Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 18
Question 170
A service processes confidential data in memory and its encrypted storage is compliant. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check database encryption settings without exercising a controlled memory-access scenario
Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data
Inspect HTTPS traffic while overlooking the workload's in-memory exposure
Review user-facing masking without testing privileged process-memory access boundaries
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Check database encryption settings without exercising a controlled memory-access scenario” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”, reflecting the requirement that at-rest encryption does not protect data while in use.
C:
“Inspect HTTPS traffic while overlooking the workload's in-memory exposure” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”, reflecting the requirement that at-rest encryption does not protect data while in use.
D:
“Review user-facing masking without testing privileged process-memory access boundaries” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Assess runtime exposure controls such as memory isolation and privileged access” works. At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. The decisive test is “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”.
Question 171
A finance team sends regulated files through unauthorized cloud-sharing sites. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Encrypt the regulated file before upload and rely on employees to pick only approved destinations
Block one known public sharing URL while leaving equivalent unapproved upload paths unchecked
Apply DLP and approved channel controls based on data sensitivity
Send staff a reminder against cloud sharing but keep every personal file-transfer site allowed
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Encrypt the regulated file before upload and rely on employees to pick only approved destinations” leaves the essential control missing: DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. The direct corrective action is “Apply DLP and approved channel controls based on data sensitivity”, validated by the acceptance check “Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking”.
B:
“Block one known public sharing URL while leaving equivalent unapproved upload paths unchecked” would not establish the protection described: DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. The necessary change is “Apply DLP and approved channel controls based on data sensitivity” with the verification “Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking”.
D:
“Send staff a reminder against cloud sharing but keep every personal file-transfer site allowed” would not establish the protection described: DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. The necessary change is “Apply DLP and approved channel controls based on data sensitivity” with the verification “Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking”.
Question 172
A finance team sends regulated files through unauthorized cloud-sharing sites. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review one blocked URL rule while an alternative unsanctioned cloud upload still succeeds
Confirm that employees acknowledged a data-sharing policy without a synthetic prohibited upload
Check data encryption at rest without testing outgoing restricted file movement
Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Review one blocked URL rule while an alternative unsanctioned cloud upload still succeeds” would not verify the relevant control. DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking” because DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. “Confirm that employees acknowledged a data-sharing policy without a synthetic prohibited upload” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Check data encryption at rest without testing outgoing restricted file movement” would not verify the relevant control. DLP addresses data movement rather than only user identity. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Run a synthetic upload and verify detection or blocking”.
Question 173
A distributed workforce accesses multiple SaaS services without usage visibility. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Evaluate CASB-style governance and enforce sanctioned application policies
Deploy endpoint antivirus alone and assume it identifies every unsanctioned SaaS subscription
Require workers to self-report cloud use without any discovered usage or policy enforcement
Approve each SaaS service based on its public landing page while ignoring workforce access patterns
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Deploy endpoint antivirus alone and assume it identifies every unsanctioned SaaS subscription” is not the relevant mitigation. Cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. The scenario calls for “Evaluate CASB-style governance and enforce sanctioned application policies”; the acceptance check is “Compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory”.
C:
The proposal “Require workers to self-report cloud use without any discovered usage or policy enforcement” does not meet the relevant requirement because cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. The matching remediation is “Evaluate CASB-style governance and enforce sanctioned application policies”.
D:
“Approve each SaaS service based on its public landing page while ignoring workforce access patterns” is not the relevant mitigation. Cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. The scenario calls for “Evaluate CASB-style governance and enforce sanctioned application policies”; the acceptance check is “Compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory”.
Question 174
A distributed workforce accesses multiple SaaS services without usage visibility. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review the official application list without comparing observed cloud traffic to it
Compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory
Inspect vendor attestations but not whether employees are using unapproved tenants
Count endpoint antivirus installations instead of reconciling actual SaaS service use
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. The proposed check, “Review the official application list without comparing observed cloud traffic to it”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption. The proposed check, “Inspect vendor attestations but not whether employees are using unapproved tenants”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Count endpoint antivirus installations instead of reconciling actual SaaS service use” does not show the required outcome: compare discovered SaaS use to approved application inventory. That test matters because cloud access visibility differs from endpoint encryption.
Question 175
Documents must remain viewable but not exportable to unmanaged devices. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require TLS to the document service while permitting unrestricted offline replicas
Require MFA for viewing documents but permit full local downloads onto unmanaged devices
Apply context-sensitive rights management and download restrictions
Apply a confidentiality label that does not restrict copying or export in unmanaged sessions
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Rights management constrains usage after access is granted. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that rights management constrains usage after access is granted. “Require TLS to the document service while permitting unrestricted offline replicas” addresses neither the required “Apply context-sensitive rights management and download restrictions” action nor its supporting evidence: “Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial”.
B:
Rights management constrains usage after access is granted. “Require MFA for viewing documents but permit full local downloads onto unmanaged devices” does not supply that control; “Apply context-sensitive rights management and download restrictions” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial” verifies the result.
D:
Rights management constrains usage after access is granted. “Apply a confidentiality label that does not restrict copying or export in unmanaged sessions” does not supply that control; “Apply context-sensitive rights management and download restrictions” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial” verifies the result.
Question 176
Documents must remain viewable but not exportable to unmanaged devices. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify an authorized browser can open the document without attempting a forbidden export
Check the sensitivity label is displayed but not whether download restrictions are enforced
Inspect authentication logs while unmanaged devices still save complete document copies
Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Rights management constrains usage after access is granted. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify an authorized browser can open the document without attempting a forbidden export” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial”, reflecting the requirement that rights management constrains usage after access is granted.
B:
“Check the sensitivity label is displayed but not whether download restrictions are enforced” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Apply context-sensitive rights management and download restrictions” works. Rights management constrains usage after access is granted. The decisive test is “Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial”.
C:
“Inspect authentication logs while unmanaged devices still save complete document copies” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt export from unmanaged sessions and record denial”, reflecting the requirement that rights management constrains usage after access is granted.
Question 177
Data residency rules require certain records to remain in one country. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Select storage and processing locations that satisfy legal data-location controls
Configure the primary database in-country but leave disaster-recovery replicas unexamined
Trust the cloud provider's global compliance statement without restricting actual processing regions
Encrypt cross-border traffic while storing mirrored regulated records in disallowed countries
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Configure the primary database in-country but leave disaster-recovery replicas unexamined” would not establish the protection described: TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. The necessary change is “Select storage and processing locations that satisfy legal data-location controls” with the verification “Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors”.
C:
“Trust the cloud provider's global compliance statement without restricting actual processing regions” leaves the essential control missing: TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. The direct corrective action is “Select storage and processing locations that satisfy legal data-location controls”, validated by the acceptance check “Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors”.
D:
“Encrypt cross-border traffic while storing mirrored regulated records in disallowed countries” would not establish the protection described: TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. The necessary change is “Select storage and processing locations that satisfy legal data-location controls” with the verification “Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors”.
Question 178
Data residency rules require certain records to remain in one country. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review the supplier's privacy notice but not the actual record-location inventory
Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors
Confirm the front-end region is in-country without checking database replicas and backups
Inspect TLS certificates without validating where processors and subprocessors store data
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Review the supplier's privacy notice but not the actual record-location inventory” would not verify the relevant control. TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors”.
C:
An observation of “Confirm the front-end region is in-country without checking database replicas and backups” would not verify the relevant control. TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Audit actual replica locations and processor subprocessors” because TLS encryption cannot satisfy geographic residency obligations. “Inspect TLS certificates without validating where processors and subprocessors store data” cannot establish that result.
Question 179
A control baseline is copied wholesale to low-risk public information. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Deploy the strictest enterprise baseline identically to public low-risk content without risk tailoring
Let each system administrator waive required controls without business risk-owner approval
Tailor controls according to classification and business impact
Assign protections solely by technology brand rather than classification or business impact
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Deploy the strictest enterprise baseline identically to public low-risk content without risk tailoring” does not meet the relevant requirement because baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The matching remediation is “Tailor controls according to classification and business impact”.
B:
“Let each system administrator waive required controls without business risk-owner approval” is not the relevant mitigation. Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The scenario calls for “Tailor controls according to classification and business impact”; the acceptance check is “Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners”.
D:
“Assign protections solely by technology brand rather than classification or business impact” is not the relevant mitigation. Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The scenario calls for “Tailor controls according to classification and business impact”; the acceptance check is “Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners”.
Question 180
A control baseline is copied wholesale to low-risk public information. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review administrator waivers without authorized risk-owner acceptance or rationale
Count enabled controls but not whether tailoring choices meet business impact
Confirm baseline templates were copied everywhere without examining proportionality decisions
Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The proposed check, “Review administrator waivers without authorized risk-owner acceptance or rationale”, misses the relevant outcome; “Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Count enabled controls but not whether tailoring choices meet business impact” does not show the required outcome: review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners. That test matters because baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere.
C:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The proposed check, “Confirm baseline templates were copied everywhere without examining proportionality decisions”, misses the relevant outcome; “Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
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CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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