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Question 141
A user reports that their computer randomly shuts down after about 10 minutes of use. Which is the most likely cause?
A) Overheating
B) Malware infection
C) Corrupt OS files
D) Insufficient RAM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Random shutdowns that occur shortly after the system is powered on are most commonly caused by overheating. Modern PCs and laptops are equipped with thermal sensors that monitor the temperature of critical components such as the CPU and GPU. When these components exceed their thermal limits, the system initiates an automatic shutdown to prevent permanent damage. This protective mechanism helps avoid issues like CPU throttling, GPU failure, or motherboard damage. Overheating can result from several factors, including dust accumulation on heatsinks and cooling fans, blocked air vents, deteriorated thermal paste between the processor and its cooler, or failing fans that no longer provide adequate airflow. Ensuring proper ventilation, cleaning internal components, and replacing worn thermal paste are key steps in resolving these shutdowns.
Malware infections can also disrupt system stability and performance, causing symptoms such as slow response times, unexpected errors, or application crashes. However, malware rarely causes immediate or timed shutdowns unless it significantly overloads system resources, in which case the symptoms are typically accompanied by high CPU or memory usage rather than direct thermal triggers.
Corrupt operating system files can lead to instability, errors during boot, or application failures, but they usually do not cause the system to power off abruptly. Such corruption may present as system crashes or blue screen errors, rather than consistent automatic shutdowns after short activity periods.
Insufficient RAM can result in slow system performance, application freezes, or occasional program crashes, especially when multitasking or running memory-intensive applications. However, it does not generally cause full system power loss. The operating system typically manages low memory situations by utilizing virtual memory or prompting warnings rather than forcing a shutdown.
For technicians, understanding overheating and its impact on system stability is critical. Monitoring component temperatures through BIOS/UEFI or diagnostic software, ensuring clean and functional cooling systems, and maintaining proper airflow are essential steps in hardware troubleshooting. CompTIA A+ candidates must be proficient in recognizing overheating as a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns and implementing preventive and corrective measures to maintain system reliability.
Question 142
Which Windows feature allows a user to restore the system to a previous state without affecting personal files?
A) System Restore
B) Disk Cleanup
C) Reset this PC
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: A
Explanation:
System Restore is a built-in Windows utility that allows a computer to revert system files, program files, and registry settings to a previously saved state without affecting personal files such as documents, pictures, or music. This feature is particularly useful when troubleshooting issues caused by software installations, faulty drivers, or unstable updates that result in system errors or unexpected behavior. By returning the system to a known good configuration, System Restore can resolve many problems without requiring a complete reinstallation of the operating system.
Disk Cleanup, in contrast, is a tool designed to free up storage space by removing temporary files, cached data, and other unnecessary items. While it helps optimize disk usage and improve system performance, it does not restore system settings or recover from software issues. Reset this PC provides a more drastic solution by reinstalling Windows, giving the option to keep or remove personal files, and removing installed applications. This process effectively returns the system to a clean state but is far more intrusive than using System Restore and may require reinstallation of programs and reconfiguration of settings. Task Scheduler automates tasks, scripts, and maintenance activities but does not offer any capability to revert the system to a previous state or fix software-related problems.
System Restore relies on restore points, which can be created automatically by Windows before major system changes such as updates or software installations, or manually by the user. Understanding when and how to use restore points is essential for effective troubleshooting. CompTIA A+ candidates need to be familiar with the distinctions between System Restore and other recovery tools such as File History, Backup and Restore, and full system imaging. Proper application of System Restore can reduce downtime, maintain system stability, and provide a quick remediation method for resolving application errors, driver conflicts, or software corruption. Awareness of limitations, such as insufficient disk space or disabled system protection, is also critical for ensuring the utility functions as intended during troubleshooting.
Question 143
A technician receives a report that a Windows PC is displaying blue screen errors with different stop codes. Which tool should the technician use first to analyze the problem?
A) Event Viewer
B) Device Manager
C) System Configuration
D) Disk Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Event Viewer is the primary diagnostic tool in Windows for analyzing blue screen errors, also known as stop errors or BSODs. When a system encounters a critical failure, it records detailed information in Event Viewer, including error codes, the drivers or processes involved, and timestamps. These logs are stored in the System log and other relevant categories, allowing technicians to trace the cause of the crash. By reviewing these entries, IT professionals can determine whether the problem stems from hardware failures, driver conflicts, or software issues, providing a clear path for troubleshooting.
Device Manager is used to view and manage hardware components and their drivers. While it can identify missing or malfunctioning drivers and enable updates or rollbacks, it does not maintain historical logs of system errors. Therefore, it cannot provide the detailed error context needed to analyze a blue screen event. System Configuration, accessed via msconfig, allows users to manage startup programs, boot options, and system services. It is valuable for isolating performance issues or controlling which processes run at boot, but it does not record or analyze system crash events, making it unsuitable for detailed BSOD investigation. Disk Management is focused on storage tasks, such as creating, deleting, formatting, or resizing partitions. While important for drive-related issues, it does not provide insight into system crashes or driver errors that trigger blue screens.
Using Event Viewer effectively allows technicians to correlate error occurrences with specific drivers, system updates, or hardware changes. In more advanced troubleshooting, memory dump files generated during a blue screen can be analyzed with tools like WinDbg to identify the exact module causing the crash. For CompTIA A+ candidates, mastering Event Viewer is essential because it provides a structured approach to diagnosing system failures, reducing guesswork and unnecessary hardware replacements. Understanding how to interpret event logs ensures evidence-based troubleshooting, enabling IT professionals to address the underlying cause of recurring blue screen errors efficiently.
Question 144
Which feature in Windows 10/11 helps prevent users from accidentally changing critical system settings?
A) User Account Control
B) Task Manager
C) Device Manager
D) Event Viewer
Answer: A
Explanation:
User Account Control (UAC) is a fundamental security feature in Windows designed to prevent accidental or unauthorized changes to critical system settings. Whenever a user or application attempts to perform a task that could affect the system’s stability, such as installing software, modifying system files, or changing configuration settings, UAC prompts for administrator approval. This mechanism ensures that only authorized actions are executed, protecting the operating system from unintended modifications and potential malware attacks. By enforcing permission boundaries, UAC helps maintain system integrity, especially for users operating under standard accounts who do not have administrative privileges by default.
Task Manager, while useful for monitoring and managing running processes, CPU, memory, and network usage, does not provide a means to prevent unauthorized system changes. It allows observation and control of active programs but lacks the security enforcement capabilities that UAC provides. Device Manager is a tool for managing hardware components, updating drivers, and configuring devices, but it does not restrict who can make these changes or offer prompts for approval. Event Viewer records system, application, and security events, providing valuable insight into system behavior and errors, yet it cannot enforce access controls or block unauthorized modifications.
UAC’s role in Windows security is crucial for mitigating risks associated with malware infections or unintentional user errors. Technicians can adjust UAC settings to balance security and convenience, such as choosing between always notifying users or only notifying when apps attempt changes. Understanding how UAC interacts with user account privileges, software installations, and system modifications is essential for CompTIA A+ candidates. Mastery of UAC ensures that IT professionals can safeguard system stability, prevent accidental damage, and enforce security best practices while maintaining a controlled and user-friendly environment.
Question 145
A laptop battery is swelling and appears deformed. What should the technician do first?
A) Replace the battery immediately
B) Attempt to recharge the battery
C) Continue using the laptop while monitoring it
D) Update battery drivers
Answer: A
Explanation:
A swelling laptop battery represents a serious safety hazard and must be addressed immediately by replacing it. The swelling is typically caused by chemical instability within the battery, which can result from overcharging, extended use, or manufacturing defects. Lithium-ion batteries, commonly used in laptops, can become volatile when physically deformed, leading to leakage, fire, or even explosion. Therefore, continuing to use the laptop while monitoring it is unsafe, as any additional pressure, heat, or mechanical stress could trigger a catastrophic failure.
Attempting to recharge a swollen battery is extremely dangerous because it can accelerate the chemical reactions causing the swelling, increasing the risk of combustion. Updating battery drivers does not address the physical or chemical instability of the battery and therefore does not mitigate the immediate safety threat. Drivers control how the operating system interacts with the battery, but they cannot repair or stabilize a physically compromised cell.
Proper disposal of a swollen battery is essential to maintain environmental safety. Lithium-ion batteries contain hazardous materials that must be handled according to local electronic waste regulations. Technicians should follow manufacturer guidelines or certified e-waste disposal procedures to prevent environmental contamination and personal injury.
CompTIA A+ candidates must be able to recognize the warning signs of battery failure, including swelling, unusual heat, and bulging cases. Understanding the risks associated with lithium-ion battery defects is critical for implementing safe handling procedures. Immediate replacement, careful removal, and proper disposal ensure both personal safety and protection of the laptop hardware. Knowledge of these protocols is essential for IT support professionals, as it combines safety awareness with practical hardware maintenance skills, reinforcing the importance of proactive and informed responses to hardware hazards.
Question 146
Which network type is characterized by covering a small geographical area, such as a home or office?
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) MAN
D) PAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects devices within a limited geographical area, such as a home, office, or small building, enabling high-speed communication and resource sharing among connected devices. LANs are typically implemented using wired Ethernet connections, Wi-Fi, or a combination of both, providing reliable and fast connectivity suitable for file sharing, printer access, and centralized internet usage. The limited coverage area of a LAN allows for lower latency and higher data transfer rates compared to larger networks, making it ideal for internal enterprise or small-scale environments.
Wide Area Networks (WANs) span much larger geographical regions, such as cities, countries, or even continents. WANs often rely on external internet service providers, leased lines, or public infrastructure to connect multiple LANs. Due to their extended reach, WANs generally have higher latency and lower speeds compared to LANs. Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) are intermediate in scale, covering urban areas and connecting multiple LANs within a city. While MANs provide broader connectivity than LANs, they are still more localized than WANs. Personal Area Networks (PANs) are very small networks, typically used for connecting devices like smartphones, tablets, or wearable devices within a few meters, often through Bluetooth or USB connections.
Understanding LAN characteristics is crucial for CompTIA A+ candidates because LANs form the foundational network structure in localized environments. Knowledge of LAN topologies, such as star, bus, and mesh, along with protocols like TCP/IP, Ethernet, and Wi-Fi standards, allows IT professionals to configure, manage, and troubleshoot internal networks efficiently. LANs enable centralized management of resources, secure communication between devices, and seamless integration of peripherals, making them essential for both home and enterprise networking scenarios. Mastery of LAN concepts equips candidates with the skills necessary to implement effective local networking solutions and diagnose connectivity issues within small-scale networks.
Question 147
Which command in Windows is used to release and renew an IP address?
A) ipconfig
B) ping
C) tracert
D) netstat
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ipconfig command in Windows is a key networking utility that provides detailed information about a system’s IP configuration, including the assigned IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. It is especially useful for managing DHCP-assigned addresses. Using the commands ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew, a technician can release the current IP address assigned by a DHCP server and request a new one. This process is critical when troubleshooting connectivity problems caused by IP conflicts, expired leases, or misconfigured network settings.
Ping is commonly used to test network connectivity by sending ICMP echo requests to a target device, but it does not modify IP configuration or interact with DHCP. Tracert maps the path that packets take to reach a network destination, showing each hop along the route, yet it also does not manage IP addresses. Netstat displays active TCP/IP connections, listening ports, and network statistics, which is useful for monitoring and diagnostics but unrelated to releasing or renewing IP addresses.
Understanding how to release and renew IP addresses using ipconfig is an essential skill for CompTIA A+ candidates. This capability allows IT professionals to quickly resolve network issues without rebooting devices or manually reconfiguring network settings. Mastery of ipconfig options, including /all for complete configuration details and /flushdns for clearing the DNS resolver cache, further equips technicians to troubleshoot and maintain network connectivity efficiently. In dynamic IP environments, the ability to manage addresses with ipconfig ensures minimal downtime and helps maintain seamless communication between devices and network resources, which is critical in both enterprise and home networking scenarios.
Question 148
Which Windows feature allows encryption of entire drives to protect data from unauthorized access?
A) BitLocker
B) NTFS permissions
C) File History
D) System Restore
Answer: A
Explanation:
BitLocker is a Windows feature designed to provide full-disk encryption, ensuring that all data stored on a drive remains protected from unauthorized access. Even if the physical drive is removed from the computer and connected to another device, the data remains encrypted and inaccessible without proper authentication. This distinguishes BitLocker from NTFS permissions, which control access to files and folders at the operating system level but do not encrypt the data itself. While NTFS permissions can prevent unauthorized users on the same system from opening files, they do not protect against someone who has physical access to the drive.
File History is another Windows feature, but its purpose is backup rather than security. It saves incremental copies of user files to a separate location, allowing recovery of previous versions if data is lost or modified. However, File History does not provide encryption or prevent unauthorized access to the drive. Similarly, System Restore is used to revert system files, settings, and installed applications to a previous state in case of system instability, but it does not encrypt or secure user data.
BitLocker uses strong AES encryption and integrates with the system’s Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to securely store encryption keys. It can also use a USB startup key or password for additional authentication. Enabling BitLocker is particularly important for protecting sensitive corporate or personal data on laptops and portable drives, which are more vulnerable to theft or loss. CompTIA A+ candidates must understand the principles of drive encryption, key management, recovery processes, and scenarios where BitLocker implementation is essential. This knowledge equips IT professionals to enforce data security policies, safeguard sensitive information, and maintain compliance with organizational or regulatory requirements.
Question 149
Which type of malware is designed to replicate itself and spread to other systems without user interaction?
A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Spyware
D) Adware
Answer: A
Explanation:
A worm is a type of malware that has the distinct ability to self-replicate and spread across networks or connected devices without requiring any user action. Unlike Trojans, which rely on users to execute seemingly legitimate software to activate malicious code, worms exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems, network services, or applications to propagate automatically. This self-sufficiency makes worms particularly dangerous, as they can rapidly infect multiple systems, consume network bandwidth, and lead to widespread instability.
Spyware is a different category of malware that covertly monitors user activity, such as keystrokes, browsing habits, or login credentials, often sending this data to attackers. Adware primarily delivers unwanted advertisements and may track user behavior for marketing purposes, but it usually does not self-replicate or propagate across networks like worms do.
The impact of worms can be severe, ranging from network slowdowns to data corruption, service interruptions, and depletion of system resources. Historical examples, such as the ILOVEYOU or WannaCry worms, demonstrate how quickly these threats can spread globally. Mitigating worm infections involves several strategies, including timely patch management to close vulnerabilities, deploying firewalls to filter malicious traffic, using intrusion detection and prevention systems to identify abnormal behavior, and installing comprehensive endpoint security software to detect and quarantine threats.
For CompTIA A+ candidates, understanding worms is crucial because it encompasses recognizing their propagation methods, differentiating them from other malware types, and implementing effective preventive measures. This knowledge not only supports personal computer security but also plays a vital role in protecting enterprise networks, minimizing downtime, and safeguarding sensitive data from rapid, uncontrolled infections. Recognizing the characteristics of worms allows IT professionals to respond proactively, maintaining both network integrity and operational stability.
Question 150
A technician wants to check which applications start automatically in Windows. Which utility should they use?
A) Task Manager
B) Device Manager
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Event Viewer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Task Manager in Windows is a primary tool for monitoring system performance and managing running processes, and it includes a Startup tab that specifically lists all applications configured to launch automatically during system boot. By reviewing this list, technicians can identify unnecessary or resource-intensive programs that may slow down the startup process and overall system performance. Disabling nonessential startup applications can significantly improve boot times and reduce system load, helping maintain smooth operation.
Device Manager, on the other hand, focuses on hardware components and driver management. While it allows the inspection, updating, and troubleshooting of drivers, it does not provide visibility into applications that start automatically with Windows. Disk Cleanup is a maintenance tool used to free up disk space by removing temporary files, system caches, and other unnecessary data. Although it helps improve storage efficiency, it does not influence which programs run at startup. Event Viewer records system, application, and security events, offering detailed logs for diagnosing errors or system crashes, but it does not show real-time startup application activity.
Effectively managing startup programs through Task Manager is essential for troubleshooting slow boot times, improving responsiveness, and identifying potential malware that may persist by configuring itself to launch on startup. IT professionals must distinguish between critical system processes and user-installed applications to prevent accidentally disabling essential Windows services, which could lead to instability or functionality issues.
CompTIA A+ candidates should be proficient in using Task Manager not only to monitor CPU, memory, disk, and network usage but also to optimize system startup. Understanding how to analyze, enable, or disable startup items responsibly allows technicians to enhance system performance, ensure efficient troubleshooting, and maintain a positive user experience in Windows environments.
Question 151
Which wireless security protocol is considered the most secure for home Wi-Fi networks?
A) WPA3
B) WEP
C) WPA
D) WPA2
Answer: A
Explanation:
WPA3 is the most advanced and secure wireless security protocol currently available for Wi-Fi networks. It builds upon the improvements introduced in WPA2 while addressing known vulnerabilities and offering enhanced encryption methods. One of its primary features is Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the pre-shared key exchange used in WPA2. SAE provides stronger protection against offline dictionary attacks, ensuring that even weak passwords cannot be easily exploited by attackers. WPA3 also uses 192-bit encryption in enterprise mode, offering higher security for sensitive environments, and provides forward secrecy, which protects past communications even if a key is compromised in the future.
WEP is an obsolete protocol that uses weak RC4 encryption and is easily broken with modern tools. Its vulnerabilities make it unsuitable for protecting any modern wireless network. WPA was introduced as an interim solution to address WEP weaknesses, offering TKIP encryption, but it still has known flaws that allow attackers to intercept and manipulate traffic. WPA2 became the standard for many years, offering AES-based encryption, which is strong but not impervious. Attacks like KRACK exploit weaknesses in WPA2’s handshake process, demonstrating that WPA2 is less robust than WPA3 in resisting sophisticated attacks.
Understanding the differences between these wireless protocols is critical for CompTIA A+ candidates. Knowledge of encryption methods, authentication mechanisms, and potential vulnerabilities allows IT professionals to configure secure Wi-Fi networks, safeguard sensitive data, and prevent unauthorized access. Choosing WPA3 for home or enterprise networks ensures modern cryptographic standards are applied, reduces the risk of attacks on wireless communications, and aligns with best practices for network security in contemporary IT environments. Proper implementation of WPA3 also involves configuring strong passphrases and updating client devices to support the protocol, maximizing security benefits.
Question 152
A technician is asked to configure a mobile device to connect to a corporate Wi-Fi network using WPA2-Enterprise. Which additional credential is typically required?
A) Username and password
B) PIN code only
C) MAC address
D) Device serial number
Answer: A
Explanation:
WPA2-Enterprise is a wireless security mode designed for corporate or organizational networks, providing stronger authentication and access control compared to WPA2-Personal. In this mode, each user is assigned a unique set of credentials, typically a username and password, which are validated against an authentication server, most commonly a RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) server. This individualized authentication ensures that network access can be tightly controlled, monitored, and logged, enabling administrators to track user activity and revoke access if necessary.
Using only a PIN code, MAC address, or device serial number is insufficient for WPA2-Enterprise authentication. PIN codes are generally short and easily guessed, offering minimal security. MAC addresses can be spoofed, allowing unauthorized devices to appear as legitimate clients. Device serial numbers are not designed for authentication and provide no cryptographic security. By requiring a username and password for each user, WPA2-Enterprise ensures that even if one user’s credentials are compromised, other users’ access remains secure.
Understanding the distinction between WPA2-Personal and WPA2-Enterprise is essential for CompTIA A+ candidates. WPA2-Personal relies on a single pre-shared key for all devices, which is simpler to configure but less secure in environments with multiple users, since sharing the key exposes the network to greater risk. WPA2-Enterprise, in contrast, scales securely for large organizations, supports logging and auditing, and integrates with centralized directory services such as Active Directory. Proper implementation of WPA2-Enterprise involves configuring the authentication server, enabling EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) methods, and ensuring client devices are compatible with enterprise credentials. Mastery of these concepts is critical for IT professionals responsible for configuring and maintaining secure wireless networks in business environments.
Question 153
Which Windows utility allows you to create a backup of user files on an external drive?
A) File History
B) Task Scheduler
C) Disk Management
D) Event Viewer
Answer: A
Explanation:
File History is a built-in Windows utility that focuses on protecting user data by automatically backing up personal files, including documents, music, pictures, and videos, to an external drive or network location. One of its key features is versioning, which allows users to restore previous versions of files in case they are accidentally deleted, modified, or corrupted. This ensures that critical personal or work files are safeguarded without requiring a full system restore.
Task Scheduler, while useful for automating repetitive tasks and scripts, does not provide backup functionality. It cannot track or copy user files for recovery purposes, so it is not a substitute for a dedicated backup solution. Disk Management allows users to manage partitions, volumes, and drives but does not create copies of files or provide a history of changes, making it irrelevant for data recovery. Event Viewer is designed for logging system, security, and application events, offering insight into errors and warnings but not facilitating the recovery of personal data.
File History operates incrementally, backing up only the changes made since the last backup, which reduces storage requirements and allows frequent backups without affecting system performance. Users can configure which folders are included or excluded, and the system keeps multiple versions of files for extended recovery options. For CompTIA A+ candidates, understanding File History involves recognizing the differences between full system backups, file-level backups, and versioned backups, as well as knowing how to configure and maintain backup locations. Proper implementation ensures data continuity and minimizes the risk of data loss from accidental deletion, hardware failure, or file corruption. Knowledge of File History also helps technicians advise users on practical, low-overhead methods for maintaining consistent data protection while avoiding interference with daily system operations.
Question 154
Which type of cable is most commonly used for wired Ethernet connections?
A) Cat5e or Cat6
B) HDMI
C) USB-C
D) SATA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Category 5e (Cat5e) and Category 6 (Cat6) cables are the primary twisted-pair cables used for wired Ethernet networks, providing reliable data transmission for Local Area Networks (LANs). Cat5e cables support speeds up to 1 Gbps and are suitable for most standard networking needs, while Cat6 cables can handle higher speeds up to 10 Gbps over shorter distances, making them ideal for high-performance or future-proofed networks. These cables use RJ-45 connectors and often incorporate shielding or twisted pairs to minimize crosstalk and electromagnetic interference, ensuring consistent network performance.
HDMI cables, in contrast, are designed to transmit audio and video signals between devices such as computers, monitors, and televisions and do not facilitate network communication. USB-C cables primarily connect peripherals, provide power delivery, and support data transfer for individual devices, but they are not intended for standard LAN connectivity. SATA cables are used for connecting internal storage devices like hard drives and SSDs to a motherboard and are unrelated to network transmission.
For CompTIA A+ candidates, understanding the characteristics of Ethernet cables is crucial for setting up, maintaining, and troubleshooting network infrastructure. Knowledge of proper cable selection, maximum transmission distances, and installation best practices ensures optimal network speed, low latency, and stability. Proper cable management, avoiding excessive bending or electromagnetic interference, and selecting the correct cable category for the network environment directly affect performance and reliability. Mastery of these concepts allows IT professionals to build efficient wired networks, diagnose connectivity issues, and support enterprise or home networking environments effectively, forming a foundational skill in technical support and infrastructure maintenance.
Question 155
A user reports that their printer is not printing, even though it appears online. Which step should the technician take first?
A) Check print queue for stuck jobs
B) Replace the toner
C) Reinstall Windows
D) Check disk space
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a printer shows as online but does not produce any output, the most common cause is a stuck print job in the print queue. Print jobs can become paused, corrupted, or queued improperly, preventing subsequent documents from being printed even though the printer appears ready. The first troubleshooting step is to access the print queue, which can be done by selecting the printer icon in Windows or using the Devices and Printers panel. From there, jobs can be paused, restarted, or canceled to clear the blockage and resume normal printing.
Replacing the toner may resolve issues like blank pages or faded output but does not address stuck print jobs. Similarly, reinstalling Windows is an extreme step that does not target the likely cause of printing issues and is unnecessary in most cases. Checking disk space is generally irrelevant unless a local virtual printer or spooling process requires storage; however, standard printing operations are unaffected by available disk space on the system.
Understanding how to manage the print queue is critical for IT technicians, as it allows them to resolve common printing problems quickly without unnecessary hardware changes or system reinstallation. Proper use of administrative tools to monitor and manage print jobs ensures workflow continuity and minimizes user downtime. CompTIA A+ candidates must be familiar with printer troubleshooting steps, including queue management, verifying printer connectivity, checking for driver updates, and understanding spooling processes. Mastery of these steps enables effective resolution of routine printing issues in both office and enterprise environments, improving overall productivity and user satisfaction.
Question 156
Which Windows utility can be used to schedule tasks to run automatically at specific times?
A) Task Scheduler
B) Event Viewer
C) Disk Cleanup
D) System Restore
Answer: A
Explanation:
Task Scheduler is a Windows utility designed to automate the execution of programs, scripts, or system tasks at predefined times or in response to specific triggers. This functionality is particularly useful for repetitive administrative tasks, such as performing backups, running maintenance scripts, executing software updates, or launching diagnostic tools, without requiring manual intervention each time. Users can create tasks with detailed schedules, configure conditions for execution, and specify actions to be performed, making it a versatile tool for both routine and complex system management.
Event Viewer, in contrast, provides logs of system, application, and security events but does not execute tasks. While it is essential for diagnosing errors and monitoring system activity, it cannot automate processes. Disk Cleanup is intended to remove temporary and unnecessary files to free disk space, but it cannot schedule or trigger tasks. System Restore allows reverting the system to a previous state, addressing configuration errors or system instability, but it does not inherently schedule tasks unless combined with other tools.
Task Scheduler supports multiple triggers, such as running tasks at system startup, at user logon, on idle, or based on specific events like application or system logs. Conditions and actions can be customized to optimize resource usage, ensuring tasks run efficiently and at appropriate times. For example, IT administrators can schedule disk defragmentation, antivirus scans, or script execution during off-peak hours to minimize user disruption.
CompTIA A+ candidates must understand Task Scheduler’s capabilities for automating administrative and maintenance tasks, integrating with scripts, and improving overall system reliability. Proficiency in configuring triggers, conditions, and actions enhances a technician’s ability to maintain Windows environments proactively, ensuring consistency, reducing manual workload, and supporting efficient IT operations.
Question 157
Which type of malware encrypts user files and demands payment to restore access?
A) Ransomware
B) Worm
C) Adware
D) Spyware
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malicious software that encrypts a user’s files, making them inaccessible until a ransom is paid, usually in cryptocurrency. This type of malware is highly disruptive because it directly targets data availability, preventing users and organizations from accessing critical documents, databases, or system files. Ransomware often spreads through phishing emails containing malicious attachments or links, infected downloads from untrusted websites, or by exploiting vulnerabilities in network services and operating systems.
Unlike worms, which replicate themselves to spread across networks autonomously, ransomware primarily focuses on encrypting data rather than self-propagation. Adware generates unwanted advertisements to monetize user activity, and spyware secretly monitors user actions to collect sensitive information. While these types of malware are disruptive or privacy-invasive, they generally do not directly deny access to files or demand payment for restoration.
The impact of ransomware can be severe, leading to data loss, operational downtime, and significant financial consequences if organizations pay ransoms or incur recovery costs. Effective mitigation strategies include maintaining regular, offline backups of important data, keeping operating systems and software up to date to patch vulnerabilities, using comprehensive security solutions to detect and block threats, and educating users to recognize phishing attempts and unsafe downloads. Network segmentation and strict access controls can also limit the spread of ransomware in enterprise environments.
CompTIA A+ candidates must understand ransomware’s mechanisms, prevention methods, detection techniques, and recovery procedures. Knowledge of how to restore files from secure backups, apply decryption tools when available, and implement layered security strategies is essential. Awareness of ransomware behavior helps IT professionals protect data integrity, minimize downtime, and maintain business continuity, highlighting the importance of both proactive security measures and reactive incident response in modern IT environments.
Question 158
Which mobile device feature allows for remote tracking, locking, or wiping if the device is lost or stolen?
A) Find My Device
B) VPN
C) NFC
D) Hotspot
Answer: A
Explanation:
Find My Device is a security and management feature available on most modern smartphones and tablets that allows users to locate, lock, or remotely erase their devices if they are lost or stolen. This functionality depends on GPS, internet connectivity, and the device being linked to an account, such as Google or Apple ID, which provides authentication and access to tracking features. By enabling this service, users and IT administrators can quickly determine a device’s location, protecting sensitive personal or corporate data from unauthorized access.
Unlike VPNs, which establish secure connections to private networks, Find My Device does not encrypt traffic or provide network-level security. NFC is designed for short-range communication between devices for tasks like payments or file transfers, and Hotspot functionality allows a device to share its internet connection with others. None of these features provide tracking or remote management capabilities.
Using Find My Device, users can perform several critical actions remotely. They can locate the device on a map to attempt recovery, lock it to prevent unauthorized access, display a message on the screen to assist in return, or execute a remote wipe to erase personal and corporate data if recovery is unlikely. These capabilities are particularly important in enterprise environments where mobile devices often contain sensitive emails, documents, and access credentials.
CompTIA A+ candidates should understand how to configure and manage these tracking tools, including enabling location services, linking the device to the appropriate account, and verifying connectivity for remote actions. Awareness of these features ensures that lost or stolen devices can be managed effectively, helping to maintain security compliance, reduce potential data breaches, and enhance overall mobile device management practices.
Question 159
A technician notices that a computer takes a long time to start and applications open slowly. Which type of maintenance is most appropriate?
A) Disk Defragmentation and cleanup
B) System Restore
C) Driver rollback
D) Reinstalling Windows
Answer: A
Explanation:
Disk defragmentation and cleanup are fundamental maintenance tasks aimed at improving system performance and ensuring efficient use of storage resources. As users install, modify, and delete files over time, data on the hard drive can become fragmented, meaning parts of the same file are stored in noncontiguous sectors. This fragmentation increases the time required for the system to read and write files, leading to slower performance. Disk defragmentation reorganizes these fragmented files so that each file occupies contiguous space, reducing seek times and improving overall system responsiveness.
In addition to defragmentation, disk cleanup plays a critical role in system maintenance. Temporary files, cache files, system logs, and remnants from uninstalled applications can accumulate and occupy valuable storage space. Disk cleanup utilities scan for and remove these unnecessary files, freeing disk space, preventing storage-related errors, and contributing to faster file access and application performance.
System Restore, while useful for reverting system settings to a previous state in cases of software malfunction or misconfiguration, does not directly enhance performance. Similarly, driver rollback addresses compatibility issues after updates but does not optimize overall system efficiency. Reinstalling Windows is a drastic measure generally reserved for severe corruption or persistent software problems and is not part of routine performance maintenance.
For CompTIA A+ candidates, understanding disk defragmentation and cleanup is essential for proactive IT support. Properly scheduled maintenance helps prevent system slowdowns, reduces wear on storage devices, and ensures that both personal and enterprise systems operate efficiently. These tasks are foundational for maintaining a responsive computing environment, prolonging hardware lifespan, and avoiding unnecessary troubleshooting due to performance degradation. Mastery of these maintenance practices equips technicians to keep systems optimized and supports best practices in IT management.
Question 160
Which technology allows mobile devices to make payments wirelessly using short-range communication?
A) NFC
B) Bluetooth
C) Wi-Fi
D) LTE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Near Field Communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that allows devices to exchange data when they are within just a few centimeters of each other. This extremely limited range enhances security, making it ideal for applications where proximity matters, such as contactless payments and secure authentication. NFC is widely integrated into smartphones, tablets, and payment terminals, enabling transactions through mobile wallets or tap-to-pay cards.
Unlike Bluetooth, which provides longer-range wireless connectivity for peripherals like headphones, speakers, and keyboards, NFC is not designed for continuous data transfer but rather for quick, secure exchanges. Wi-Fi delivers internet access over longer distances and is suitable for high-speed data communication but is not optimized for rapid, proximity-based payment interactions. LTE offers mobile data connectivity for cellular networks but does not facilitate the secure short-range transactions that NFC enables.
NFC technology often works alongside secure elements or tokenization systems, ensuring that sensitive payment information is encrypted during transmission. It can also support device pairing, access control, and information sharing between devices without requiring lengthy setup procedures. CompTIA A+ candidates need to understand NFC’s unique characteristics, typical use cases, and security considerations, including the importance of configuring devices properly and verifying supported payment applications. Proper knowledge allows IT professionals to troubleshoot NFC connectivity issues, ensure secure deployment in mobile devices, and support safe operational practices in environments where mobile payments and device-to-device communication are common. NFC is a critical component of modern mobile security and convenience, providing both users and organizations with reliable and fast short-range communication capabilities.
