Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 17
Question 160
A legacy operating system has reached end of support but still processes payments. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify antivirus signatures update while vendor security fixes and retirement milestones remain missing
Confirm that the legacy payment application still runs but not its support and exposure status
Review a generic change ticket without an approved unsupported-platform treatment plan
Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Verify antivirus signatures update while vendor security fixes and retirement milestones remain missing” would not verify the relevant control. End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones” because end of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. “Confirm that the legacy payment application still runs but not its support and exposure status” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Review a generic change ticket without an approved unsupported-platform treatment plan” would not verify the relevant control. End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
Question 161
A retired firewall contains configuration backups and embedded secrets. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Inventory embedded data and securely sanitize before disposal
Remove the firewall from its rack and donate it with the existing saved configuration
Factory-reset only interface addresses but leave stored keys and configuration backups intact
Delete the asset record before evaluating the device's embedded storage and credentials
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Remove the firewall from its rack and donate it with the existing saved configuration” is not the relevant mitigation. Network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. The scenario calls for “Inventory embedded data and securely sanitize before disposal”; the acceptance check is “Verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records”.
C:
The proposal “Factory-reset only interface addresses but leave stored keys and configuration backups intact” does not meet the relevant requirement because network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. The matching remediation is “Inventory embedded data and securely sanitize before disposal”.
D:
“Delete the asset record before evaluating the device's embedded storage and credentials” is not the relevant mitigation. Network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. The scenario calls for “Inventory embedded data and securely sanitize before disposal”; the acceptance check is “Verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records”.
Question 162
A retired firewall contains configuration backups and embedded secrets. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review a physical disposal receipt without verifying secret rotation after return
Verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records
Check that the device is no longer reachable while retained configuration data may persist
Confirm that the firewall is powered off without a serial-linked sanitization record
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. The proposed check, “Review a physical disposal receipt without verifying secret rotation after return”, misses the relevant outcome; “Verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks. The proposed check, “Check that the device is no longer reachable while retained configuration data may persist”, misses the relevant outcome; “Verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Confirm that the firewall is powered off without a serial-linked sanitization record” does not show the required outcome: verify serial-number-linked disposal and secret rotation records. That test matters because network equipment disposal exposes configuration and keys, not only disks.
Question 163
An encrypted backup appliance is returned to a leasing company. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Hand the appliance to the lessor before documenting custody and sanitization assurance
Return the encrypted appliance without checking whether its encryption keys remain recoverable
Perform approved sanitization or cryptographic erase with key-lifecycle assurance
Perform a quick filesystem format while relying on encryption as permanent proof of erasure
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate. “Hand the appliance to the lessor before documenting custody and sanitization assurance” addresses neither the required “Perform approved sanitization or cryptographic erase with key-lifecycle assurance” action nor its supporting evidence: “Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence”.
B:
Physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate. “Return the encrypted appliance without checking whether its encryption keys remain recoverable” does not supply that control; “Perform approved sanitization or cryptographic erase with key-lifecycle assurance” addresses the identified gap, and “Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence” verifies the result.
D:
Physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate. “Perform a quick filesystem format while relying on encryption as permanent proof of erasure” does not supply that control; “Perform approved sanitization or cryptographic erase with key-lifecycle assurance” addresses the identified gap, and “Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence” verifies the result.
Question 164
An encrypted backup appliance is returned to a leasing company. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm disk encryption was enabled historically without evaluating cryptographic erase readiness
Check receipt by the leasing company but not the sanitization validation results
Verify user logins were disabled while recoverable encryption keys and stored blocks persist
Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm disk encryption was enabled historically without evaluating cryptographic erase readiness” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence”, reflecting the requirement that physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate.
B:
“Check receipt by the leasing company but not the sanitization validation results” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Perform approved sanitization or cryptographic erase with key-lifecycle assurance” works. Physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate. The decisive test is “Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence”.
C:
“Verify user logins were disabled while recoverable encryption keys and stored blocks persist” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review sanitization validation and custody handoff evidence”, reflecting the requirement that physical return without verified sanitization is inadequate.
Question 165
A SaaS license expires while regulated archive data must remain accessible. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Plan supported export and preservation before contract termination
Export only screenshots of regulated records rather than complete usable metadata and evidence
Delete the SaaS account first and ask for an export after the contract has ended
Let the SaaS subscription expire and assume the vendor will preserve archive access automatically
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Vendor termination must not destroy required records. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test that retained archives are readable with their metadata.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Export only screenshots of regulated records rather than complete usable metadata and evidence” would not establish the protection described: vendor termination must not destroy required records. The necessary change is “Plan supported export and preservation before contract termination” with the verification “Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata”.
C:
“Delete the SaaS account first and ask for an export after the contract has ended” leaves the essential control missing: vendor termination must not destroy required records. The direct corrective action is “Plan supported export and preservation before contract termination”, validated by the acceptance check “Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata”.
D:
“Let the SaaS subscription expire and assume the vendor will preserve archive access automatically” would not establish the protection described: vendor termination must not destroy required records. The necessary change is “Plan supported export and preservation before contract termination” with the verification “Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata”.
Question 166
A SaaS license expires while regulated archive data must remain accessible. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review the vendor's export feature documentation without attempting a full retrieval test
Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata
Confirm that the subscription cancellation succeeded without testing archive restoration
Check a small sample PDF export but ignore record metadata and completeness
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Vendor termination must not destroy required records. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Review the vendor's export feature documentation without attempting a full retrieval test” would not verify the relevant control. Vendor termination must not destroy required records. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata”.
C:
An observation of “Confirm that the subscription cancellation succeeded without testing archive restoration” would not verify the relevant control. Vendor termination must not destroy required records. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Test that retained archives are readable with their metadata” because vendor termination must not destroy required records. “Check a small sample PDF export but ignore record metadata and completeness” cannot establish that result.
Question 167
An end-of-life mobile fleet contains authentication tokens and cached data. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Recycle mobile devices after signing users out but leave cached tokens and offline data intact
Delete the employee directory accounts yet keep still-enrolled devices trusted by applications
Revoke device trust and sanitize before recycling
Perform a cosmetic factory reset without validating disposal or revoking shared device credentials
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Recycle mobile devices after signing users out but leave cached tokens and offline data intact” does not meet the relevant requirement because remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. The matching remediation is “Revoke device trust and sanitize before recycling”.
B:
“Delete the employee directory accounts yet keep still-enrolled devices trusted by applications” is not the relevant mitigation. Remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. The scenario calls for “Revoke device trust and sanitize before recycling”; the acceptance check is “Check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report”.
D:
“Perform a cosmetic factory reset without validating disposal or revoking shared device credentials” is not the relevant mitigation. Remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. The scenario calls for “Revoke device trust and sanitize before recycling”; the acceptance check is “Check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report”.
Question 168
An end-of-life mobile fleet contains authentication tokens and cached data. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check the recycling vendor invoice without validating sanitization and enrollment revocation
Verify a management profile was removed but never check recoverable caches and tokens
Confirm users cannot log in interactively while old device sessions remain trusted
Check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. The proposed check, “Check the recycling vendor invoice without validating sanitization and enrollment revocation”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Verify a management profile was removed but never check recoverable caches and tokens” does not show the required outcome: check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report. That test matters because remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware.
C:
Remote account disablement alone leaves cached assets on hardware. The proposed check, “Confirm users cannot log in interactively while old device sessions remain trusted”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check device enrollment revocation and certified disposal report” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 169
A service processes confidential data in memory and its encrypted storage is compliant. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Assess runtime exposure controls such as memory isolation and privileged access
Mask secrets in dashboard views without assessing privileged memory-dump and runtime access
Rely on storage encryption while allowing administrators to inspect live process memory freely
Enable TLS transport and assume confidential values in application memory are consequently isolated
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data.
Incorrect Answers
B:
At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. “Mask secrets in dashboard views without assessing privileged memory-dump and runtime access” does not supply that control; “Assess runtime exposure controls such as memory isolation and privileged access” addresses the identified gap, and “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that at-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. “Rely on storage encryption while allowing administrators to inspect live process memory freely” addresses neither the required “Assess runtime exposure controls such as memory isolation and privileged access” action nor its supporting evidence: “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”.
D:
At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. “Enable TLS transport and assume confidential values in application memory are consequently isolated” does not supply that control; “Assess runtime exposure controls such as memory isolation and privileged access” addresses the identified gap, and “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data” verifies the result.
Question 170
A service processes confidential data in memory and its encrypted storage is compliant. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check database encryption settings without exercising a controlled memory-access scenario
Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data
Inspect HTTPS traffic while overlooking the workload's in-memory exposure
Review user-facing masking without testing privileged process-memory access boundaries
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Check database encryption settings without exercising a controlled memory-access scenario” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”, reflecting the requirement that at-rest encryption does not protect data while in use.
C:
“Inspect HTTPS traffic while overlooking the workload's in-memory exposure” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”, reflecting the requirement that at-rest encryption does not protect data while in use.
D:
“Review user-facing masking without testing privileged process-memory access boundaries” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Assess runtime exposure controls such as memory isolation and privileged access” works. At-rest encryption does not protect data while in use. The decisive test is “Exercise a permitted memory access test against protected data”.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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