Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 14
Question 130
An employee needs to carry sensitive files while traveling internationally. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect corporate VPN use while sensitive copies remain unencrypted on portable media
Verify approved device encryption and approved travel storage controls
Verify that the user can open the files while abroad without checking storage controls
Check the travel approval alone but not device encryption or destination handling policy
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Travel changes exposure and jurisdictional requirements. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify approved device encryption and approved travel storage controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Inspect corporate VPN use while sensitive copies remain unencrypted on portable media” would not verify the relevant control. Travel changes exposure and jurisdictional requirements. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify approved device encryption and approved travel storage controls”.
C:
An observation of “Verify that the user can open the files while abroad without checking storage controls” would not verify the relevant control. Travel changes exposure and jurisdictional requirements. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify approved device encryption and approved travel storage controls”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Verify approved device encryption and approved travel storage controls” because travel changes exposure and jurisdictional requirements. “Check the travel approval alone but not device encryption or destination handling policy” cannot establish that result.
Question 131
A vendor retains downloaded customer exports on employee desktops. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Accept the vendor's generic privacy statement without defining deletion of downloaded desktop exports
Require encryption only on the export transfer but allow untracked local copies indefinitely
Impose secure storage, access and deletion requirements in the handling agreement
Depend on the vendor's annual security score while individual employees retain customer datasets
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Accept the vendor's generic privacy statement without defining deletion of downloaded desktop exports” does not meet the relevant requirement because third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. The matching remediation is “Impose secure storage, access and deletion requirements in the handling agreement”.
B:
“Require encryption only on the export transfer but allow untracked local copies indefinitely” is not the relevant mitigation. Third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. The scenario calls for “Impose secure storage, access and deletion requirements in the handling agreement”; the acceptance check is “Audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls”.
D:
“Depend on the vendor's annual security score while individual employees retain customer datasets” is not the relevant mitigation. Third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. The scenario calls for “Impose secure storage, access and deletion requirements in the handling agreement”; the acceptance check is “Audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls”.
Question 132
A vendor retains downloaded customer exports on employee desktops. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Read an assurance certificate without testing contractual deletion and copy inventories
Verify that the primary vendor account was closed while employee desktop exports remain accessible
Confirm that a data transfer finished without evidence of local endpoint storage controls
Audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. The proposed check, “Read an assurance certificate without testing contractual deletion and copy inventories”, misses the relevant outcome; “Audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Verify that the primary vendor account was closed while employee desktop exports remain accessible” does not show the required outcome: audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls. That test matters because third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle.
C:
Third-party copies require controls through the entire lifecycle. The proposed check, “Confirm that a data transfer finished without evidence of local endpoint storage controls”, misses the relevant outcome; “Audit contractual deletion evidence and endpoint controls” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 133
An untracked virtual machine is discovered in a production cloud account. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Assign an owner and record it in the authoritative asset inventory
Patch the discovered virtual machine once and exclude it from the authoritative inventory
Add a production VM to a network diagram but leave asset ownership undefined
Assume the cloud billing account owner is responsible for all unmanaged instances without assignment
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment. “Patch the discovered virtual machine once and exclude it from the authoritative inventory” does not supply that control; “Assign an owner and record it in the authoritative asset inventory” addresses the identified gap, and “Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment. “Add a production VM to a network diagram but leave asset ownership undefined” addresses neither the required “Assign an owner and record it in the authoritative asset inventory” action nor its supporting evidence: “Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records”.
D:
Unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment. “Assume the cloud billing account owner is responsible for all unmanaged instances without assignment” does not supply that control; “Assign an owner and record it in the authoritative asset inventory” addresses the identified gap, and “Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records” verifies the result.
Question 134
An untracked virtual machine is discovered in a production cloud account. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Count running instances but do not reconcile them to named ownership records
Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records
Verify the VM has a recent patch date without checking inventory registration
Inspect cloud cost reports that include the VM while its purpose and accountable owner remain blank
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Count running instances but do not reconcile them to named ownership records” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records”, reflecting the requirement that unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment.
C:
“Verify the VM has a recent patch date without checking inventory registration” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records”, reflecting the requirement that unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment.
D:
“Inspect cloud cost reports that include the VM while its purpose and accountable owner remain blank” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Assign an owner and record it in the authoritative asset inventory” works. Unowned assets cannot receive accountable risk treatment. The decisive test is “Reconcile running cloud resources to owner-tagged records”.
Question 135
A new database stores payroll data but has no information steward. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rely on the payroll application developer to approve access without a data-owner designation
Register the database host as an asset but leave the payroll data itself unowned
Assign a business data owner distinct from the technical custodian
Make the database administrator the sole business decision maker for payroll classification and access
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Rely on the payroll application developer to approve access without a data-owner designation” leaves the essential control missing: data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. The direct corrective action is “Assign a business data owner distinct from the technical custodian”, validated by the acceptance check “Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements”.
B:
“Register the database host as an asset but leave the payroll data itself unowned” would not establish the protection described: data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. The necessary change is “Assign a business data owner distinct from the technical custodian” with the verification “Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements”.
D:
“Make the database administrator the sole business decision maker for payroll classification and access” would not establish the protection described: data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. The necessary change is “Assign a business data owner distinct from the technical custodian” with the verification “Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements”.
Question 136
A new database stores payroll data but has no information steward. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check that admins have named accounts while business stewardship remains undefined
Confirm the database has a technical support contact without approval by an information owner
Review backup completion without checking payroll classification or access policy approval
Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Check that admins have named accounts while business stewardship remains undefined” would not verify the relevant control. Data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements” because data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. “Confirm the database has a technical support contact without approval by an information owner” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Review backup completion without checking payroll classification or access policy approval” would not verify the relevant control. Data owners define usage and sensitivity; custodians operate systems. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect owner approval of classification and access requirements”.
Question 137
Laptops are issued before endpoint encryption enrollment completes. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Gate provisioning on baseline security registration and encryption
Issue laptops immediately and schedule encryption enrollment for the next quarterly audit
Require a signed acceptable-use form as a substitute for device encryption registration
Apply encryption only after a reported lost device instead of gating initial release
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check device attestations prior to release to staff.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Issue laptops immediately and schedule encryption enrollment for the next quarterly audit” is not the relevant mitigation. Secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. The scenario calls for “Gate provisioning on baseline security registration and encryption”; the acceptance check is “Check device attestations prior to release to staff”.
C:
The proposal “Require a signed acceptable-use form as a substitute for device encryption registration” does not meet the relevant requirement because secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. The matching remediation is “Gate provisioning on baseline security registration and encryption”.
D:
“Apply encryption only after a reported lost device instead of gating initial release” is not the relevant mitigation. Secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. The scenario calls for “Gate provisioning on baseline security registration and encryption”; the acceptance check is “Check device attestations prior to release to staff”.
Question 138
Laptops are issued before endpoint encryption enrollment completes. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Count devices shipped to employees while endpoint compliance remains pending
Check device attestations prior to release to staff
Review encryption policy text without comparing individual device attestations before handoff
Check that laptops boot and connect to Wi-Fi without verifying enrollment or disk encryption
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check device attestations prior to release to staff.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. The proposed check, “Count devices shipped to employees while endpoint compliance remains pending”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check device attestations prior to release to staff” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup. The proposed check, “Review encryption policy text without comparing individual device attestations before handoff”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check device attestations prior to release to staff” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Check that laptops boot and connect to Wi-Fi without verifying enrollment or disk encryption” does not show the required outcome: check device attestations prior to release to staff. That test matters because secure provisioning is a prerequisite, not an optional later cleanup.
Question 139
An organization cannot locate licenses for critical purchased software. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Treat software keys as disposable configuration and skip license ownership records
Inventory installed executables without reconciling the organization's software purchase rights
Inventory intangible entitlements and reconcile them to deployed software
Rely on a finance cost-center total as proof of entitlement for every installation
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. “Treat software keys as disposable configuration and skip license ownership records” addresses neither the required “Inventory intangible entitlements and reconcile them to deployed software” action nor its supporting evidence: “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”.
B:
Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. “Inventory installed executables without reconciling the organization's software purchase rights” does not supply that control; “Inventory intangible entitlements and reconcile them to deployed software” addresses the identified gap, and “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations” verifies the result.
D:
Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. “Rely on a finance cost-center total as proof of entitlement for every installation” does not supply that control; “Inventory intangible entitlements and reconcile them to deployed software” addresses the identified gap, and “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations” verifies the result.
Question 140
An organization cannot locate licenses for critical purchased software. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the application launches on endpoints without comparing seat counts to purchases
Check a procurement invoice without verifying actual deployed licenses and versions
Scan for malware in installations but ignore entitlement and usage reconciliation
Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm the application launches on endpoints without comparing seat counts to purchases” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”, reflecting the requirement that software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship.
B:
“Check a procurement invoice without verifying actual deployed licenses and versions” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Inventory intangible entitlements and reconcile them to deployed software” works. Software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship. The decisive test is “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”.
C:
“Scan for malware in installations but ignore entitlement and usage reconciliation” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare purchase rights, assigned seats and discovered installations”, reflecting the requirement that software entitlement tracking is part of asset stewardship.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
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CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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