Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 19
Question 180
A control baseline is copied wholesale to low-risk public information. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review administrator waivers without authorized risk-owner acceptance or rationale
Count enabled controls but not whether tailoring choices meet business impact
Confirm baseline templates were copied everywhere without examining proportionality decisions
Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The proposed check, “Review administrator waivers without authorized risk-owner acceptance or rationale”, misses the relevant outcome; “Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Count enabled controls but not whether tailoring choices meet business impact” does not show the required outcome: review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners. That test matters because baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere.
C:
Baseline selection is not the same as rigid identical controls everywhere. The proposed check, “Confirm baseline templates were copied everywhere without examining proportionality decisions”, misses the relevant outcome; “Review documented tailoring decisions with risk owners” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 181
An analyst must grant a vendor one-time access to highly confidential files. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Use minimum-time, need-based permissions with auditable recipient protection
Provide the vendor with a shared administrator account rather than time-bounded individual access
Grant the vendor indefinite read privileges because a single urgent request is legitimate
Email confidential files without recipient-specific rights and rely on the vendor's discretion to delete them
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context. “Provide the vendor with a shared administrator account rather than time-bounded individual access” does not supply that control; “Use minimum-time, need-based permissions with auditable recipient protection” addresses the identified gap, and “Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context. “Grant the vendor indefinite read privileges because a single urgent request is legitimate” addresses neither the required “Use minimum-time, need-based permissions with auditable recipient protection” action nor its supporting evidence: “Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence”.
D:
Data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context. “Email confidential files without recipient-specific rights and rely on the vendor's discretion to delete them” does not supply that control; “Use minimum-time, need-based permissions with auditable recipient protection” addresses the identified gap, and “Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence” verifies the result.
Question 182
An analyst must grant a vendor one-time access to highly confidential files. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm one successful vendor download but never check access expiry or onward copying
Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence
Review an approved request ticket without validating recipient restrictions and expiration
Check shared-account logins while failing to attribute activity to the temporary vendor user
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm one successful vendor download but never check access expiry or onward copying” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence”, reflecting the requirement that data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context.
C:
“Review an approved request ticket without validating recipient restrictions and expiration” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence”, reflecting the requirement that data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context.
D:
“Check shared-account logins while failing to attribute activity to the temporary vendor user” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Use minimum-time, need-based permissions with auditable recipient protection” works. Data protection considers purpose, duration and recipient context. The decisive test is “Examine grant expiration and copy-control evidence”.
Question 183
A customer portal allows a service account unrestricted database administration. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Move the service credentials to a vault yet grant the same broad database owner rights
Restrict administrative functions in the user interface while the backend account still has full privileges
Replace broad rights with narrowly scoped privileges for necessary operations
Enable detailed database audit logs but retain unrestricted administration for the portal service identity
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Move the service credentials to a vault yet grant the same broad database owner rights” leaves the essential control missing: least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. The direct corrective action is “Replace broad rights with narrowly scoped privileges for necessary operations”, validated by the acceptance check “Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes”.
B:
“Restrict administrative functions in the user interface while the backend account still has full privileges” would not establish the protection described: least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. The necessary change is “Replace broad rights with narrowly scoped privileges for necessary operations” with the verification “Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes”.
D:
“Enable detailed database audit logs but retain unrestricted administration for the portal service identity” would not establish the protection described: least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. The necessary change is “Replace broad rights with narrowly scoped privileges for necessary operations” with the verification “Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes”.
Question 184
A customer portal allows a service account unrestricted database administration. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm audit records exist while privileged database changes by the service still succeed
Check that the portal can query customer records but never attempt a prohibited database action
Verify credentials are vaulted without examining the database grants assigned to the service
Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm audit records exist while privileged database changes by the service still succeed” would not verify the relevant control. Least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes” because least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. “Check that the portal can query customer records but never attempt a prohibited database action” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Verify credentials are vaulted without examining the database grants assigned to the service” would not verify the relevant control. Least privilege limits the damage from a compromised service identity. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Test the portal workflow using an account that cannot perform administrative changes”.
Question 185
A critical control fails open when its policy service is unreachable. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Specify a fail-secure default with controlled emergency procedures
Keep the policy engine's permissive fallback to preserve availability during outages
Cache an unrestricted allow decision for every user whenever authorization cannot be reached
Log the policy-service outage but allow sensitive transactions until an administrator investigates
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Keep the policy engine's permissive fallback to preserve availability during outages” is not the relevant mitigation. Availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. The scenario calls for “Specify a fail-secure default with controlled emergency procedures”; the acceptance check is “Disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail”.
C:
The proposal “Cache an unrestricted allow decision for every user whenever authorization cannot be reached” does not meet the relevant requirement because availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. The matching remediation is “Specify a fail-secure default with controlled emergency procedures”.
D:
“Log the policy-service outage but allow sensitive transactions until an administrator investigates” is not the relevant mitigation. Availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. The scenario calls for “Specify a fail-secure default with controlled emergency procedures”; the acceptance check is “Disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail”.
Question 186
A critical control fails open when its policy service is unreachable. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Test failover performance without attempting forbidden access during a policy-service disconnect
Disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail
Inspect an outage alert but never check whether unauthorized requests are denied during failure
Confirm normal authorization works while the policy server is healthy only
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. The proposed check, “Test failover performance without attempting forbidden access during a policy-service disconnect”, misses the relevant outcome; “Disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access. The proposed check, “Inspect an outage alert but never check whether unauthorized requests are denied during failure”, misses the relevant outcome; “Disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Confirm normal authorization works while the policy server is healthy only” does not show the required outcome: disconnect policy evaluation and verify unauthorized operations fail. That test matters because availability tradeoffs must not silently create permissive access.
Question 187
Two administrators can both request and approve privileged firewall changes. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Record changes in syslog while allowing the requester to approve and apply the same privileged rule
Keep administrator self-approval but require a longer free-text justification in each ticket
Introduce independent approval and tamper-evident change records
Permit the change requester's second personal account to sign off on firewall changes
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt self-approval and verify rejection.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes. “Record changes in syslog while allowing the requester to approve and apply the same privileged rule” addresses neither the required “Introduce independent approval and tamper-evident change records” action nor its supporting evidence: “Attempt self-approval and verify rejection”.
B:
Separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes. “Keep administrator self-approval but require a longer free-text justification in each ticket” does not supply that control; “Introduce independent approval and tamper-evident change records” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt self-approval and verify rejection” verifies the result.
D:
Separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes. “Permit the change requester's second personal account to sign off on firewall changes” does not supply that control; “Introduce independent approval and tamper-evident change records” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt self-approval and verify rejection” verifies the result.
Question 188
Two administrators can both request and approve privileged firewall changes. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review a completed change ticket without identifying whether requester and approver are independent
Confirm the firewall records rule modifications but not whether self-approval is rejected
Check both approval fields are populated while the same person controls each identity
Attempt self-approval and verify rejection
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt self-approval and verify rejection.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review a completed change ticket without identifying whether requester and approver are independent” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt self-approval and verify rejection”, reflecting the requirement that separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes.
B:
“Confirm the firewall records rule modifications but not whether self-approval is rejected” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Introduce independent approval and tamper-evident change records” works. Separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes. The decisive test is “Attempt self-approval and verify rejection”.
C:
“Check both approval fields are populated while the same person controls each identity” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt self-approval and verify rejection”, reflecting the requirement that separation of duties reduces self-authorized changes.
Question 189
A cloud workload treats traffic from its private network as automatically trusted. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Design identity- and resource-aware authorization without implicit network trust
Apply TLS inside the VPC but grant every internal principal the same resource permissions
Limit inbound public IP addresses without controlling east-west access between internal workloads
Assume private-subnet addresses are trustworthy and skip per-workload identity authorization
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Apply TLS inside the VPC but grant every internal principal the same resource permissions” would not establish the protection described: zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. The necessary change is “Design identity- and resource-aware authorization without implicit network trust” with the verification “Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied”.
C:
“Limit inbound public IP addresses without controlling east-west access between internal workloads” leaves the essential control missing: zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. The direct corrective action is “Design identity- and resource-aware authorization without implicit network trust”, validated by the acceptance check “Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied”.
D:
“Assume private-subnet addresses are trustworthy and skip per-workload identity authorization” would not establish the protection described: zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. The necessary change is “Design identity- and resource-aware authorization without implicit network trust” with the verification “Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied”.
Question 190
A cloud workload treats traffic from its private network as automatically trusted. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review private subnet membership instead of testing resource-level denies within the network
Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied
Verify external traffic is blocked without attempting access by an unauthorized internal identity
Confirm internal sessions are encrypted but not whether the requesting principal is authorized
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Review private subnet membership instead of testing resource-level denies within the network” would not verify the relevant control. Zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied”.
C:
An observation of “Verify external traffic is blocked without attempting access by an unauthorized internal identity” would not verify the relevant control. Zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Demonstrate unauthorized internal identities are still denied” because zero trust treats network location as insufficient authorization. “Confirm internal sessions are encrypted but not whether the requesting principal is authorized” cannot establish that result.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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