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Question 21
Which Windows feature allows you to schedule automatic backups of files and folders to prevent data loss?
A) File History
B) Task Scheduler
C) Disk Cleanup
D) System Restore
Answer: A
Explanation:
File History is a built-in Windows feature designed to protect user data by automatically creating backups of personal files and folders, providing a safety net against accidental deletion, file corruption, or hardware failure. Unlike System Restore, which focuses primarily on system files, configuration settings, and installed programs, File History specifically targets user data, including documents, photos, videos, music, and files stored in libraries, the desktop, contacts, and favorites. By maintaining multiple versions of files, it allows users to recover previous iterations of a document, making it easier to undo unintended changes or restore lost information.
Users can configure File History to back up data to external storage devices such as USB drives, external hard disks, or network locations. Once enabled, it continuously monitors the selected folders and periodically saves copies, maintaining an organized history of changes over time. This versioning system not only protects against data loss but also provides flexibility in retrieving older versions of files when needed. File History is designed to manage storage efficiently, automatically rotating older backups to prevent the backup drive from filling up unnecessarily.
Option B, Task Scheduler, is used to automate routine tasks and run programs at specific intervals but is not designed for backing up files. Option C, Disk Cleanup, helps optimize disk space by removing temporary files and other unnecessary data but does not provide backup capabilities. Option D, System Restore, allows users to revert system configurations and recover from software-related issues but does not safeguard personal user files.
IT professionals often integrate File History with cloud-based storage solutions to create redundant and off-site backups, improving resilience against localized hardware failures or disasters. Configuring proper retention policies and regularly testing file restoration are crucial practices to ensure data integrity and reliability. Understanding how to implement File History effectively is essential for both individual users and enterprise IT teams, as it enables structured backup strategies, facilitates rapid recovery of critical files, and supports compliance with data management and retention requirements. By leveraging File History, organizations and individuals can minimize the risk of permanent data loss while maintaining access to historical versions of important documents.
Question 22
Which command-line tool in Windows can be used to verify and repair corrupted system files?
A) sfc
B) chkdsk
C) diskpart
D) ping
Answer: A
Explanation:
The System File Checker (SFC) is a built-in Windows utility that scans the integrity of protected system files and automatically replaces corrupted, missing, or modified files with the correct versions from a cached store. This tool is an essential component for maintaining system stability and reliability, particularly after malware infections, software conflicts, incomplete updates, or accidental file modifications. By ensuring that critical system files remain intact, SFC helps prevent crashes, application errors, and boot failures, making it a fundamental tool for both home users and IT professionals.
Option B, chkdsk, focuses on verifying disk integrity and repairing file system errors, but it does not restore Windows system files. Option C, diskpart, is used for disk partitioning, formatting, and managing storage volumes rather than fixing system corruption. Option D, ping, tests network connectivity and latency between devices but has no function related to system file maintenance. In contrast, SFC directly addresses issues with Windows system files, making it a primary tool for resolving problems caused by damaged or altered files.
The most commonly used command is sfc /scannow, which instructs the tool to examine all protected system files and repair any issues it identifies automatically. Advanced users often pair SFC with the Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) utility to first repair the Windows image before performing an SFC scan, ensuring comprehensive restoration when system corruption is severe. This combination is particularly effective in enterprise environments, where maintaining system integrity across multiple machines is critical.
IT professionals may also run SFC remotely through scripts, group policies, or management tools, allowing for efficient maintenance and minimizing downtime across a network of computers. Successful use of SFC requires understanding Windows file structures, user permissions, and the potential for conflicts with third-party applications that may lock files during scanning. Best practices include performing backups before initiating repairs and monitoring log files to verify the restoration process. Mastery of SFC is therefore essential for troubleshooting system instability, resolving software malfunctions, and ensuring the smooth operation of Windows environments in both personal and enterprise contexts.
Question 23
Which type of network topology uses a central device to connect all nodes, allowing easy management and scalability?
A) Ring
B) Star
C) Bus
D) Mesh
Answer: B
Explanation:
A star topology is a network configuration in which all devices, such as computers, printers, and servers, are connected to a central networking device, typically a switch or a hub. This centralization provides several advantages, including simplified management, easier troubleshooting, and straightforward network expansion. Since all communication passes through the central device, a failure in a single peripheral node does not disrupt the rest of the network. This contrasts with topologies like ring or bus, where a single point of failure, such as a broken cable or malfunctioning device, can cause widespread connectivity issues.
Option A, ring topology, forms a closed loop where data travels in a fixed direction. While it can be efficient in small networks, fault isolation is difficult, and a single failure can disrupt the entire network. Option C, bus topology, connects all devices along a single backbone cable, making it highly vulnerable to cable or connector failures, which can halt communication for all nodes. Option D, mesh topology, provides multiple redundant paths between nodes, ensuring high fault tolerance, but it is complex, expensive, and difficult to manage, particularly in large-scale deployments.
The star topology’s centralized nature allows for easy network monitoring and segmentation, often through VLANs configured on managed switches. Adding new devices is straightforward and does not require reconfiguring existing connections, which enhances scalability. This makes star topologies ideal for office environments, educational institutions, and enterprise data centers, where reliability and maintainability are priorities.
Proper implementation of a star network involves careful attention to cabling standards, switch port allocation, and device configuration to optimize both performance and security. Star topologies also integrate seamlessly with wireless networks, allowing hybrid wired/wireless setups to meet modern business requirements. Network administrators benefit from the topology’s simplicity when performing tasks such as bandwidth management, monitoring traffic patterns, and isolating network issues quickly.
Understanding the characteristics and advantages of a star topology is critical for IT professionals when designing networks. By selecting an appropriate topology, organizations can improve network reliability, streamline maintenance, enhance user experience, and ensure the infrastructure can grow efficiently as demands increase. The star topology remains one of the most widely used network designs due to its balance of resilience, manageability, and cost-effectiveness.
Question 24
Which mobile device security feature allows you to wipe all data remotely if the device is lost or stolen?
A) Remote Lock
B) Remote Wipe
C) Find My Device
D) VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Remote Wipe is a security feature that allows IT administrators or device owners to remotely erase all data on a lost, stolen, or compromised mobile device, safeguarding sensitive information from unauthorized access. This capability is a critical component of enterprise mobility management (EMM) and mobile device management (MDM) systems, which help organizations maintain control over corporate data across a wide range of devices. By using remote wipe, businesses can prevent data breaches that might result from lost smartphones, tablets, or laptops containing confidential company information, customer records, or intellectual property.
Option A, Remote Lock, restricts access to a device by locking it, but it does not remove stored data, leaving sensitive information potentially vulnerable if the device is bypassed. Option C, Find My Device, provides location tracking and can assist in recovering a lost device but does not delete stored content. Option D, Virtual Private Network (VPN), secures data transmission over networks but does not offer protection in the event of physical device theft. In contrast, Remote Wipe ensures that all files, applications, credentials, and cached data are permanently removed, effectively rendering the device unusable to unauthorized parties.
Administrators can initiate a remote wipe through centralized management consoles, cloud-based MDM platforms, or dedicated mobile security applications. To maximize security, devices should be configured with strong authentication, encryption, and secure communication channels, ensuring that the wipe command cannot be intercepted or bypassed. Some advanced solutions also support selective wipe, which removes only corporate data while preserving personal user content, balancing security with usability in bring-your-own-device (BYOD) environments.
Question 25
Which Windows tool provides detailed logging of system events, errors, and warnings for troubleshooting?
A) Event Viewer
B) Task Manager
C) Device Manager
D) Performance Monitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Event Viewer is a built-in Windows utility that allows IT professionals and system administrators to monitor and review detailed logs of system, application, and security events. These logs provide critical insights into the health and status of a computer, helping diagnose errors, track failures, and detect potential security issues. Unlike Task Manager, which focuses on real-time monitoring of processes and system performance, Event Viewer records historical data, making it possible to investigate events after they occur. Similarly, while Device Manager manages hardware configurations and drivers, it does not provide detailed event logging. Performance Monitor tracks metrics like CPU, memory, and disk usage, but it lacks the depth of information regarding specific system or application events that Event Viewer offers.
Event Viewer organizes logs into categories such as Application, System, and Security, enabling targeted analysis of warnings, errors, and informational messages. Administrators can filter, search, and export logs to identify root causes of crashes, driver conflicts, or failed services. Additionally, Event Viewer can be integrated with alerting systems to provide proactive notifications for critical events. Mastery of Event Viewer requires understanding event IDs, log types, and how events correlate with other system metrics. By leveraging this tool effectively, IT professionals can troubleshoot recurring problems, optimize system performance, ensure operational stability, and maintain compliance with audit and regulatory requirements.
Question 26
Which type of computer expansion slot provides the fastest data transfer rate for modern graphics cards?
A) PCI
B) AGP
C) PCIe x16
D) ISA
Answer: C
Explanation:
PCI Express (PCIe) x16 slots are the current standard for connecting high-performance graphics cards to a computer’s motherboard. They offer the highest data transfer rates among common expansion slots, making them essential for modern computing tasks such as gaming, 3D rendering, video editing, scientific simulations, and artificial intelligence workloads. PCIe x16 achieves superior performance by using point-to-point serial connections and multiple lanes, allowing parallel data transfer between the graphics card and the CPU or memory. The number of lanes (x1, x4, x8, x16) determines the available bandwidth, with x16 providing the maximum throughput required by high-end GPUs.
Option A, PCI, is an older parallel bus standard that provides significantly lower transfer speeds compared to PCIe, making it unsuitable for modern graphics-intensive applications. Option B, AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port), was once dedicated to graphics cards, but it has been fully phased out due to its limited bandwidth and lack of support for modern GPU features. Option D, ISA, is a legacy slot designed decades ago for simple peripherals; it is now entirely obsolete and cannot support today’s high-bandwidth devices.
Understanding slot types and compatibility is crucial for system builders, IT technicians, and hardware engineers. Factors such as PCIe generation (e.g., PCIe 3.0 vs. PCIe 4.0), lane configuration, and motherboard support affect GPU performance and system efficiency. Proper installation also requires attention to power delivery, cooling solutions, and driver management to ensure that graphics cards operate at peak capacity. Using the correct PCIe x16 slot prevents bottlenecks and maximizes the potential of GPU-intensive tasks, making it essential for gaming systems, workstations, and servers performing parallel computations. Knowledge of PCIe technology, backward compatibility, and lane negotiation is critical for designing high-performance, future-proof systems capable of handling demanding graphics and computational workloads.
Question 27
Which protocol is commonly used to securely browse the internet by encrypting all transmitted data?
A) HTTP
B) HTTPS
C) FTP
D) Telnet
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. HTTPS encrypts all data exchanged between a web browser and a server using SSL/TLS protocols, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and authentication. This encryption prevents attackers from intercepting or modifying data, making it essential for secure online communication. In contrast, HTTP (option A) transmits information in plaintext, leaving sensitive data such as login credentials, personal details, and payment information vulnerable to eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks.
FTP (option C), or File Transfer Protocol, is designed for transferring files between computers. By default, FTP does not encrypt data, including usernames and passwords, which exposes information to interception. While secure alternatives like FTPS or SFTP exist, plain FTP remains inherently insecure for sensitive file transfers. Similarly, Telnet (option D) provides remote command-line access to servers but transmits all input, including passwords, in plaintext. Modern networks typically replace Telnet with SSH, which encrypts communication, ensuring secure remote administration.
HTTPS is critical for protecting sensitive information on websites, e-commerce platforms, online banking portals, and cloud services. IT professionals must understand SSL/TLS protocols, certificate authorities, and encryption standards to implement HTTPS correctly. Proper certificate management—including issuing, renewing, and validating certificates—prevents browser security warnings and ensures end-user trust. Additionally, HTTPS adoption improves website credibility and positively affects search engine rankings, influencing both user confidence and visibility.
Question 28
Which type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it?
A) Virus
B) Trojan
C) Worm
D) Ransomware
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Trojan. A Trojan is a type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it. Once installed, it can give attackers unauthorized access to the system, allowing them to steal sensitive data, deploy additional malware, or control the system remotely. Unlike a virus, which infects files and spreads when the infected file is executed, a Trojan does not self-replicate. A worm, on the other hand, spreads autonomously across networks without user intervention, making its propagation method different from that of a Trojan. Ransomware encrypts a user’s files and demands payment for their release, which is a distinct type of attack with a clear financial motive.
Trojans often rely on social engineering tactics to trick users into executing them. Common techniques include fake software updates, pirated applications, malicious email attachments, and deceptive websites. Because Trojans do not always exhibit obvious symptoms immediately, detecting them can be challenging. Effective detection involves using antivirus software, behavioral monitoring tools, and educating users about safe computing practices.
IT security professionals play a crucial role in mitigating Trojan threats. Measures include deploying endpoint protection solutions, implementing application whitelisting to prevent unauthorized software execution, and enforcing security policies that limit risky user behavior. Awareness of Trojan tactics, indicators of compromise, and preventive strategies is essential for reducing potential damage and safeguarding sensitive information in both personal and enterprise computing environments.
Regular software updates, ongoing user education, and layered security strategies increase resilience against Trojan attacks. By combining technical defenses with informed user practices, organizations and individuals can reduce the risk of Trojan infections and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their systems and data.
Question 29
Which Windows feature allows users to revert the system to a previous working state without affecting personal files?
A) System Restore
B) File History
C) Backup and Restore
D) Task Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, System Restore. System Restore is a Windows feature that allows users to revert their operating system to a previous state by creating snapshots of system files, settings, and installed applications. This functionality is particularly useful for troubleshooting problems caused by failed updates, driver conflicts, or problematic software installations. Importantly, System Restore does not affect personal files such as documents, photos, or other user data, making it a safe first-line recovery tool.
Option B, File History, serves a different purpose. It is designed to back up personal files and folders, such as documents, pictures, and videos, on a regular basis. File History does not restore system files or configurations, so it cannot fix system-related issues in the same way System Restore does. Option C, Backup and Restore, provides a more comprehensive solution by creating full system backups, including both system files and personal data. While it can restore the entire system or selected files, it requires pre-configured backup sets and is generally used for larger recovery scenarios. Option D, Task Manager, is a system monitoring tool that tracks CPU, memory, and application performance. While useful for identifying resource usage or terminating unresponsive programs, it does not offer any restoration capabilities.
System Restore works by creating restore points, which can be generated automatically by Windows before critical system events, or manually by the user prior to significant changes. IT professionals rely on System Restore because it provides a non-destructive and efficient way to resolve software-related problems without affecting personal data. Proper configuration, including disk space allocation and awareness of which applications and drivers may be affected, ensures successful restoration. When combined with full backup strategies, System Restore contributes to a layered approach to system protection, helping prevent both data loss and prolonged downtime during system failures.
Question 30
Which wireless security protocol provides the strongest encryption for Wi-Fi networks currently?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, WPA3. WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security protocol, designed to provide robust protection for wireless networks. It addresses many of the vulnerabilities found in earlier protocols and offers enhanced encryption, making it significantly more secure against network eavesdropping and brute-force attacks. WPA3 introduces individualized data encryption, ensuring that even if one user’s data is compromised, other users on the same network remain protected. It also incorporates forward secrecy, which prevents attackers from decrypting past communications even if a password is later exposed, and provides stronger password-based authentication to resist guessing attacks.
Option A, WEP, is an outdated protocol that is highly vulnerable due to weak encryption algorithms and predictable key generation. It is no longer considered safe for modern networks. Option B, WPA, was an improvement over WEP, offering basic encryption, but it too is no longer recommended because it cannot adequately defend against contemporary attacks. Option C, WPA2, introduced stronger encryption using AES and became widely adopted, providing reliable security for many years. However, WPA2 is less resistant to advanced attacks such as offline password-guessing attacks, which WPA3 mitigates more effectively.
IT administrators must ensure that routers and access points are configured to use WPA3 whenever compatible devices are available. This maximizes wireless security and protects sensitive data transmitted over Wi-Fi. Beyond protocol configuration, security professionals implement additional measures such as strong, unique passwords, multi-factor authentication, and continuous network monitoring to further reduce the risk of unauthorized access. Understanding wireless encryption standards, potential network vulnerabilities, and best practices is essential for securing both enterprise and home networks. Adopting WPA3 is a critical step in modern wireless security, offering improved confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for connected devices.
Question 31
Which type of storage device uses non-volatile memory to store data and has no moving parts?
A) HDD
B) SSD
C) Optical Drive
D) Tape Drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Solid State Drives (SSDs) use non-volatile NAND flash memory to store data, offering significant performance advantages over traditional storage devices. Unlike Hard Disk Drives (HDDs), which rely on spinning magnetic platters and moving read/write heads, SSDs have no mechanical components. This lack of moving parts makes SSDs more resistant to physical shock, quieter, and more energy-efficient. The absence of mechanical latency allows for much faster read and write speeds, improving overall system responsiveness. Tasks such as booting the operating system, launching applications, and handling high-performance computing workloads benefit greatly from SSD deployment.
Option A, HDD, provides reliable storage but is slower due to the mechanical nature of spinning disks. Data access times are higher, and HDDs are more susceptible to physical damage from shocks or drops. Option C, optical drives, use laser technology to read and write data on CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. These drives are mainly used for media playback or archival purposes and do not match SSDs in speed or efficiency. Option D, tape drives, store data sequentially on magnetic tape, primarily for backup and long-term archival storage. Tape drives provide large capacity at a low cost per gigabyte but are far slower than SSDs for everyday access.
IT professionals must consider several factors when deploying SSDs. Storage capacity, endurance in terms of write cycles, interface type such as SATA or NVMe, and cost are critical for selecting the right SSD for a specific application. In enterprise environments, SSDs are often used alongside HDDs in hybrid storage solutions to achieve a balance between speed, capacity, and budget. Proper installation, regular firmware updates, and alignment of partitioning schemes help ensure optimal performance and prolong the lifespan of SSDs. Using SSDs effectively can transform system performance while maintaining reliability and efficiency.
Question 32
Which protocol is commonly used to send and receive email securely using encryption?
A) SMTP
B) IMAP
C) POP3
D) SMTPS/IMAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, SMTPS/IMAPS. These are the secure versions of standard email protocols, designed to encrypt data in transit and protect sensitive information such as login credentials, messages, and attachments from interception. SMTPS is the secure form of SMTP, which is used to send emails. While standard SMTP transmits messages in plaintext and is vulnerable to eavesdropping, SMTPS uses SSL/TLS encryption to ensure that outgoing emails remain confidential and tamper-proof. Similarly, IMAPS is the encrypted version of IMAP, which allows users to access and manage their email on a server. Without encryption, standard IMAP exposes user credentials and email content to potential attackers.
Option A, SMTP, is limited to sending emails and does not inherently provide encryption. Option B, IMAP, allows email access and synchronization across multiple devices, but only IMAPS secures the data. Option C, POP3, downloads emails to a local device, but without SSL/TLS encryption, both the messages and login information remain vulnerable during transmission.
Implementing SMTPS and IMAPS is crucial for corporate environments, cloud-based email services, and personal email accounts. IT professionals must configure email clients and servers with proper SSL/TLS certificates, use the correct ports, and apply secure authentication methods. Enforcing these protocols protects against phishing, unauthorized access, and data breaches, especially when handling sensitive business or personal information.
In addition to protocol configuration, organizations should establish security policies requiring encrypted email communication across all devices and networks. Regular auditing, monitoring, and adherence to compliance standards further strengthen email security, ensuring that sensitive data remains confidential and that communication integrity is maintained in both enterprise and personal contexts.
Question 33
Which type of attack floods a network or service with excessive traffic to render it unavailable?
A) Phishing
B) DoS
C) Man-in-the-Middle
D) Trojan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Denial of Service (DoS). A DoS attack is a type of cyberattack that overwhelms a target system, server, or network with excessive requests, causing significant slowdowns or complete unavailability of services. Attackers exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols, applications, or services to flood resources and prevent legitimate users from accessing them. A more advanced form, Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS), amplifies the attack by utilizing multiple compromised devices, often forming botnets, to generate massive traffic directed at the target, making mitigation more challenging.
Option A, Phishing, is a social engineering attack that tricks users into revealing sensitive information, such as login credentials or financial data, usually via email or fake websites. Option C, Man-in-the-Middle, intercepts communications between two parties, allowing attackers to eavesdrop, modify, or inject malicious content into data exchanges. Option D, Trojan, is malware disguised as legitimate software that grants unauthorized access or control to an attacker once installed. Unlike DoS attacks, these attacks focus on information theft or system compromise rather than service disruption.
Mitigation of DoS attacks requires multiple strategies. Firewalls, intrusion detection systems, rate limiting, and traffic analysis help identify and block malicious traffic. DDoS protection services can absorb or filter attack traffic, while network redundancy and failover mechanisms ensure continued service availability during an attack. IT administrators must continuously monitor network patterns to detect anomalies, respond proactively, and implement incident response plans.
Understanding the nature of DoS attacks, attack vectors, and defensive measures is essential for maintaining network reliability and resilience. Effective monitoring, layered defenses, and preparedness reduce downtime, protect resources, and ensure uninterrupted access for legitimate users, minimizing the impact of potential attacks.
Question 34
Which Windows feature provides sandboxed environments to run potentially unsafe applications?
A) Windows Defender
B) Hyper-V
C) Windows Sandbox
D) BitLocker
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Windows Sandbox. Windows Sandbox is a lightweight, isolated virtual environment within Windows that allows users to run applications safely without affecting the host operating system. Any changes, files, or programs executed within the sandbox are discarded once the environment is closed, ensuring that potential malware or untrusted applications cannot compromise the main system. This makes it an ideal solution for testing suspicious software, downloads, or scripts in a controlled, temporary setting.
Option A, Windows Defender, is primarily an antivirus and antimalware tool. While it provides real-time protection against known threats, it does not isolate or contain applications in a virtual environment. Option B, Hyper-V, is a full virtualization platform that allows users to create and manage virtual machines. Hyper-V is more complex, requires dedicated configuration, and is designed for persistent virtual machines rather than temporary, disposable testing environments. Option D, BitLocker, focuses on encrypting entire drives to protect data at rest, but it does not provide isolation or safe execution of applications.
Windows Sandbox enhances endpoint security by preventing system modifications and malware propagation. It leverages modern Windows features such as hardware virtualization and memory isolation to ensure a secure testing environment. IT professionals can use Windows Sandbox to safely evaluate new applications, patches, or scripts before deployment on production systems.
Understanding sandboxing is critical for maintaining a strong security posture. By isolating risky processes, it complements other security measures such as antivirus, firewalls, and system monitoring. Combining Windows Sandbox with these tools provides a layered defense approach, protecting the operating system from threats while allowing safe experimentation, software testing, and analysis of potentially malicious programs without risk to the main system.
Question 35
Which type of network cable is most resistant to electromagnetic interference and is commonly used for long-distance high-speed connections?
A) UTP
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber Optic
D) Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Fiber Optic. Fiber optic cables transmit data using light signals rather than electrical signals, which allows them to achieve extremely high speeds and maintain signal integrity over long distances. This technology is largely immune to electromagnetic interference, making it highly reliable in environments with heavy electrical noise. Fiber optics are commonly used in enterprise networks, data centers, and the internet backbone, where high bandwidth and minimal latency are critical. They support gigabit and even terabit-level data rates while minimizing signal degradation, ensuring consistent and fast data transmission across networks.
Option A, UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair), is widely used due to its low cost and flexibility, but it is more susceptible to electromagnetic interference and has limitations in speed and distance. Option B, Coaxial cables, offer moderate shielding and can carry signals over longer distances than UTP, but their bandwidth is lower, and they are less suitable for high-speed modern networks. Option D, STP (Shielded Twisted Pair), improves upon UTP with additional shielding to reduce interference, yet it still cannot match the speed, distance, or reliability of fiber optic cabling.
IT professionals must understand the differences between single-mode and multi-mode fiber, the types of connectors and transceivers used, and proper termination techniques to maintain performance. Regular testing with optical power meters and inspection of connectors is essential to ensure reliable communication. Fiber deployment also requires attention to physical protection, proper bend radius, and environmental conditions. Knowledge of cabling standards and best practices is critical for designing and maintaining robust network infrastructure, guaranteeing both high performance and long-term reliability.
Question 36
Which Windows tool is used to partition, format, and manage disks?
A) Disk Management
B) Device Manager
C) Task Manager
D) Event Viewer
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Disk Management. Disk Management is a built-in Windows utility that allows users and IT professionals to manage storage devices and partitions effectively. Using this tool, users can create, delete, format, and resize partitions, as well as assign or change drive letters. It also supports advanced features such as dynamic volumes, RAID configurations, and the use of both GPT (GUID Partition Table) and MBR (Master Boot Record) partition styles. This makes Disk Management essential for deploying new drives, optimizing storage, and troubleshooting disk-related issues while maintaining data integrity.
Option B, Device Manager, focuses on managing hardware devices, updating drivers, and resolving hardware conflicts. While it is important for overall system functionality, it does not provide the ability to partition or format drives. Option C, Task Manager, monitors system performance, running processes, and resource usage but does not handle storage management. Option D, Event Viewer, logs system events and errors to help diagnose problems but does not allow users to modify storage configurations.
When using Disk Management, IT professionals must carefully consider file system types such as NTFS, exFAT, or FAT32, allocation unit sizes, and backup strategies before making changes. Proper planning prevents accidental data loss and ensures compatibility with applications and operating systems. Understanding both the graphical interface and command-line tools like diskpart enhances flexibility, allowing administrators to perform complex tasks efficiently in professional environments.
Effective use of Disk Management ensures optimal storage utilization, reliability, and performance. By providing comprehensive control over partitions and volumes, it empowers IT professionals and advanced users to maintain system stability, deploy new storage devices, and adapt storage configurations to meet evolving needs while minimizing risks associated with disk management operations.
Question 37
Which mobile technology allows secure short-range wireless payments and data transfer?
A) NFC
B) Bluetooth
C) Wi-Fi
D) IR
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Near Field Communication (NFC). NFC is a short-range wireless communication technology that enables secure data exchange between devices typically within a few centimeters. It is widely used for mobile payments, access control, ticketing, and quick data transfer. The close proximity required for NFC interactions helps enhance security, reducing the risk of unauthorized interception during transmission. NFC-enabled devices often incorporate encryption protocols and secure elements, such as embedded chips, to protect sensitive information during transactions. Mobile payment platforms, such as contactless credit and debit card systems, rely on NFC’s design to enable fast, low-power, and secure transactions.
Option B, Bluetooth, allows wireless communication over longer distances and is suited for peripherals, audio devices, and data transfer. However, its longer range makes it less optimal for highly secure, instant payment applications where close physical proximity is desirable. Option C, Wi-Fi, provides connectivity over significantly longer distances and is primarily used for network and internet access rather than secure device-to-device payment transactions. Option D, IR (Infrared), is an older technology limited to line-of-sight communication and short-range data transfer, making it impractical for modern mobile applications.
IT professionals configuring mobile devices with NFC must ensure proper security measures, such as enabling device authentication, monitoring transaction applications, and enforcing policies for safe usage. NFC also simplifies device pairing and data transfer with minimal setup, which increases user convenience and efficiency. Awareness of potential vulnerabilities, including relay attacks and eavesdropping, and proper secure configuration are critical for safely deploying NFC in consumer and enterprise environments. NFC’s combination of security, speed, and proximity control makes it a versatile and reliable technology for modern mobile ecosystems.
Question 38
Which Windows command-line tool is used to display network configuration and connectivity information?
A) ipconfig
B) netstat
C) tracert
D) nslookup
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, ipconfig. The ipconfig command is a built-in Windows utility that provides detailed information about the configuration of network interfaces on a computer. It displays IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other critical network parameters. This information is essential for diagnosing connectivity problems, verifying network configurations, and managing IP addressing. For example, IT professionals can use ipconfig to identify misconfigured network settings or confirm successful assignment of IP addresses by DHCP servers. Additionally, ipconfig supports commands such as ipconfig /renew and ipconfig /release, which allow administrators to refresh or release DHCP leases, helping resolve issues related to IP conflicts or connectivity interruptions.
Option B, netstat, is used to monitor active connections, open ports, and listening services on a device. While valuable for network monitoring and security troubleshooting, it does not provide configuration details of network interfaces. Option C, tracert, traces the path packets take from a local system to a remote destination, helping identify network bottlenecks or routing issues, but it does not reveal local interface settings. Option D, nslookup, queries Domain Name System (DNS) servers for information about domain names and IP addresses, which is important for DNS troubleshooting but not for viewing interface configurations.
Using ipconfig in combination with tools like ping, tracert, and nslookup allows IT professionals to comprehensively troubleshoot local and remote network issues. Knowledge of network addressing, subnetting, adapter settings, multiple interfaces, and VPN configurations further enhances troubleshooting efficiency. By understanding and effectively using ipconfig, administrators can ensure accurate diagnostics, maintain proper network configuration, and quickly resolve connectivity issues in both enterprise and home network environments.
Question 39
Which backup type copies only files that have changed since the last full backup?
A) Full Backup
B) Incremental Backup
C) Differential Backup
D) Mirror Backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incremental backup captures only files modified since the last full or incremental backup, saving storage space and reducing backup time. Option A, Full Backup, copies all selected data regardless of changes. Option C, Differential Backup, copies all changes since the last full backup, growing in size over time. Option D, Mirror Backup, creates a direct copy of all selected files, often overwriting deletions. Incremental backups are critical for businesses and IT professionals needing frequent, efficient backups without consuming excessive resources. They are typically combined with periodic full backups to maintain comprehensive recovery capabilities. Understanding retention policies, backup schedules, and storage locations ensures effective disaster recovery planning. Properly configured incremental backups minimize downtime and provide a reliable data restoration strategy in case of hardware failure, accidental deletion, or cyberattacks. Backup management tools often automate incremental processes while monitoring for errors, optimizing storage, and ensuring compliance with organizational policies.
Question 40
Which feature in Windows encrypts entire drives to prevent unauthorized access if the system is stolen?
A) Windows Defender
B) BitLocker
C) Windows Firewall
D) Device Guard
Answer: B
Explanation:
BitLocker provides full-disk encryption in Windows, securing the entire drive and protecting data from unauthorized access if a device is lost or stolen. Option A, Windows Defender, offers antivirus and threat protection. Option C, Windows Firewall, filters network traffic. Option D, Device Guard, enforces application execution policies. BitLocker integrates with TPM chips for enhanced security and supports password, PIN, or recovery key mechanisms. IT administrators must manage encryption keys, recovery options, and group policies to ensure compliance and accessibility. Understanding BitLocker deployment, key management, and recovery procedures is essential in enterprise security planning. Proper configuration prevents unauthorized access while maintaining system performance and usability. BitLocker complements other security measures, including secure boot, authentication policies, and malware protection, creating a layered defense strategy. Awareness of potential threats and adherence to best practices ensure that sensitive data remains confidential even in the event of device theft or loss.
