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Question 121
Which of the following methods is the most secure way to protect sensitive files on a Windows workstation?
A) Encrypting the files using BitLocker
B) Storing the files in a shared network folder
C) Using a standard user account to access the files
D) Creating a local backup on an external drive
Answer: A
Explanation:
When safeguarding sensitive files on a Windows system, encrypting the data using BitLocker is the most effective and secure method. BitLocker relies on strong encryption standards, such as AES, to protect files by converting readable data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with the proper authentication key or password. Even if the physical device is stolen or accessed without authorization, the encrypted data remains inaccessible, ensuring a high level of confidentiality. BitLocker integrates with Windows security features, allowing encryption to be applied to individual files, specific folders, or entire drives. This makes it an ideal solution for both personal and enterprise environments where sensitive information must remain secure under all circumstances.
Storing files in a shared network folder does not provide adequate protection for sensitive information. While it offers convenience for collaboration and remote access, it also increases exposure to unauthorized users, network vulnerabilities, and potential cyberattacks. Without additional security measures such as permissions, access controls, and encryption, the data remains vulnerable.
Using a standard user account helps reduce risk by limiting administrative privileges, but it does not inherently protect sensitive files. If the standard account is compromised through phishing, malware, or weak passwords, an attacker could still access the files. Standard accounts restrict system changes but do not secure individual data assets.
Creating a local backup on an external drive preserves data in case of system failure, corruption, or accidental deletion. However, backups do not automatically protect files from unauthorized access. If the external drive is lost or stolen and the data is not encrypted, sensitive information can easily be accessed by anyone who obtains the device.
By implementing BitLocker encryption, sensitive files remain secure against both physical and digital threats. Pairing encryption with strong passwords, proper key management, and multifactor authentication further enhances protection. This makes BitLocker the most effective choice among the listed options for securing sensitive files.
Question 122
A user reports that their laptop randomly shuts down even when the battery shows 50% charge. Which is the most probable cause?
A) Corrupted operating system files
B) Failing battery or battery calibration issue
C) Malware infection causing CPU spikes
D) Faulty display driver
Answer: B
Explanation:
Random shutdowns that occur even when the battery indicator shows a significant amount of charge are most commonly linked to a failing battery or a battery calibration issue. Over time, laptop batteries naturally degrade due to chemical wear. As the cells lose capacity, the system may incorrectly interpret how much usable charge remains. This leads to situations where the battery appears to have enough power, yet voltage drops abruptly, causing the laptop to shut down without warning. Calibration problems can also cause the system to read battery levels inaccurately. Recalibrating the battery by fully charging it, then allowing it to drain completely before recharging, helps the system learn the true capacity. If recalibration fails to resolve the issue, the battery is likely failing and must be replaced to restore reliable operation.
Corrupted operating system files can cause a range of issues, such as application crashes, slow performance, or difficulty booting into Windows. However, corrupted OS files rarely result in sudden, complete power loss. System instability caused by file corruption typically presents as freezes, blue screen errors, or malfunctioning system services rather than abrupt shutdowns.
Malware infections can cause high CPU usage, system lag, overheating, or application failures. While extreme CPU spikes could potentially trigger thermal protection shutdowns, this is not the typical symptom. Sudden power loss without warning is much more consistent with battery failure or power delivery interruptions than with malware activity, which generally produces performance-related symptoms.
A faulty display driver usually causes visual issues such as flickering, artifacts, resolution problems, or black screens. Although severe driver failures might crash the operating system, they do not directly cut power to the device. Display-related issues affect graphics output, not overall system power stability.
Because unexpected shutdowns are a strong indicator of power-related faults, technicians should start by checking battery health through built-in diagnostics or manufacturer tools. Inspecting power circuitry, connectors, and the charging system helps ensure that inconsistent power delivery is not contributing to the problem.
Question 123
Which network troubleshooting command displays the routing table and active network interfaces on a Windows computer?
A) ipconfig
B) netstat
C) tracert
D) route print
Answer: D
Explanation:
The route print command in Windows is an essential tool for understanding how a computer directs network traffic. While several networking commands offer valuable insights, route print stands out by providing a complete view of the routing table, which determines the paths packets take to reach their destinations. Unlike ipconfig, which focuses on displaying IP addresses, subnet masks, and default gateways, route print reveals the deeper structure of how the operating system handles routing decisions. This includes details such as network destinations, associated subnet masks, gateway addresses, and interface metrics.
Netstat, another commonly used command, is helpful for examining active connections, open ports, and various network statistics. However, it does not show the routing paths or decision-making logic used when forwarding packets. Similarly, tracert is designed to trace the route packets follow to a specific destination and identify delays or failures along the way. While tracert is effective for diagnosing hop-by-hop behavior, it still cannot replace the comprehensive overview provided by route print.
By running route print, technicians can detect misconfigured or missing routes that might prevent communication between networks or external destinations. This level of visibility is particularly important in systems equipped with multiple network interface cards, virtual LANs, or VPN connections, where routing behavior can become complex. The information provided allows IT professionals to evaluate interface priority through metrics, analyze persistent routes, and identify conflicts that may disrupt connectivity.
In practical troubleshooting, route print is often used alongside tools such as ping and tracert to build a complete picture of network behavior. For example, if a device cannot reach a specific subnet, examining the routing table can reveal whether the system is sending traffic through the correct gateway. This makes route print a valuable command for anyone preparing for CompTIA A+ certification, as it reinforces a foundational understanding of how Windows handles network routing and connectivity.
Question 124
A user cannot print to a network printer but other users can. Which is the most likely cause?
A) Printer spooler service is stopped on the user’s PC
B) Printer is out of toner
C) Network cable is unplugged on the printer
D) Printer drivers are outdated
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a single user cannot print while everyone else can, the most likely cause is a stopped or malfunctioning printer spooler service on that user’s computer. The spooler service is responsible for managing print jobs and sending them in the correct order to the designated printer. If this service stops running or becomes corrupted, the user’s print commands are unable to leave the local system, even though the printer itself is fully operational and available to other users. This makes the issue localized to one workstation rather than a network-wide problem.
A printer running out of toner would not selectively affect only one user. Instead, it would cause print failures or faded output for every person attempting to print. This helps eliminate toner as a cause when complaints come from only one workstation. Similarly, an unplugged network cable on the printer would prevent all users from reaching the device. When the printer becomes unreachable, it disappears from the network entirely, resulting in broad printing failures rather than a single isolated incident.
Outdated printer drivers could cause printing issues but generally impact multiple functions or users. Modern Windows systems usually provide generic printer drivers automatically, which minimizes the likelihood that only one user is affected. While driver conflicts can occur, they are less common than spooler-related failures, and outdated drivers tend to produce consistent error messages rather than intermittent or isolated symptoms.
Troubleshooting begins by checking the printer spooler service in services.msc and restarting it if necessary. Rebooting the workstation can also refresh the service. In some cases, print queues become corrupted and must be cleared manually to restore normal function. If the issue persists, removing and reinstalling the printer may help reestablish proper communication. Examining Event Viewer print logs can provide additional insight into recurring spooler errors. Understanding how software and service layers contribute to printing problems is essential for CompTIA A+ candidates working with user-level printing issues.
Question 125
Which Windows utility allows a technician to manage disk partitions and volumes?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) Disk Management
C) Device Manager
D) Event Viewer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disk Management is the built-in Windows utility specifically designed for handling storage-related tasks such as creating, deleting, formatting, and resizing partitions and volumes. It provides administrators and users with the ability to organize storage efficiently, assign or change drive letters, and convert disks between basic and dynamic types. This makes it an essential tool for managing both internal and external drives, as well as preparing new storage devices for use. Disk Management also allows extending or shrinking partitions without losing existing data, assigning mount points, and initializing new disks, which is critical in both personal and enterprise environments.
Disk Cleanup, on the other hand, is focused on freeing up storage space by removing temporary files, system caches, and unnecessary data. While it helps maintain disk health and improve performance, it does not provide capabilities for managing partitions or volumes. Device Manager serves a different purpose entirely, managing hardware devices, drivers, and peripheral resources. Although it can be used to troubleshoot storage controllers or detect new drives, it does not allow partitioning, formatting, or resizing of volumes. Event Viewer records system, application, and security events, assisting in diagnostics and troubleshooting system issues. However, it does not offer functionality for directly managing disk partitions or file systems.
Using Disk Management, IT professionals can handle scenarios like adding secondary drives, setting up dual-boot systems, or resolving issues with corrupted volumes. Understanding the distinctions between disk types, such as MBR and GPT, as well as file systems like NTFS and exFAT, is crucial when configuring storage. In enterprise settings, Disk Management works alongside command-line tools such as diskpart, providing both graphical and script-based approaches to disk administration. Mastery of this utility is a core skill for CompTIA A+ candidates, as effective storage management and partitioning are commonly tested topics on the exam.
Question 126
A user reports that their smartphone battery drains rapidly even when idle. Which is the first troubleshooting step?
A) Replace the battery immediately
B) Check for rogue apps consuming background resources
C) Update the OS firmware
D) Perform a factory reset
Answer: B
Explanation:
Excessive battery drain on a smartphone is frequently caused by applications running in the background rather than a failing battery or hardware malfunction. Modern mobile operating systems allow apps to refresh content, sync data, access location services, and maintain active network connections. When these processes run continuously, they consume significant power even when the device appears idle. Because of this, the first and most logical troubleshooting step is to examine which apps are using the most battery. Both Android and iOS include detailed battery usage metrics that show energy consumption per application, making it easy to identify rogue or poorly optimized apps. Disabling background activity, restricting permissions, or uninstalling unnecessary apps often restores normal battery performance.
Replacing the battery should not be the immediate response, as battery hardware issues are less common than software inefficiencies. Modern lithium-ion batteries are designed to last many charge cycles, and premature replacement adds unnecessary cost. Likewise, updating the operating system firmware can improve overall power management, but firmware updates are best performed after verifying that no specific app is causing the problem. Firmware updates may introduce new features or fixes, but they do not typically address isolated background app behavior.
A factory reset is the most drastic option and should be considered only after all other troubleshooting steps have failed. Resetting the device removes all user data and restores the device to its original state, which is excessive when the issue often stems from one or two misbehaving applications. Before resorting to this measure, users should also review settings such as screen brightness, Bluetooth, Wi-Fi scanning, push notifications, and GPS access, as each of these can significantly influence battery life when left unchecked.
Understanding how background processes, permissions, and system services impact battery performance is essential for CompTIA A+ Core 2 candidates, as mobile device optimization is a frequent troubleshooting scenario.
Question 127
Which of the following Windows features allows a user to restore a system to a previous state without affecting personal files?
A) System Restore
B) Reset This PC
C) File History
D) Disk Cleanup
Answer: A
Explanation:
System Restore is a Windows feature specifically designed to revert system files, installed applications, and registry settings to an earlier, stable state. It is especially useful when a system becomes unstable due to misconfigured settings, problematic drivers, or failed software installations. Because System Restore does not affect personal documents, photos, or other user data, it provides a safe and efficient recovery method that preserves important files while restoring system functionality. Restore points are created automatically during major system events, such as driver installations or Windows updates, and users can also generate them manually before making significant changes.
Reset This PC offers a more intrusive form of recovery. Although it provides the option to keep personal files, it essentially reinstalls Windows, requiring users to reinstall applications and reconfigure system settings. This process is more time-consuming and should be reserved for situations where System Restore is unavailable or ineffective. It is typically used for severe corruption issues, malware infections, or when the system cannot boot properly.
File History serves a completely different purpose, functioning as a file-level backup solution. It continuously saves versions of files stored in user libraries, allowing users to restore individual documents but not system configurations, installed applications, or registry data. While essential for data protection, it does not assist with system instability caused by software or configuration changes.
Disk Cleanup focuses on freeing storage space by removing temporary files, cached data, and other unnecessary items. Although it can improve system performance and reclaim disk space, it does not revert system changes or correct configuration issues.
For troubleshooting, System Restore provides a fast and targeted way to recover system stability. Technicians must know how to launch the utility from Windows settings, the Recovery Environment, or advanced startup menus. Understanding how to choose appropriate restore points, interpret which applications and drivers will be affected, and verify successful restoration is important for CompTIA A+ Core 2 candidates who need practical system recovery skills.
Question 128
A technician needs to configure a laptop to boot from a USB drive. Which firmware setting should they modify?
A) Secure Boot
B) Virtualization Technology
C) Boot Order/Priority
D) Hyper-Threading
Answer: C
Explanation:
To boot a laptop from an external USB drive, the primary setting that needs adjustment is the boot order or boot priority in the system firmware, either BIOS or UEFI. Boot order determines the sequence of devices that the system checks when starting up. By default, most systems prioritize the internal hard drive or SSD, meaning an external USB device may not be recognized as a bootable option unless its position in the sequence is raised. Changing the boot priority ensures that the computer attempts to boot from the USB drive before the internal storage device, which is essential for installing a new operating system, running live environments, or performing recovery tasks.
Secure Boot is a security feature designed to prevent unauthorized or unsigned operating systems from loading during the startup process. While it can interfere with booting from certain USB drives, particularly those that contain unsigned OS loaders, it does not determine which device the system tries first. Secure Boot may need to be temporarily disabled if the USB contains an unsupported or unsigned OS, but adjusting boot priority remains the core action required to boot from external media.
Virtualization Technology is a BIOS/UEFI feature that allows the CPU to run virtual machines more efficiently by supporting hardware-assisted virtualization. This setting has no impact on which devices the system will boot from. It only affects the ability to run virtual environments within an operating system after the system has started. Hyper-Threading, similarly, is a CPU feature that improves processing efficiency by allowing multiple threads to run simultaneously on each physical core. It affects performance and multitasking but does not influence boot device selection.
Correctly configuring the boot order is fundamental for tasks such as operating system installation, recovery operations, and troubleshooting startup issues. Understanding the distinction between features like Secure Boot, Virtualization Technology, and Hyper-Threading versus boot priority helps ensure that technicians and CompTIA A+ candidates can quickly and effectively manage startup configurations and successfully boot from external media when necessary.
Question 129
Which of the following is the best method to prevent unauthorized access to a company Wi-Fi network?
A) Enable WEP encryption
B) Disable SSID broadcasting
C) Use WPA3 with a strong passphrase
D) Connect using MAC address filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most effective way to prevent unauthorized access to a Wi-Fi network is to use WPA3 encryption combined with a strong passphrase. WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security standard and provides significantly stronger protection compared to older protocols. It includes features such as enhanced encryption algorithms and individualized data encryption for each connected device, reducing the risk of eavesdropping and attacks like dictionary or brute-force attempts. A strong, complex passphrase further strengthens the network, making it difficult for attackers to guess the credentials.
WEP, or Wired Equivalent Privacy, is an outdated security protocol that is highly vulnerable to attacks. Modern tools can break WEP encryption in a matter of minutes, making it unsuitable for securing any contemporary network. While it may still be found in very old devices, relying on WEP exposes networks to significant security risks.
Disabling SSID broadcasting hides the network name from casual users, but it does not provide real security. Even when a network is hidden, skilled attackers can detect its presence using network scanning tools. Hiding the SSID only adds minimal obscurity and should never be considered a replacement for strong encryption and authentication.
MAC address filtering allows administrators to specify which devices can connect to a network based on their hardware addresses. While this can limit access to known devices, MAC addresses can be easily spoofed by attackers, allowing them to bypass the restriction. Therefore, MAC filtering is best used as a supplementary measure rather than a primary security method.
For strong Wi-Fi security, IT professionals should rely on WPA3 encryption, enforce robust passphrases, and keep network hardware updated with the latest firmware. Additional measures like monitoring network activity, segmenting guest networks, and combining multiple security layers enhance protection. Understanding the differences between WEP, SSID hiding, MAC filtering, and WPA3 is essential for CompTIA A+ Core 2 candidates, as securing wireless networks is a common scenario in the exam and in real-world IT environments.
Question 130
A desktop PC emits continuous beeps during POST. Which component is most likely failing?
A) RAM module
B) CPU
C) Power supply
D) Hard drive
Answer: A
Explanation:
Continuous beeping during the Power-On Self Test (POST) is a strong indicator of a problem with the system’s RAM. During POST, the motherboard performs hardware diagnostics to ensure all critical components are functioning correctly before handing control to the operating system. If the RAM is faulty, missing, or improperly seated, the motherboard cannot complete the memory test and signals the issue using beep codes. These codes vary by BIOS manufacturer, but continuous or repeated beeping generally points to memory failure.
CPU failure usually presents differently. In many systems, a completely failed CPU may prevent the computer from powering on at all or result in a single long beep followed by silence. This occurs because the CPU is essential for executing the POST routine itself, so without a functioning processor, the motherboard cannot progress through standard diagnostics. Therefore, continuous beeping is less likely to indicate a CPU issue.
Power supply problems often cause startup issues such as random shutdowns, failure to power on, or intermittent booting. While a failing power supply can prevent the system from functioning properly, it rarely produces consistent beep codes during POST. The beeps are specifically designed to communicate motherboard-detected hardware failures, not power delivery inconsistencies.
Hard drives also do not generate beep codes during POST. Storage devices are tested later in the boot process when the operating system begins loading. Issues with a hard drive typically manifest as error messages related to disk failure, missing operating system, or unreadable partitions, but they do not trigger the motherboard’s POST beeps.
Troubleshooting memory-related POST errors begins with reseating RAM modules to ensure proper connection. Testing individual sticks in different slots can help identify a faulty module. If reseating does not resolve the problem, replacing the defective RAM is usually necessary. Consulting the motherboard’s documentation is critical, as different BIOS manufacturers have unique beep code patterns. Understanding POST codes and how they relate to hardware components is a foundational skill for CompTIA A+ candidates performing memory diagnostics and general hardware troubleshooting.
Question 131
A user reports that their Windows workstation is running slowly and programs frequently freeze. Which tool should the technician use first to identify resource usage?
A) Event Viewer
B) Task Manager
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a workstation experiences slow performance or programs begin freezing, the first step in troubleshooting is to check real-time resource usage with Task Manager. Task Manager provides an immediate view of CPU, memory, disk, and network utilization, which allows technicians to quickly identify processes that are consuming excessive resources. By monitoring these metrics, it becomes possible to determine whether performance issues are caused by high CPU usage, insufficient RAM, disk bottlenecks, or network congestion. The Performance tab and resource graphs offer a detailed visualization of how system resources are being used over time, helping to pinpoint memory leaks, runaway applications, or background processes that may degrade system performance.
Event Viewer, while important for diagnosing system, application, and security issues, does not provide real-time performance metrics. It logs past events and errors, which can help identify the cause of system crashes or application errors, but it cannot show current CPU or memory usage that is actively affecting system responsiveness. Disk Cleanup is useful for freeing storage space by removing temporary files, cached data, and other unnecessary items, but it does not provide insight into which applications or processes are currently overloading system resources. Device Manager shows hardware status, driver problems, and peripheral issues, but it does not display real-time resource consumption or indicate which applications are responsible for performance bottlenecks.
Using Task Manager, IT professionals can also take immediate action to improve performance, such as ending unresponsive processes or applications. By systematically analyzing which resources are under stress, they can prioritize solutions including adding RAM, optimizing startup programs, or reinstalling software that is misbehaving. Understanding Task Manager’s capabilities is critical for CompTIA A+ candidates, as it is one of the most practical and frequently used tools for troubleshooting slow workstations, diagnosing performance issues, and maintaining system stability in real-world IT environments.
Question 132
A technician wants to prevent unauthorized physical access to a server room. Which method is most effective?
A) Locking the server room with a keyed door
B) Installing surveillance cameras
C) Implementing biometric access controls
D) Posting warning signs outside the server room
Answer: C
Explanation:
Biometric access controls, such as fingerprint scanners, retina scans, or facial recognition systems, provide the most secure method for preventing unauthorized physical access to a server room. Unlike traditional security measures, biometrics verify an individual’s identity based on unique physiological characteristics, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter. This method also allows for detailed access logs, which can track who entered and when, providing accountability and traceability in case of security incidents. By directly tying access to a verified individual, biometric controls minimize the risk of unauthorized entry due to lost, stolen, or duplicated credentials.
Locking a server room with a keyed door offers a basic level of physical security but has significant limitations. Keys can be copied, lost, or stolen, and anyone with a duplicated key can gain entry without detection. While keyed doors can restrict casual access, they do not provide identity verification and cannot track individual usage, making them less secure than biometric systems.
Surveillance cameras serve a monitoring function by recording activity inside or near the server room. While cameras can help detect and investigate breaches after they occur, they do not physically prevent unauthorized access. Intruders can potentially bypass camera coverage or enter undetected if cameras are not actively monitored, so cameras should be considered a supplemental security measure rather than a primary control.
Posting warning signs outside the server room can act as a psychological deterrent, signaling that access is restricted and monitored. However, signs alone cannot enforce access control or prevent determined intruders from entering. They are most effective when used in combination with physical or electronic security measures to reinforce policies and guidelines.
Implementing biometric access control integrates both physical restriction and identity verification, creating a robust layer of security for server rooms containing sensitive data or critical infrastructure. Understanding the hierarchy and effectiveness of various physical security measures is essential for CompTIA A+ candidates, as physical security is a foundational component of overall IT security practices.
Question 133
Which mobile device feature allows a user to wipe all data remotely in case the device is lost or stolen?
A) Airplane Mode
B) Remote Wipe
C) VPN
D) Two-factor Authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Remote Wipe is a critical security feature designed to protect sensitive information on mobile devices in the event they are lost or stolen. By issuing a Remote Wipe command, either through mobile device management (MDM) software or cloud-based services, all data stored on the device—including emails, documents, photos, and application data—can be completely erased. This prevents unauthorized users from accessing corporate or personal information, ensuring compliance with security policies and reducing the risk of data breaches.
Airplane Mode, while useful for disabling wireless communications such as Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth, does not remove any data from the device. Its primary purpose is to prevent transmissions and conserve battery, but it offers no protection if the device falls into the wrong hands. VPNs, or Virtual Private Networks, secure data transmissions over networks by encrypting traffic and masking the device’s IP address. While VPNs protect data in transit and provide privacy during network access, they do not delete or safeguard the stored data on the device itself if it is lost or stolen.
Two-factor authentication adds a layer of security to user logins by requiring a second form of verification, such as a code sent to another device, in addition to a password. This protects accounts from unauthorized access but does not address the risk posed by someone physically holding the device with unencrypted or accessible data.
Remote Wipe bridges this gap by allowing IT administrators or users to remotely erase a device, rendering it unusable to anyone without proper authorization. This capability is especially important in enterprise environments where mobile devices often store sensitive corporate emails, client information, and proprietary documents. Technicians must ensure devices are enrolled in MDM systems, synchronized regularly, and that users understand how to activate Remote Wipe when necessary. Knowledge of device-level security features, including Remote Wipe, is essential for CompTIA A+ Core 2 candidates, as protecting mobile devices is a key aspect of modern IT security and mobile device management practices.
Question 134
A user is unable to access websites but can ping external IP addresses. Which issue is most likely?
A) DNS server misconfiguration
B) Failed network cable
C) Proxy server offline
D) Wireless signal interference
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a user can ping external IP addresses but cannot access websites, the issue is typically a DNS server misconfiguration. DNS (Domain Name System) translates domain names into IP addresses, allowing web browsers to locate and connect to websites. If DNS settings are incorrect or the server is unavailable, the system cannot resolve domain names, even though the network connection itself functions correctly. A failed network cable would prevent all connectivity, not just name resolution. A proxy server offline might affect traffic if configured, but local DNS misconfiguration is more common. Wireless signal interference can reduce performance or connectivity but would not allow successful pinging of IP addresses while blocking website access. Troubleshooting involves checking DNS settings, using commands like nslookup or ipconfig /all, and potentially switching to a known public DNS server to isolate the issue. Understanding the distinction between IP-level connectivity and DNS resolution is critical for CompTIA A+ candidates, as it demonstrates practical knowledge of networking fundamentals and end-user troubleshooting processes.
Question 135
Which type of storage device is the fastest for random read and write operations in modern PCs?
A) HDD
B) SSD
C) Optical drive
D) USB flash drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Solid State Drives (SSDs) are the fastest storage devices for random read and write operations due to the absence of moving mechanical parts and the use of NAND flash memory. Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) rely on spinning platters and read/write heads, which introduce latency and slower access times. Optical drives, such as CD/DVD drives, are significantly slower and primarily used for legacy media access. USB flash drives provide portable storage but are usually limited by USB interface speeds and controller efficiency. SSDs offer high IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second), low latency, and improved reliability over HDDs. They are particularly beneficial for operating systems, frequently used applications, and tasks involving large numbers of small file transactions. Modern PCs often utilize NVMe SSDs, which use the PCIe interface for even higher throughput compared to SATA SSDs. CompTIA A+ candidates should understand the advantages of SSDs, their role in system performance, and the practical differences between storage types for troubleshooting and system optimization.
Question 136
Which Windows utility can be used to verify system files and repair corrupted system components?
A) sfc /scannow
B) chkdsk
C) defrag
D) msconfig
Answer: A
Explanation:
The sfc /scannow command is a Windows utility that scans for corrupted or missing system files and attempts to repair them using cached copies stored in protected system folders. chkdsk checks disk integrity and repairs file system errors but does not replace system files. defrag optimizes storage layout to improve disk performance and does not address system file integrity. msconfig manages startup processes and boot configurations but is unrelated to file repair. Using sfc /scannow is a crucial step in resolving stability issues, application crashes, and unexpected system behavior caused by damaged Windows files. It can be run from a standard Windows session or advanced recovery environments if the system fails to boot properly. Understanding the proper usage of sfc /scannow and interpreting its results is essential for CompTIA A+ candidates, as file integrity verification and repair is a common troubleshooting step in system maintenance and repair scenarios.
Question 137
A technician notices that a Windows laptop is extremely hot and the fan is constantly running at high speed. Which is the most probable cause?
A) Faulty power adapter
B) Overheating due to dust buildup
C) Malicious software
D) Outdated BIOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Excessive heat and high fan activity in a laptop is most commonly caused by overheating due to dust buildup or blocked airflow. Dust accumulation on cooling fins, vents, and fans reduces heat dissipation, forcing the system to increase fan speeds to maintain safe operating temperatures. A faulty power adapter could affect charging but does not directly cause thermal issues. Malicious software may increase CPU usage but generally does not create extreme heat unless combined with heavy processing. Outdated BIOS may impact power management efficiency but is not a primary cause of overheating. Preventive maintenance, such as cleaning vents, fans, and heatsinks, is essential to maintain optimal thermal performance. Laptops also need thermal paste reapplied to the CPU or GPU over time to ensure efficient heat transfer. Monitoring tools can display CPU and GPU temperatures, fan speeds, and power consumption to confirm overheating. CompTIA A+ candidates must understand thermal management, cooling mechanisms, and preventive maintenance practices to troubleshoot hardware effectively and prevent system damage.
Question 138
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a UPS in an office environment?
A) Provide surge protection
B) Prevent data loss during power outages
C) Reduce internet latency
D) Increase Wi-Fi signal strength
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary purpose of an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is to provide temporary power during outages, preventing sudden shutdowns and potential data loss. While UPS units often include surge protection, their core function is to supply electricity long enough to save work and safely shut down devices. Reducing internet latency or increasing Wi-Fi signal strength is unrelated to UPS functionality. UPS devices can vary in capacity and runtime, from small units supporting a single workstation to large models sustaining entire server rooms. They protect sensitive electronics from power fluctuations, brownouts, and sudden loss of electricity, maintaining operational stability. Regular maintenance, battery replacement, and monitoring are necessary to ensure reliable performance. CompTIA A+ candidates should understand the distinction between surge protectors, power conditioners, and UPS systems, as proper power management is critical for hardware longevity, data integrity, and disaster recovery planning in both personal and enterprise IT environments.
Question 139
A user wants to share a large file with colleagues quickly. Which method provides the fastest transfer on a local network?
A) Sending via email
B) Using a USB flash drive
C) Transferring via a mapped network drive
D) Uploading to a cloud service
Answer: C
Explanation:
Transferring a large file via a mapped network drive provides the fastest method for sharing files on a local network. Local network transfers bypass internet bandwidth limitations and cloud service latency, making direct LAN transfer highly efficient. Sending via email is restricted by attachment size limits and is dependent on internet speed. USB flash drives require physical handoff and additional steps, which may not be practical for multiple recipients. Cloud services involve uploading and downloading through the internet, introducing delays and dependency on network bandwidth. Network drive transfers leverage high-speed LAN connections, often gigabit Ethernet or faster, allowing immediate access for multiple users. IT professionals should also consider permissions and file access policies to ensure security. Understanding local file sharing methods, network infrastructure, and speed optimization is crucial for CompTIA A+ candidates preparing for troubleshooting and deployment scenarios in office environments.
Question 140
A user complains that their printer prints garbled characters instead of readable text. Which is the most likely cause?
A) Incorrect printer driver
B) Low toner
C) Paper jam
D) Printer offline
Answer: A
Explanation:
Garbled or unreadable print output is typically caused by an incorrect or corrupt printer driver. The driver translates the computer’s print commands into a language the printer understands. If the driver is incompatible, outdated, or corrupt, the printer may produce random characters, missing symbols, or distorted formatting. Low toner might cause faint printing, but it does not create garbled text. Paper jams can prevent printing or cause misfeeds but do not affect character encoding. Printer offline status stops all print jobs but does not change the output format. The solution involves updating the driver to the manufacturer’s recommended version or reinstalling it completely. Ensuring that the correct printer model and driver type (32-bit vs 64-bit) are used is also essential. This issue demonstrates the importance of drivers as an intermediary between hardware and software, a key concept for CompTIA A+ candidates. Proper driver management ensures reliable printing, system stability, and accurate troubleshooting of peripheral devices.
