Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 16
Question 150
A database has no documented purpose for collecting national identity numbers. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect a privacy notice without identifying and removing unnecessary input fields
Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields
Verify only authenticated staff can view records rather than measuring collected data minimization
Confirm database encryption at rest while unused identity numbers are still collected
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The proposed check, “Inspect a privacy notice without identifying and removing unnecessary input fields”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption. The proposed check, “Verify only authenticated staff can view records rather than measuring collected data minimization”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Confirm database encryption at rest while unused identity numbers are still collected” does not show the required outcome: inspect forms and schemas for elimination of unused sensitive fields. That test matters because avoiding collection removes exposure earlier than adding encryption.
Question 151
A cloud storage volume is recycled with recoverable residual data. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rely on host-level access-control lists while recycling the underlying media without sanitization
Delete the cloud volume's filesystem directory and immediately allocate the storage to another tenant
Use an approved media sanitization method appropriate to the technology and sensitivity
Reformat the volume quickly without validating residual-data confidentiality assurance
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence. “Rely on host-level access-control lists while recycling the underlying media without sanitization” addresses neither the required “Use an approved media sanitization method appropriate to the technology and sensitivity” action nor its supporting evidence: “Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment”.
B:
Deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence. “Delete the cloud volume's filesystem directory and immediately allocate the storage to another tenant” does not supply that control; “Use an approved media sanitization method appropriate to the technology and sensitivity” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment” verifies the result.
D:
Deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence. “Reformat the volume quickly without validating residual-data confidentiality assurance” does not supply that control; “Use an approved media sanitization method appropriate to the technology and sensitivity” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment” verifies the result.
Question 152
A cloud storage volume is recycled with recoverable residual data. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the drive mounts as empty without a validated sanitization method
Review a deletion job success flag but not the media-specific sanitization evidence
Check that the next tenant has separate credentials while recoverable blocks may remain
Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm the drive mounts as empty without a validated sanitization method” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment”, reflecting the requirement that deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence.
B:
“Review a deletion job success flag but not the media-specific sanitization evidence” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Use an approved media sanitization method appropriate to the technology and sensitivity” works. Deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence. The decisive test is “Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment”.
C:
“Check that the next tenant has separate credentials while recoverable blocks may remain” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify sanitization record and method assurance before redeployment”, reflecting the requirement that deleting a filesystem directory does not eliminate data remanence.
Question 153
A company changes data processor but does not reconcile retained copies. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Update processor inventories and enforce return or verified destruction
Assume the incoming processor inherits custody records and no return-or-destroy confirmation is necessary
Rotate transfer credentials while leaving retained customer exports with the departed vendor
Terminate the old data-processor agreement without tracing copies held by its subprocessors
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review processor attestations and data-flow register updates.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Assume the incoming processor inherits custody records and no return-or-destroy confirmation is necessary” would not establish the protection described: a change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. The necessary change is “Update processor inventories and enforce return or verified destruction” with the verification “Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates”.
C:
“Rotate transfer credentials while leaving retained customer exports with the departed vendor” leaves the essential control missing: a change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. The direct corrective action is “Update processor inventories and enforce return or verified destruction”, validated by the acceptance check “Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates”.
D:
“Terminate the old data-processor agreement without tracing copies held by its subprocessors” would not establish the protection described: a change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. The necessary change is “Update processor inventories and enforce return or verified destruction” with the verification “Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates”.
Question 154
A company changes data processor but does not reconcile retained copies. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect only the new contract while the data-flow register still references the old vendor
Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates
Check that the new processor is live without reconciling copies left with the previous one
Verify the previous vendor's portal account is disabled but not the destruction attestation
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
A change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Inspect only the new contract while the data-flow register still references the old vendor” would not verify the relevant control. A change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates”.
C:
An observation of “Check that the new processor is live without reconciling copies left with the previous one” would not verify the relevant control. A change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Review processor attestations and data-flow register updates” because a change of custodian does not end owner responsibility. “Verify the previous vendor's portal account is disabled but not the destruction attestation” cannot establish that result.
Question 155
A storage backup remains after contractual retention limits expire. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Purge only the current database copy while expired backup sets remain available for restore
Make backups permanently immutable without applying contractual expiry or legal-hold controls
Design lifecycle controls that also dispose of expired backup versions where permitted
Remove backup catalog labels but retain all expired sensitive snapshots on storage
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Purge only the current database copy while expired backup sets remain available for restore” does not meet the relevant requirement because data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. The matching remediation is “Design lifecycle controls that also dispose of expired backup versions where permitted”.
B:
“Make backups permanently immutable without applying contractual expiry or legal-hold controls” is not the relevant mitigation. Data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. The scenario calls for “Design lifecycle controls that also dispose of expired backup versions where permitted”; the acceptance check is “Test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions”.
D:
“Remove backup catalog labels but retain all expired sensitive snapshots on storage” is not the relevant mitigation. Data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. The scenario calls for “Design lifecycle controls that also dispose of expired backup versions where permitted”; the acceptance check is “Test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions”.
Question 156
A storage backup remains after contractual retention limits expire. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm backup encryption is enabled without checking approved expiry and hold exceptions
Inspect a retention policy document without exercising its deletion against aged backup sets
Review the primary database retention job while old backup versions remain untouched
Test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. The proposed check, “Confirm backup encryption is enabled without checking approved expiry and hold exceptions”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Inspect a retention policy document without exercising its deletion against aged backup sets” does not show the required outcome: test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions. That test matters because data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules.
C:
Data destruction applies to recovery copies subject to preservation rules. The proposed check, “Review the primary database retention job while old backup versions remain untouched”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test backup-set expiry with scoped legal-hold exceptions” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 157
A machine-learning team collects sensitive training data without a disposal plan. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Document collection purpose, allowed model usage and final deletion triggers
Define model deployment approvals but not the permitted use or deletion of source training records
Keep training data indefinitely because model-development work might recur someday
Mask training file names while continuing to retain all sensitive snapshots without lifecycle triggers
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls.
Incorrect Answers
B:
AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement. “Define model deployment approvals but not the permitted use or deletion of source training records” does not supply that control; “Document collection purpose, allowed model usage and final deletion triggers” addresses the identified gap, and “Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement. “Keep training data indefinitely because model-development work might recur someday” addresses neither the required “Document collection purpose, allowed model usage and final deletion triggers” action nor its supporting evidence: “Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls”.
D:
AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement. “Mask training file names while continuing to retain all sensitive snapshots without lifecycle triggers” does not supply that control; “Document collection purpose, allowed model usage and final deletion triggers” addresses the identified gap, and “Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls” verifies the result.
Question 158
A machine-learning team collects sensitive training data without a disposal plan. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify a model meets accuracy goals without tracing retained sensitive training copies
Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls
Check storage encryption but not whether temporary training snapshots expire
Review the initial project charter while derived datasets lack an owner and deletion trigger
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify a model meets accuracy goals without tracing retained sensitive training copies” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls”, reflecting the requirement that AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement.
C:
“Check storage encryption but not whether temporary training snapshots expire” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls”, reflecting the requirement that AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement.
D:
“Review the initial project charter while derived datasets lack an owner and deletion trigger” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Document collection purpose, allowed model usage and final deletion triggers” works. AI training data remains an asset through derivation and retirement. The decisive test is “Trace training snapshots and model-derived datasets to retention controls”.
Question 159
A legacy operating system has reached end of support but still processes payments. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rely on a monthly antivirus scan as permanent compensation for missing vendor patches
Treat normal uptime as proof that unsupported security components are acceptable indefinitely
Record unsupported-platform risk and plan compensating controls plus replacement
Continue using the unsupported payment OS without recording a risk or replacement timetable
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Rely on a monthly antivirus scan as permanent compensation for missing vendor patches” leaves the essential control missing: end of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The direct corrective action is “Record unsupported-platform risk and plan compensating controls plus replacement”, validated by the acceptance check “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
B:
“Treat normal uptime as proof that unsupported security components are acceptable indefinitely” would not establish the protection described: end of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The necessary change is “Record unsupported-platform risk and plan compensating controls plus replacement” with the verification “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
D:
“Continue using the unsupported payment OS without recording a risk or replacement timetable” would not establish the protection described: end of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The necessary change is “Record unsupported-platform risk and plan compensating controls plus replacement” with the verification “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
Question 160
A legacy operating system has reached end of support but still processes payments. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify antivirus signatures update while vendor security fixes and retirement milestones remain missing
Confirm that the legacy payment application still runs but not its support and exposure status
Review a generic change ticket without an approved unsupported-platform treatment plan
Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Verify antivirus signatures update while vendor security fixes and retirement milestones remain missing” would not verify the relevant control. End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones” because end of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. “Confirm that the legacy payment application still runs but not its support and exposure status” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Review a generic change ticket without an approved unsupported-platform treatment plan” would not verify the relevant control. End of vendor support changes risk even when a system still runs. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check supplier support status and approved remediation milestones”.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
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CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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