Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 44
Question 430
A partner app attempts cross-tenant API access using an otherwise valid token. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm same-tenant calls succeed without presenting a foreign-tenant token
Present a foreign-tenant token and confirm policy rejection
Check the identity provider's public signing key while skipping API resource-claim checks
Review application login events but not whether tokens for a different audience can read data
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Possessing a signed token does not imply every tenant or resource accepts it. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Present a foreign-tenant token and confirm policy rejection.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm same-tenant calls succeed without presenting a foreign-tenant token” would not verify the relevant control. Possessing a signed token does not imply every tenant or resource accepts it. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Present a foreign-tenant token and confirm policy rejection”.
C:
An observation of “Check the identity provider's public signing key while skipping API resource-claim checks” would not verify the relevant control. Possessing a signed token does not imply every tenant or resource accepts it. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Present a foreign-tenant token and confirm policy rejection”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Present a foreign-tenant token and confirm policy rejection” because possessing a signed token does not imply every tenant or resource accepts it. “Review application login events but not whether tokens for a different audience can read data” cannot establish that result.
Question 431
A temporary emergency override bypasses the ordinary data access policy. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Permit a permanent superuser role for all helpdesk staff once an incident is declared
Record only the override user's name without expiry, scope or post-use review
Require time-limited monitored break-glass authorization and post-use review
Turn off emergency override auditing to avoid delaying urgent employee response
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Permit a permanent superuser role for all helpdesk staff once an incident is declared” does not meet the relevant requirement because exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. The matching remediation is “Require time-limited monitored break-glass authorization and post-use review”.
B:
“Record only the override user's name without expiry, scope or post-use review” is not the relevant mitigation. Exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. The scenario calls for “Require time-limited monitored break-glass authorization and post-use review”; the acceptance check is “Check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals”.
D:
“Turn off emergency override auditing to avoid delaying urgent employee response” is not the relevant mitigation. Exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. The scenario calls for “Require time-limited monitored break-glass authorization and post-use review”; the acceptance check is “Check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals”.
Question 432
A temporary emergency override bypasses the ordinary data access policy. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify a break-glass account was used but not that all emergency grants were reviewed
Confirm emergency access succeeds but never inspect whether it expires after recovery
Check an incident ticket exists without testing the override's authorized data scope
Check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. The proposed check, “Verify a break-glass account was used but not that all emergency grants were reviewed”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Confirm emergency access succeeds but never inspect whether it expires after recovery” does not show the required outcome: check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals. That test matters because exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent.
C:
Exceptional access must retain accountability without becoming permanent. The proposed check, “Check an incident ticket exists without testing the override's authorized data scope”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check emergency grant timestamps, scope and approvals” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 433
A terminated employee retains third-party SaaS sessions after corporate account disablement. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Coordinate downstream deprovisioning and session revocation across service providers
Disable the corporate directory account and assume all third-party SaaS refresh tokens expire instantly
Send the departed employee a sign-out request without revoking downstream application sessions
Remove the former user from email groups while retaining federated service access tokens
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify the former employee cannot access any connected services.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions. “Disable the corporate directory account and assume all third-party SaaS refresh tokens expire instantly” does not supply that control; “Coordinate downstream deprovisioning and session revocation across service providers” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions. “Send the departed employee a sign-out request without revoking downstream application sessions” addresses neither the required “Coordinate downstream deprovisioning and session revocation across service providers” action nor its supporting evidence: “Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services”.
D:
Disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions. “Remove the former user from email groups while retaining federated service access tokens” does not supply that control; “Coordinate downstream deprovisioning and session revocation across service providers” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services” verifies the result.
Question 434
A terminated employee retains third-party SaaS sessions after corporate account disablement. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review the identity-provider disable event only without testing connected service session state
Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services
Check offboarding ticket closure while old application refresh tokens remain active
Confirm the employee cannot enter the corporate portal but never try direct SaaS access
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review the identity-provider disable event only without testing connected service session state” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services”, reflecting the requirement that disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions.
C:
“Check offboarding ticket closure while old application refresh tokens remain active” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services”, reflecting the requirement that disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions.
D:
“Confirm the employee cannot enter the corporate portal but never try direct SaaS access” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Coordinate downstream deprovisioning and session revocation across service providers” works. Disabling the identity provider may not end existing application sessions. The decisive test is “Verify the former employee cannot access any connected services”.
Question 435
A service account owner leaves the company and nobody maintains the credential. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rotate the service credential once but omit an ongoing owner and scheduled review
Keep the ownerless privileged service account active indefinitely to avoid disrupting workloads
Assign durable ownership, expiry review and rotation duties
Transfer the departing owner's account password to a generic shared mailbox with no named custodian
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Rotate the service credential once but omit an ongoing owner and scheduled review” leaves the essential control missing: nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. The direct corrective action is “Assign durable ownership, expiry review and rotation duties”, validated by the acceptance check “Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities”.
B:
“Keep the ownerless privileged service account active indefinitely to avoid disrupting workloads” would not establish the protection described: nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. The necessary change is “Assign durable ownership, expiry review and rotation duties” with the verification “Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities”.
D:
“Transfer the departing owner's account password to a generic shared mailbox with no named custodian” would not establish the protection described: nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. The necessary change is “Assign durable ownership, expiry review and rotation duties” with the verification “Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities”.
Question 436
A service account owner leaves the company and nobody maintains the credential. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the service still operates without assessing orphaned account accountability
Check that a password change occurred but not the permanent owner assignment
Review the user's termination checklist while privileged machine identities are absent from inventory
Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm the service still operates without assessing orphaned account accountability” would not verify the relevant control. Nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities” because nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. “Check that a password change occurred but not the permanent owner assignment” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Review the user's termination checklist while privileged machine identities are absent from inventory” would not verify the relevant control. Nonhuman accounts require lifecycle owners. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review account inventories for orphaned privileged service identities”.
Question 437
A staff member moves from HR to IT but keeps prior personnel records access. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require MFA for the moved employee but leave unrelated entitlements intact
Ask the employee to stop opening HR records voluntarily instead of reconciling access
Grant new IT permissions without removing legacy HR record access after the role change
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare access grants to current job duties after transfer.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Require MFA for the moved employee but leave unrelated entitlements intact” is not the relevant mitigation. Job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. The scenario calls for “Apply joiner-mover-leaver entitlement reconciliation”; the acceptance check is “Compare access grants to current job duties after transfer”.
C:
The proposal “Ask the employee to stop opening HR records voluntarily instead of reconciling access” does not meet the relevant requirement because job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. The matching remediation is “Apply joiner-mover-leaver entitlement reconciliation”.
D:
“Grant new IT permissions without removing legacy HR record access after the role change” is not the relevant mitigation. Job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. The scenario calls for “Apply joiner-mover-leaver entitlement reconciliation”; the acceptance check is “Compare access grants to current job duties after transfer”.
Question 438
A staff member moves from HR to IT but keeps prior personnel records access. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check account password age while obsolete personnel-data entitlements remain effective
Compare access grants to current job duties after transfer
Confirm the user can access their new IT tools but never attempt old HR records
Review their current job title without comparing actual granted permissions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare access grants to current job duties after transfer.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. The proposed check, “Check account password age while obsolete personnel-data entitlements remain effective”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare access grants to current job duties after transfer” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights. The proposed check, “Confirm the user can access their new IT tools but never attempt old HR records”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare access grants to current job duties after transfer” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Review their current job title without comparing actual granted permissions” does not show the required outcome: compare access grants to current job duties after transfer. That test matters because job transfer should remove stale rights, not merely add new rights.
Question 439
A privileged engineer uses sudo but no commands are attributable after elevation. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Enable sudo for all engineers but log only the shared root account's activity
Require a change ticket before elevation but omit command-level attribution after sudo
Require authenticated privilege elevation and tamper-resistant command audit
Encrypt administrator sessions while permitting anonymous privileged shell history
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. “Enable sudo for all engineers but log only the shared root account's activity” addresses neither the required “Require authenticated privilege elevation and tamper-resistant command audit” action nor its supporting evidence: “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”.
B:
Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. “Require a change ticket before elevation but omit command-level attribution after sudo” does not supply that control; “Require authenticated privilege elevation and tamper-resistant command audit” addresses the identified gap, and “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity” verifies the result.
D:
Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. “Encrypt administrator sessions while permitting anonymous privileged shell history” does not supply that control; “Require authenticated privilege elevation and tamper-resistant command audit” addresses the identified gap, and “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity” verifies the result.
Question 440
A privileged engineer uses sudo but no commands are attributable after elevation. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review aggregate root login counts without linking activity to the original identity
Check approved elevation requests but not tamper-resistant command records
Confirm a sudo password prompt appears but not who executed each elevated command
Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review aggregate root login counts without linking activity to the original identity” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”, reflecting the requirement that privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability.
B:
“Check approved elevation requests but not tamper-resistant command records” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Require authenticated privilege elevation and tamper-resistant command audit” works. Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. The decisive test is “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”.
C:
“Confirm a sudo password prompt appears but not who executed each elevated command” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”, reflecting the requirement that privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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