Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 15
Question 140
An organization cannot locate licenses for critical purchased software. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the application launches on endpoints without comparing seat counts to purchases
Check a procurement invoice without verifying actual deployed licenses and versions
Scan for malware in installations but ignore entitlement and usage reconciliation
Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm the application launches on endpoints without comparing seat counts to purchases” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”, reflecting the requirement that software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship.
B:
“Check a procurement invoice without verifying actual deployed licenses and versions” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Inventory intangible entitlements and reconcile them to deployed software” works. Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. The decisive test is “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”.
C:
“Scan for malware in installations but ignore entitlement and usage reconciliation” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”, reflecting the requirement that software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship.
Question 141
Cloud storage buckets are created without consistent owners or purpose tags. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require governed provisioning with metadata and least-privilege defaults
Require a naming convention but leave classification and access policy unspecified at creation
Infer each new bucket's security owner from its hosting region rather than its workload purpose
Allow cloud buckets to be created anonymously and add ownership tags during annual review
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Require a naming convention but leave classification and access policy unspecified at creation” would not establish the protection described: creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. The necessary change is “Require governed provisioning with metadata and least-privilege defaults” with the verification “Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy”.
C:
“Infer each new bucket's security owner from its hosting region rather than its workload purpose” leaves the essential control missing: creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. The direct corrective action is “Require governed provisioning with metadata and least-privilege defaults”, validated by the acceptance check “Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy”.
D:
“Allow cloud buckets to be created anonymously and add ownership tags during annual review” would not establish the protection described: creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. The necessary change is “Require governed provisioning with metadata and least-privilege defaults” with the verification “Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy”.
Question 142
Cloud storage buckets are created without consistent owners or purpose tags. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Audit storage costs alone instead of inspecting new buckets' classification and policies
Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy
Count newly provisioned buckets without checking ownership and permitted visibility
Confirm resource names follow a pattern while metadata and access defaults are missing
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Audit storage costs alone instead of inspecting new buckets' classification and policies” would not verify the relevant control. Creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy”.
C:
An observation of “Count newly provisioned buckets without checking ownership and permitted visibility” would not verify the relevant control. Creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Audit newly created buckets for owner, classification and policy” because creation-time control prevents unmanaged assets. “Confirm resource names follow a pattern while metadata and access defaults are missing” cannot establish that result.
Question 143
A storage administrator can declare a dataset public without business approval. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Let infrastructure administrators self-declare datasets public whenever they need to troubleshoot access
Ask storage administrators to confirm encryption is enabled instead of seeking data-owner authorization
Separate technical provisioning from business classification authority
Permit immediate public-link creation and request business owner signoff after exposure
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test that public exposure requires owner authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Let infrastructure administrators self-declare datasets public whenever they need to troubleshoot access” does not meet the relevant requirement because infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. The matching remediation is “Separate technical provisioning from business classification authority”.
B:
“Ask storage administrators to confirm encryption is enabled instead of seeking data-owner authorization” is not the relevant mitigation. Infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. The scenario calls for “Separate technical provisioning from business classification authority”; the acceptance check is “Test that public exposure requires owner authorization”.
D:
“Permit immediate public-link creation and request business owner signoff after exposure” is not the relevant mitigation. Infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. The scenario calls for “Separate technical provisioning from business classification authority”; the acceptance check is “Test that public exposure requires owner authorization”.
Question 144
A storage administrator can declare a dataset public without business approval. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify public links are logged while self-approved disclosure remains possible
Review default storage encryption without attempting an unauthorized public-classification change
Check that the administrator can change bucket visibility but not whether approval is enforced
Test that public exposure requires owner authorization
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test that public exposure requires owner authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. The proposed check, “Verify public links are logged while self-approved disclosure remains possible”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test that public exposure requires owner authorization” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Review default storage encryption without attempting an unauthorized public-classification change” does not show the required outcome: test that public exposure requires owner authorization. That test matters because infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions.
C:
Infrastructure custodians do not inherit data ownership decisions. The proposed check, “Check that the administrator can change bucket visibility but not whether approval is enforced”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test that public exposure requires owner authorization” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 145
A customer revokes consent but data remains in secondary analytics stores. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Map all collection, processing and secondary-copy locations in the data lifecycle
Send the customer a confirmation email without a discovery process for retained derived records
Delete the primary customer record but ignore derived analytics copies and replicated training datasets
Restrict future collection while leaving existing secondary copies after withdrawal of consent
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database. “Send the customer a confirmation email without a discovery process for retained derived records” does not supply that control; “Map all collection, processing and secondary-copy locations in the data lifecycle” addresses the identified gap, and “Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database. “Delete the primary customer record but ignore derived analytics copies and replicated training datasets” addresses neither the required “Map all collection, processing and secondary-copy locations in the data lifecycle” action nor its supporting evidence: “Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets”.
D:
Lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database. “Restrict future collection while leaving existing secondary copies after withdrawal of consent” does not supply that control; “Map all collection, processing and secondary-copy locations in the data lifecycle” addresses the identified gap, and “Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets” verifies the result.
Question 146
A customer revokes consent but data remains in secondary analytics stores. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify removal from the main application screen without searching secondary datasets
Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets
Check that a deletion request ticket closed without reconciling copies and processors
Inspect the consent setting alone while previously exported analytics records remain
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify removal from the main application screen without searching secondary datasets” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets”, reflecting the requirement that lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database.
C:
“Check that a deletion request ticket closed without reconciling copies and processors” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets”, reflecting the requirement that lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database.
D:
“Inspect the consent setting alone while previously exported analytics records remain” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Map all collection, processing and secondary-copy locations in the data lifecycle” works. Lifecycle protection extends beyond the principal production database. The decisive test is “Trace an erasure request through primary and derived datasets”.
Question 147
Retention rules conflict with a litigation preservation order. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Freeze every record permanently rather than scoping the legal hold to relevant information
Record a litigation reference in notes but let automated purge jobs remove held records
Apply a scoped legal hold that suspends ordinary deletion for the affected data
Run ordinary scheduled deletion despite the preservation order because the retention date has passed
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Freeze every record permanently rather than scoping the legal hold to relevant information” leaves the essential control missing: legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. The direct corrective action is “Apply a scoped legal hold that suspends ordinary deletion for the affected data”, validated by the acceptance check “Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization”.
B:
“Record a litigation reference in notes but let automated purge jobs remove held records” would not establish the protection described: legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. The necessary change is “Apply a scoped legal hold that suspends ordinary deletion for the affected data” with the verification “Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization”.
D:
“Run ordinary scheduled deletion despite the preservation order because the retention date has passed” would not establish the protection described: legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. The necessary change is “Apply a scoped legal hold that suspends ordinary deletion for the affected data” with the verification “Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization”.
Question 148
Retention rules conflict with a litigation preservation order. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify that archives were copied but not whether release of the hold requires authorization
Check that the retention schedule still runs without testing its legal-hold exception
Confirm a legal hold email was sent but not that purge is blocked for affected records
Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Verify that archives were copied but not whether release of the hold requires authorization” would not verify the relevant control. Legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization” because legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. “Check that the retention schedule still runs without testing its legal-hold exception” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Confirm a legal hold email was sent but not that purge is blocked for affected records” would not verify the relevant control. Legal preservation overrides routine expiry for scoped records. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify the hold prevents purge and records release authorization”.
Question 149
A database has no documented purpose for collecting national identity numbers. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Apply collection minimization and documented business necessity
Keep collecting identity numbers and add stronger encryption without documenting why they are needed
Replace the field label with an abbreviation while still storing the complete sensitive number
Require longer user passwords but leave unused personal identifiers in forms and schemas
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Keep collecting identity numbers and add stronger encryption without documenting why they are needed” is not the relevant mitigation. Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The scenario calls for “Apply collection minimization and documented business necessity”; the acceptance check is “Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields”.
C:
The proposal “Replace the field label with an abbreviation while still storing the complete sensitive number” does not meet the relevant requirement because avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The matching remediation is “Apply collection minimization and documented business necessity”.
D:
“Require longer user passwords but leave unused personal identifiers in forms and schemas” is not the relevant mitigation. Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The scenario calls for “Apply collection minimization and documented business necessity”; the acceptance check is “Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields”.
Question 150
A database has no documented purpose for collecting national identity numbers. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect a privacy notice without identifying and removing unnecessary input fields
Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields
Verify only authenticated staff can view records rather than measuring collected data minimization
Confirm database encryption at rest while unused identity numbers are still collected
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The proposed check, “Inspect a privacy notice without identifying and removing unnecessary input fields”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The proposed check, “Verify only authenticated staff can view records rather than measuring collected data minimization”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Confirm database encryption at rest while unused identity numbers are still collected” does not show the required outcome: inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields. That test matters because avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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