, operating system details, compliance posture status, authentication method, location information, and time of access.
This rich contextual data is then shared with Firepower next-generation firewalls through pxGrid (Platform Exchange Grid), Cisco’s context-sharing framework that enables real-time bidirectional communication and information exchange between disparate security products within the Cisco security architecture. Once Firepower receives this identity and context information via pxGrid integration, it leverages these attributes within Access Control Policies to enforce dynamic security decisions that automatically adapt based on who is accessing resources, from which device type, with what compliance status, and under what circumstances, enabling far more granular and contextually appropriate security enforcement than static IP-based rules could ever achieve.
Stealthwatch, while providing invaluable network visibility, behavioral analytics, and anomaly detection capabilities through flow-based telemetry collection and machine learning analysis, operates primarily as a monitoring and detection platform rather than an enforcement mechanism and does not directly manage or enforce access control policies at the network or application layers. Umbrella concentrates its security capabilities on DNS-layer threat prevention, secure web gateway functionality, and cloud-delivered security services that protect users regardless of location, but it does not participate in network access control decisions or identity-based policy enforcement within campus or data center network infrastructure. SecureX functions as Cisco’s security orchestration, automation, and response platform that aggregates telemetry from multiple security products, correlates threat intelligence, automates investigation workflows, and coordinates response actions across the security ecosystem, yet it does not directly enforce granular traffic-level identity policies or make real-time authorization decisions for network flows.
The ISE-Firepower integration proves particularly critical when implementing Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) architectures, which operate on the fundamental principle of “never trust, always verify,” requiring continuous authentication and authorization for every user, device, and application attempting to access network resources regardless of whether they are inside or outside the traditional network perimeter. In Zero Trust models, the ISE-Firepower integration ensures that every access request undergoes rigorous identity verification through ISE’s authentication infrastructure, comprehensive posture assessment to verify endpoint compliance with security requirements, and dynamic policy evaluation by Firepower that considers the complete security context before granting access to specific applications, data, or network segments.
Question 22:
Which Cisco ASA feature provides consistent security policies and visibility when extended to the cloud using Firepower Threat Defense?
A Cisco Secure Firewall Cloud Native (SFCN)
B Cisco AnyConnect
C Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud
D Cisco Umbrella
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Firewall Cloud Native (SFCN) enables organizations to maintain consistent security policies, comprehensive threat protection, and unified visibility across cloud and hybrid environments by leveraging the proven Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) architecture specifically optimized for cloud deployment models and elastic infrastructure requirements. This cloud-native firewall solution empowers enterprises to seamlessly extend their existing ASA and Firepower security policies, access control rules, intrusion prevention signatures, malware protection capabilities, and URL filtering configurations to public cloud platforms including Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform (GCP), ensuring that cloud-hosted workloads, applications, and data receive equivalent security protection regardless of their physical or virtual location. This architectural approach addresses the fundamental security challenge organizations face during cloud adoption and digital transformation initiatives, where traditional perimeter-based security models break down and workloads dynamically migrate between on-premises data centers, private clouds, and multiple public cloud environments, creating security gaps and policy inconsistencies if not properly addressed through unified security frameworks. AnyConnect, while providing essential secure remote access VPN functionality that establishes encrypted tunnels between endpoint devices and corporate networks along with posture assessment and always-on connectivity features, operates exclusively as a client-based access solution rather than functioning as a network firewall or cloud workload protection platform capable of inspecting traffic between cloud resources or enforcing stateful firewall policies for virtualized infrastructure. Stealthwatch Cloud delivers valuable behavioral analytics and anomaly detection specifically designed for cloud environments by analyzing flow logs, API calls, and cloud-native telemetry sources to identify suspicious activities, account compromises, privilege escalation, data exfiltration, and insider threats, yet it functions primarily as a visibility and detection platform rather than a policy enforcement mechanism that can block malicious traffic, apply access control rules, or perform deep packet inspection of application layer protocols.
Umbrella operates strategically at the DNS layer combined with secure web gateway functionality to provide cloud-delivered security that protects users and devices through DNS query filtering, URL categorization, and cloud application visibility, but it cannot apply the detailed, stateful traffic inspection rules, application-aware policies, intrusion prevention signatures, or advanced malware protection capabilities that enterprise workloads require for comprehensive protection in cloud environments where east-west traffic between workloads and north-south traffic to external resources both demand sophisticated security enforcement. SFCN’s architectural strength emerges through its seamless integration with Firepower Management Center (FMC), which serves as the centralized management platform for orchestrating security policies, distributing threat intelligence updates, collecting security events, and providing unified monitoring dashboards across heterogeneous deployment environments spanning on-premises physical appliances, virtualized firewalls, and cloud-native instances. This centralized management paradigm enables security administrators to define security policies once within FMC and deploy them consistently across all enforcement points regardless of location, eliminating the operational complexity and policy drift that typically occurs when organizations attempt to manage security controls separately for each cloud platform using disparate management interfaces and policy frameworks. The FMC integration provides comprehensive visibility into traffic patterns, application usage, user activities, and threat events across the entire hybrid infrastructure, aggregating logs and telemetry from all SFCN instances alongside traditional on-premises firewalls to create unified security dashboards, correlation rules, and reporting capabilities that give security operations teams holistic situational awareness spanning their complete attack surface.
SFCN supports multiple deployment models optimized for different cloud architectures including virtual appliances that can be deployed within virtual private clouds (VPCs) or virtual networks (VNets) to protect workloads at the perimeter or between security zones, auto-scaling architectures that automatically provision and deprovision firewall instances based on traffic load or workload deployment patterns, transit gateway integrations that centralize security inspection for traffic flowing between multiple VPCs or subscriptions, and containerized deployment options that align with modern microservices architectures and Kubernetes environments. The solution leverages cloud-native capabilities including elastic scaling to accommodate variable traffic loads, programmatic provisioning through infrastructure-as-code frameworks like Terraform or CloudFormation, integration with cloud load balancers for high availability, and API-based automation that enables security policies to adapt dynamically as workloads are created, modified, or decommissioned through DevOps pipelines and continuous deployment processes. This cloud-native approach ensures that security scales proportionally with application infrastructure rather than creating bottlenecks or single points of failure that would compromise either security effectiveness or application performance. SFCN enables secure workload migration strategies by providing consistent protection before, during, and after migration events, allowing organizations to lift-and-shift applications to cloud platforms while maintaining existing security postures, or to gradually transition security enforcement from on-premises firewalls to cloud-native instances as workloads migrate without creating protection gaps or requiring complete security policy redesigns.
Question 23:
What is the primary purpose of Cisco pxGrid in a security infrastructure?
A Enables secure data sharing and integration among Cisco and third-party platforms
B Provides encrypted VPN tunnels between Cisco devices
C Manages endpoint antivirus definitions and updates
D Analyzes encrypted traffic without decryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco pxGrid (Platform Exchange Grid) facilitates secure, scalable, bidirectional data sharing and seamless integration across Cisco’s comprehensive security portfolio and third-party security platforms, functioning as a sophisticated context exchange framework that enables real-time communication and information synchronization between disparate security solutions. This powerful integration fabric acts as the foundational backbone for Cisco’s security ecosystem, allowing products including ISE, Stealthwatch, Firepower, SecureX, AMP for Endpoints, Umbrella, and numerous third-party security information and event management (SIEM) systems, network access control solutions, mobile device management platforms, and threat intelligence services to share critical telemetry data, user identity information, device context, threat indicators, security events, and policy directives in standardized formats through secure, authenticated channels. Option B incorrectly suggests that pxGrid handles VPN tunnel establishment, which is actually managed through dedicated protocols like IPsec for site-to-site connectivity or SSL/TLS for remote access VPNs, representing fundamentally different network layer encryption and tunneling mechanisms unrelated to pxGrid’s application-layer context sharing capabilities. Option C mistakenly attributes endpoint malware scanning functions to pxGrid, when these capabilities are actually delivered by endpoint security solutions such as Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which deploys agents on workstations and servers to perform continuous monitoring, file analysis, behavioral detection, and threat remediation directly on endpoint devices rather than through context sharing frameworks. Option D incorrectly associates pxGrid with encrypted traffic analysis, which is actually performed by Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA), a distinct Cisco technology that uses machine learning algorithms to analyze metadata and behavioral patterns in encrypted network flows without requiring decryption, identifying malware communications and suspicious activities within encrypted traffic through statistical analysis rather than through the context sharing mechanisms that pxGrid provides.
The architectural significance of pxGrid extends far beyond simple data exchange to enable sophisticated automated threat response workflows and dynamic policy updates that propagate across the entire security infrastructure in near real-time. When one security component detects a threat indicator—such as ISE identifying a compromised device through abnormal authentication patterns, Stealthwatch detecting suspicious lateral movement through behavioral analysis, AMP for Endpoints discovering malware execution on a workstation, or Firepower identifying command-and-control communications in network traffic—pxGrid enables this threat intelligence to be immediately shared with all subscribed security platforms. These platforms can then automatically trigger coordinated response actions including quarantining the affected endpoint through ISE session termination, applying restrictive access control policies through Firepower rule updates, initiating forensic data collection through SecureX automated workflows, blocking malicious domains across all users through Umbrella policy updates, and generating correlated security incidents in SIEM platforms for analyst investigation. This orchestrated response occurs within seconds of initial threat detection, dramatically reducing the mean time to respond (MTTR) and limiting the potential blast radius of security incidents compared to manual response processes that traditionally required hours or days to coordinate actions across multiple security tools managed through separate interfaces by different teams. pxGrid supports publish-subscribe messaging patterns where security products can register as publishers that share specific data types, or as subscribers that consume information relevant to their operational functions, creating flexible integration architectures where new security tools can be incorporated into the ecosystem simply by subscribing to relevant pxGrid topics without requiring custom integration development or point-to-point connections between every product pair.
Question 24:
Which Cisco technology allows analysis of encrypted network traffic to detect malware without decryption?
A Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA)
B SSL Decryption
C Security Intelligence
D AMP for Endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA) enables sophisticated detection of malware concealed within encrypted traffic without requiring packet decryption, addressing one of the most challenging aspects of modern network security where over 90% of internet traffic utilizes encryption protocols. ETA analyzes packet metadata, flow behavioral patterns, and TLS handshake characteristics to identify anomalies indicative of malicious activity, leveraging observable features that remain visible even when payload content is encrypted. SSL Decryption requires actively decrypting and inspecting packet contents through man-in-the-middle techniques, which introduces significant privacy concerns, regulatory compliance challenges, performance overhead from cryptographic processing, and operational complexity from certificate management, making it unsuitable for many deployment scenarios involving sensitive data, regulated industries, or environments where user privacy expectations must be respected. Security Intelligence uses continuously updated threat feeds containing known malicious IP addresses, domains, and URLs to proactively block communications with identified threats, but this reputation-based approach cannot analyze encrypted traffic patterns or detect previously unknown malware that lacks established threat intelligence signatures. AMP for Endpoints performs comprehensive malware inspection directly on endpoint devices through installed agents that monitor file execution, system behaviors, and process activities, but operates at the host level rather than analyzing in-transit network traffic flowing through infrastructure devices.
ETA leverages advanced machine learning algorithms trained on millions of malicious and benign traffic samples combined with Cisco Talos threat intelligence to detect subtle indicators of malware communications including abnormal TLS fingerprinting that reveals malicious software libraries, unusual session lengths inconsistent with legitimate application behaviors, packet size distributions characteristic of command-and-control protocols, timing irregularities in client-server interactions, certificate anomalies such as self-signed or improperly issued certificates, and connection patterns typical of data exfiltration or botnet communications. This behavioral analysis approach identifies threats based on how they communicate rather than what they communicate, remaining effective against zero-day malware and encrypted attack channels that evade signature-based detection. ETA enhances organizational visibility into encrypted traffic while preserving data confidentiality, avoiding the privacy violations and compliance risks associated with decryption-based inspection methods. For 350-701 SCOR examination candidates, understanding ETA represents critical knowledge within the visibility and enforcement domain, as it exemplifies Cisco’s innovative approach to addressing the fundamental tension between encryption’s privacy benefits and security’s visibility requirements through machine learning-based behavioral analysis that detects threats without compromising the confidentiality protections that encryption provides.
Question 25:
Which Cisco Firepower deployment mode allows inspection of network traffic without affecting its flow?
A Passive mode
B Inline mode
C Routed mode
D Transparent mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Passive mode, Cisco Firepower inspects a copy of network traffic obtained through SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) ports or physical network taps, ensuring that packets are thoroughly analyzed for threats, policy violations, and security events without altering, delaying, or impacting the original traffic flow in any way. This out-of-band deployment model means that the Firepower sensor receives mirrored traffic for analysis while production network traffic continues flowing through its normal path completely independent of the inspection process, eliminating any possibility that sensor performance issues, software failures, or processing delays could affect network availability or application performance. Inline mode positions the Firepower device directly within the active traffic path where it actively processes and filters live traffic as it traverses between network segments, enabling the sensor to take enforcement actions including blocking malicious packets, dropping suspicious connections, resetting TCP sessions associated with detected threats, or rate-limiting traffic exhibiting anomalous behaviors, but this active interception introduces potential latency from inspection processing and creates a single point of failure where sensor unavailability could disrupt network connectivity. Routed mode and Transparent mode define fundamentally different architectural approaches for how the firewall integrates into network topology—routed mode operates as a Layer 3 network hop with distinct IP addresses on each interface requiring routing table modifications, while transparent mode functions as a Layer 2 bridge invisible to network devices—but neither mode inherently dictates whether traffic inspection occurs passively or inline, as both topological configurations can theoretically support either inspection methodology depending on specific implementation requirements.
Passive mode proves ideal for monitoring-focused deployments, comprehensive threat detection initiatives, proof-of-concept evaluations, or test environments where organizations require complete visibility into network traffic patterns, threat landscape assessment, and security posture analysis without assuming the risk of enforcement actions that might inadvertently block legitimate traffic or disrupt business-critical applications during initial tuning phases. This deployment approach allows security teams to establish performance baselines, calibrate detection thresholds, validate signature accuracy, and develop confidence in inspection policies before transitioning to inline enforcement modes. Passive deployments generate comprehensive security alerts, populate threat dashboards, feed security information and event management platforms, and enable forensic investigations, but cannot actively prevent threats from reaching their targets since alerts occur after malicious traffic has already traversed the network. For candidates preparing for the 350-701 SCOR examination, understanding that passive deployment fundamentally supports Intrusion Detection System (IDS) functionality focused on visibility and alerting, while inline mode enables Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) capabilities with active threat blocking, represents critical knowledge within the network security domain, as exam questions frequently assess candidates’ ability to differentiate between detection-only and prevention-capable deployment models and recommend appropriate architectures based on organizational security requirements, risk tolerance, and operational constraints.
Question 26:
Which component of Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) provides centralized data collection and threat correlation?
A Flow Collector
B Flow Sensor
C Management Console
D UDP Director
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Management Console in Cisco Secure Network Analytics (formerly Stealthwatch) serves as the centralized intelligence hub responsible for comprehensive data aggregation, advanced analysis, sophisticated threat correlation, and presentation of actionable security intelligence through intuitive dashboards, customizable alerts, and detailed forensic investigation capabilities. This critical component collects massive volumes of network telemetry from distributed Flow Collectors that process NetFlow and IPFIX records from routers and switches, Flow Sensors that generate flow data from network segments lacking native flow export capabilities, and UDP Directors that replicate flow streams to multiple collectors for scalability and redundancy, consolidating this diverse telemetry into a unified analytical platform. The Flow Collector functions primarily as a data gathering and processing engine that receives flow records exported from network infrastructure devices, stores this information in optimized databases, performs initial normalization and enrichment activities, and forwards processed data to the Management Console for higher-level analysis, but it does not perform the sophisticated behavioral analytics, machine learning-based anomaly detection, or cross-entity correlation that characterizes advanced threat identification. The Flow Sensor generates synthetic flow records by passively monitoring network traffic through SPAN ports or network taps in environments where infrastructure devices cannot natively export flow data, such as legacy equipment, cloud environments, or operational technology networks, effectively extending visibility into previously blind network segments, yet the sensor itself focuses on observation and flow generation rather than analytical intelligence production. The UDP Director operates as a flow replication appliance that receives flow streams from network devices and intelligently distributes copies to multiple Flow Collectors based on configured policies, enabling horizontal scaling of collection infrastructure, load balancing across collectors, and redundant flow processing for high availability, but this component performs traffic distribution rather than security analysis functions.
The Management Console’s true analytical power emerges through its sophisticated correlation engines that apply machine learning algorithms, statistical analysis techniques, and behavioral profiling across the aggregated telemetry from all collection sources to identify security threats and anomalies that individual flow records or isolated observations would never reveal. The console establishes comprehensive baselines of normal network behavior for individual hosts, user accounts, applications, protocols, and network segments by analyzing historical patterns over extended timeframes, then continuously compares current activity against these baselines to detect statistically significant deviations indicating potential security incidents. This behavioral approach enables detection of sophisticated threats including data exfiltration attempts characterized by unusual upload volumes to external destinations, botnet infections revealed through command-and-control communication patterns, ransomware propagation detected through abnormal lateral movement and file access behaviors, insider threats identified through policy violations or unauthorized resource access, advanced persistent threats exhibiting low-and-slow reconnaissance activities, and DNS tunneling or other covert channels that leverage legitimate protocols for malicious purposes. The Management Console provides rich visualization capabilities through interactive dashboards displaying real-time security metrics, traffic patterns, top talkers, protocol distributions, and threat indicators, enabling security analysts to quickly understand security posture, investigate suspicious activities, and track incident progression through intuitive graphical interfaces rather than parsing raw flow records or command-line outputs.
Question 27:
Which Cisco solution provides protection for web-based email traffic by filtering spam, malware, and phishing attempts?
A Cisco Secure Email (formerly ESA)
B Cisco Umbrella
C Cisco AMP for Endpoints
D Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Email (formerly Cisco Email Security Appliance – ESA) provides comprehensive protection for web-based and corporate email systems against diverse threats including spam, sophisticated phishing campaigns, malware-laden attachments, business email compromise attempts, and data loss through unauthorized information disclosure. This dedicated email security gateway inspects both inbound and outbound email traffic, applying multiple defense layers including content filtering that blocks messages based on keywords or sensitive data patterns, reputation analysis that evaluates sender trustworthiness using IP and domain reputation databases, anti-spam engines employing machine learning to identify unsolicited messages, anti-malware scanning that detects known threats through signature matching, and advanced sandboxing capabilities that execute suspicious attachments in isolated virtual environments to identify zero-day threats through behavioral analysis. Umbrella operates exclusively at the DNS layer providing cloud-delivered web security through DNS query filtering and secure web gateway functionality, focusing on blocking access to malicious domains and enforcing acceptable use policies for internet browsing rather than inspecting email content or protecting messaging systems. AMP for Endpoints delivers endpoint protection through agents installed on workstations and servers that monitor file execution, system behaviors, and process activities, but operates at the host level rather than functioning as an email gateway that intercepts messages before they reach user mailboxes. ISE enforces network access control through authentication, authorization, and posture assessment for devices connecting to network infrastructure, managing who can access network resources based on identity and compliance status rather than providing email security or message filtering capabilities.
Secure Email’s effectiveness stems from seamless integration with Cisco Talos threat intelligence, one of the largest commercial threat research organizations continuously analyzing billions of email messages, malware samples, and phishing campaigns to identify emerging threats and attack patterns. This integration ensures that reputation databases, malware signatures, and URL categorizations remain current with the latest threat landscape. Additionally, integration with AMP file reputation services provides cloud-based verdicts on file attachments by comparing cryptographic hashes against extensive malware databases and leveraging retrospective security that updates file dispositions when previously unknown files are later identified as malicious. For 350-701 SCOR examination candidates, understanding Cisco Secure Email represents vital knowledge within the content security domain, emphasizing Cisco’s defense-in-depth philosophy where email protection constitutes a critical security layer since email remains the primary attack vector for phishing, ransomware delivery, credential harvesting, and social engineering attacks targeting enterprise users.
Question 28:
Which Cisco Firepower feature categorizes and controls user access to web content?
A URL Filtering
B Security Intelligence
C SSL Decryption
D AMP Integration
Answer: A
Explanation:
URL Filtering in Cisco Firepower allows administrators to categorize and control user access to web content based on predefined or custom URL categories. It enforces acceptable use policies and prevents access to malicious or inappropriate sites. Security Intelligence (B) blocks traffic based on IP reputation but does not categorize URLs. SSL Decryption (C) allows inspection of encrypted traffic but does not perform categorization. AMP Integration (D) provides malware detection but not content filtering. URL Filtering enhances security by reducing the attack surface, limiting access to potentially harmful content, and ensuring compliance with organizational policies. For SCOR candidates, it’s critical to understand URL Filtering as part of content security, complementing other controls such as IPS and AMP, to achieve comprehensive protection.
Question 29:
Which Cisco security framework implements continuous verification of user identity and device trustworthiness before granting access?
A Zero Trust Architecture
B Defense-in-Depth Model
C Segmentation Firewalling
D Security Intelligence Feeds
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA) is a Cisco-recommended security framework that enforces continuous verification of users, devices, and applications before granting or maintaining access. It operates on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” Defense-in-Depth (B) involves layering multiple security mechanisms but does not emphasize continuous verification. Segmentation Firewalling (C) isolates network zones but is only a subset of ZTA. Security Intelligence Feeds (D) provide external threat data but do not enforce identity-based verification. Cisco implements Zero Trust through solutions like ISE for access control, AnyConnect for endpoint posture, and SecureX for orchestration, ensuring dynamic enforcement based on context. For SCOR candidates, understanding ZTA is fundamental to secure network access and visibility domains, demonstrating how identity-driven policies replace static perimeter defenses.
Question 30:
Which Cisco technology allows the segmentation of users and devices based on security group tags (SGTs)?
A Cisco TrustSec
B Cisco AMP for Endpoints
C Cisco Umbrella
D Cisco SecureX
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco TrustSec provides network segmentation and policy enforcement based on Security Group Tags (SGTs). It eliminates the need for complex VLAN configurations by tagging packets with security identifiers, which are then used for access decisions across the network. AMP for Endpoints (B) focuses on malware protection, not segmentation. Umbrella (C) enforces DNS-level filtering, not internal access policies. SecureX (D) orchestrates security visibility, not segmentation. TrustSec integrates with ISE to dynamically assign SGTs based on user identity, device type, or compliance status, ensuring policy consistency across wired, wireless, and VPN environments. For SCOR exam objectives, TrustSec is key under the secure network access domain, illustrating how Cisco simplifies micro-segmentation and enhances east-west traffic control.
Question 31:
Which Cisco feature in Firepower Threat Defense provides network-level protection by inspecting traffic signatures and behavior for known and unknown threats?
A Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
B Security Intelligence
C Access Control Policies
D AMP for Endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) offers deep packet inspection to detect and prevent malicious activity. It uses signature-based detection, behavioral analysis, and anomaly detection to identify threats in network traffic. IPS policies can drop, modify, or allow packets depending on rule configurations. Security Intelligence (B) only blocks connections based on IP or domain reputation, not packet-level inspection. Access Control Policies (C) determine which traffic is inspected but do not perform detection themselves. AMP for Endpoints (D) focuses on endpoint file analysis rather than in-line network inspection. Cisco’s Next-Generation IPS integrates with Talos threat intelligence to keep signatures up to date against evolving attack vectors such as zero-day exploits, buffer overflows, and protocol violations. IPS plays a crucial role in a defense-in-depth strategy by preventing lateral movement and command-and-control (C2) communications. For SCOR exam candidates, understanding IPS operation—including flow-based analysis, policy tuning, and false-positive management—is vital under the network security domain. IPS enables proactive threat mitigation, ensuring that malicious payloads are detected and neutralized before they compromise endpoints or servers, thereby protecting the overall network integrity.
Question 32:
What is the primary function of Cisco SecureX within the Cisco security architecture?
A Centralized visibility, orchestration, and automation across Cisco and third-party tools
B Network segmentation using security group tags
C DNS-level filtering and protection against malicious domains
D Secure remote access using VPN technologies
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco SecureX serves as the centralized orchestration and visibility platform that unifies all Cisco and supported third-party security tools into one interface. It provides threat correlation, automated workflows, and incident response orchestration across Cisco Secure products such as Firepower, ISE, AMP, Umbrella, and Stealthwatch. Unlike manual security operations, SecureX integrates telemetry to create cross-domain visibility, enabling teams to identify and respond to threats faster. Option (B) refers to Cisco TrustSec, which manages segmentation. (C) corresponds to Cisco Umbrella, providing DNS-layer security. (D) relates to Cisco AnyConnect or Secure Client, used for VPN access. SecureX’s value lies in its open APIs, integration with SIEM/SOAR systems, and automation capabilities that reduce response times. For example, an alert from Firepower can automatically trigger an ISE quarantine action through SecureX orchestration. In SCOR’s context, SecureX embodies the visibility and automation domain, emphasizing the move toward integrated, intelligence-driven security ecosystems that minimize silos and enhance overall operational efficiency.
Question 33:
Which Cisco component within a VPN deployment ensures that users and devices meet security posture requirements before access is granted?
A Cisco ISE
B Cisco AMP
C Cisco Secure Firewall
D Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) provides posture assessment and access control in VPN deployments. When integrated with Cisco AnyConnect Secure Client, it evaluates the security posture of the connecting device—including antivirus status, patch level, and registry checks—before permitting network access. If a device fails compliance checks, ISE can restrict or deny access through dynamic ACLs or VLAN assignments. Cisco AMP (B) detects malware, not posture. Secure Firewall (C) filters traffic but doesn’t perform compliance checks. Stealthwatch (D) monitors network behavior, not endpoint posture. Posture validation in ISE is essential for implementing a Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) model, ensuring that every connection is verified dynamically. This aligns with SCOR’s secure access and network visibility domains, where identity and device trustworthiness play key roles in preventing unauthorized access and lateral movement. For exam purposes, remember that ISE can act as a RADIUS server, posture policy manager, and enforcement point integrated with Firepower and SecureX for contextual response automation.
Question 34:
Which Cisco Secure Firewall mode allows it to act as a bridge between two network segments without changing their IP addressing scheme?
A Transparent mode
B Routed mode
C Inline mode
D Passive mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Transparent mode, the Cisco Secure Firewall (including ASA or FTD) functions as a Layer 2 bridge, forwarding traffic between interfaces without altering IP addressing. This is ideal for deployments where reconfiguration of existing subnets is not feasible but inspection is required. Routed mode (B) operates at Layer 3, meaning each interface requires an IP address, and the firewall acts as a router. Inline mode (C) refers to traffic inspection behavior, not network topology. Passive mode (D) inspects mirrored traffic without enforcement. Transparent mode allows seamless insertion of security controls into existing networks with minimal disruption. For example, organizations can deploy Firepower in transparent mode to monitor and protect a production environment without reassigning IPs or updating routing tables. For SCOR candidates, it’s crucial to understand deployment modes and their use cases under the network security domain, as configuration differences directly affect packet flow, inspection capabilities, and performance optimization.
Question 35:
Which Cisco solution provides cloud-delivered DNS-layer protection against phishing, malware, and command-and-control callbacks?
A Cisco Umbrella
B Cisco AMP
C Cisco Firepower
D Cisco ISE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella offers cloud-based DNS-layer security that blocks access to malicious domains before connections are established. It prevents users from reaching phishing sites, malware hosts, and C2 servers by enforcing domain-level filtering at the DNS stage—one of the earliest points in a connection attempt. AMP (B) detects malware at endpoints but doesn’t handle DNS resolution. Firepower (C) inspects packets and applies IPS/URL filtering but doesn’t offer DNS-layer protection. ISE (D) manages network access control but not domain resolution. Umbrella leverages data from Cisco Talos threat intelligence, ensuring real-time blocking of emerging threats. It’s particularly valuable for remote workers since traffic is secured without backhauling to corporate networks. For the SCOR exam, Umbrella represents a critical part of Cisco’s Secure Internet Gateway (SIG) strategy, aligning with cloud security objectives. Its integration with SecureX and AnyConnect enhances visibility and enforces security regardless of location, which is essential in today’s hybrid workforce model.
Question 36:
What role does Cisco Stealthwatch play in detecting insider threats and anomalous behavior within the network?
A It performs behavioral analytics using NetFlow telemetry to detect anomalies
B It blocks malicious websites using DNS filtering
C It encrypts data using secure VPN tunnels
D It manages endpoint antivirus definitions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Stealthwatch, part of the Cisco Secure Network Analytics portfolio, uses NetFlow and telemetry data to perform behavioral analytics and detect anomalous activity. It establishes a baseline of normal traffic patterns and identifies deviations that might indicate threats such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, or insider abuse. Option (B) describes Cisco Umbrella, not Stealthwatch. (C) refers to VPN operations like AnyConnect, and (D) is unrelated. Stealthwatch leverages machine learning and advanced analytics to provide network visibility even for encrypted traffic via Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA). It can integrate with ISE and Firepower for automated responses, like quarantining suspicious hosts. For SCOR exam preparation, understanding Stealthwatch’s role in network visibility and threat detection is essential, as it supports Zero Trust by continuously monitoring internal behavior and reducing dwell time for hidden attackers. It enhances situational awareness and strengthens the overall security posture of enterprise environments.
Question 37:
Which VPN technology used in Cisco Firepower allows multiple simultaneous secure tunnels for scalability and high availability?
A Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)
B SSL VPN
C IPsec Site-to-Site VPN
D MPLS VPN
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) enables scalable, dynamic, and redundant VPN connectivity among multiple remote sites without requiring static tunnels between every pair. It uses multipoint GRE (mGRE) combined with Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP) to dynamically establish direct tunnels as needed. SSL VPN (B) provides secure remote access for individual users, not site-to-site scalability. IPsec Site-to-Site VPN (C) offers fixed tunnels, which are not scalable for large topologies. MPLS VPN (D) is a service provider technology, not a Cisco firewall-based solution. DMVPN is ideal for hub-and-spoke or full-mesh topologies, supporting both Phase 2 (on-demand tunnels) and Phase 3 (dynamic spoke-to-spoke communication). For SCOR candidates, DMVPN represents a key concept within the secure connectivity domain, emphasizing flexibility, scalability, and resilience in wide-area VPN designs, particularly when integrated with Cisco’s secure routing and encryption technologies.
Question 38:
Which Cisco tool allows administrators to manage multiple Firepower devices and apply consistent security policies across them?
A Firepower Management Center (FMC)
B Cisco SecureX
C Cisco DNA Center
D Cisco Defense Orchestrator
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firepower Management Center (FMC) serves as the centralized management platform for Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) devices. It allows administrators to configure, monitor, and apply uniform policies across multiple firewalls. FMC handles access control, IPS, URL filtering, and logging through a single GUI. Cisco SecureX (B) focuses on orchestration and visibility across domains, not direct device configuration. Cisco DNA Center (C) manages enterprise network infrastructure, not security appliances. Cisco Defense Orchestrator (D) is a cloud-based management platform but supports fewer advanced Firepower configurations compared to FMC. For SCOR exam objectives, FMC’s significance lies in its ability to consolidate policy enforcement, streamline threat event correlation, and facilitate reporting and compliance. It provides end-to-end visibility and simplifies large-scale operations, aligning with the network security management and visibility domains.
Question 39:
Which Cisco solution continuously analyzes file behavior and provides retrospective alerts when a previously benign file is later deemed malicious?
A Cisco AMP for Endpoints
B Cisco ISE
C Cisco Umbrella
D Cisco Firepower
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints provides continuous file analysis and retrospective security. It monitors file behavior even after execution, allowing it to retroactively flag files that were initially considered safe but later identified as malicious based on updated threat intelligence from Cisco Talos. ISE (B) enforces network access control but doesn’t perform file analysis. Umbrella (C) blocks malicious domains, not files. Firepower (D) inspects traffic in transit, not at the endpoint level. AMP leverages sandboxing, machine learning, and cloud-based analytics to detect sophisticated malware and advanced persistent threats (APTs). For SCOR candidates, AMP’s retrospective detection illustrates the concept of continuous threat monitoring and response, essential in endpoint protection. It bridges the gap between detection and remediation by automatically isolating compromised devices through integration with SecureX or ISE, reinforcing Cisco’s adaptive threat defense architecture.
Question 40:
Which Cisco Secure Firewall capability allows administrators to block known bad IP addresses before performing deep inspection?
A Security Intelligence (SI)
B Intrusion Policy
C Access Control Rule
D URL Filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security Intelligence (SI) in Cisco Secure Firewall enables early-stage blocking of traffic from known malicious IP addresses, domains, or URLs based on Cisco Talos threat intelligence. This pre-filtering mechanism prevents unnecessary inspection of clearly malicious connections, improving performance. Intrusion Policy (B) inspects packets deeply for exploit signatures but occurs after initial filtering. Access Control Rules (C) define broader traffic policies but don’t leverage external reputation data. URL Filtering (D) categorizes web content but isn’t threat reputation–based. Security Intelligence is essential for real-time threat prevention, reducing the load on inspection engines and mitigating risks like botnet communications and brute-force attacks. For SCOR exam preparation, SI aligns with the network security and threat defense domains, emphasizing layered security—where intelligence-based blocking complements intrusion prevention, content filtering, and malware analysis for comprehensive protection.
