Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 45
Question 440
A privileged engineer uses sudo but no commands are attributable after elevation. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review aggregate root login counts without linking activity to the original identity
Check approved elevation requests but not tamper-resistant command records
Confirm a sudo password prompt appears but not who executed each elevated command
Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review aggregate root login counts without linking activity to the original identity” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”, reflecting the requirement that privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability.
B:
“Check approved elevation requests but not tamper-resistant command records” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Require authenticated privilege elevation and tamper-resistant command audit” works. Privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability. The decisive test is “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”.
C:
“Confirm a sudo password prompt appears but not who executed each elevated command” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect records connecting elevated actions to named user identity”, reflecting the requirement that privilege elevation without attribution obscures accountability.
Question 441
Quarterly access certification is performed by IT without business-owner review. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require data/resource owners to recertify actual business need
Treat a completed quarterly spreadsheet as sufficient without actually removing rejected grants
Allow IT administrators to approve entitlement renewals without business-data owner involvement
Auto-renew all access certifications if the employee has not filed a complaint
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Treat a completed quarterly spreadsheet as sufficient without actually removing rejected grants” would not establish the protection described: certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. The necessary change is “Require data/resource owners to recertify actual business need” with the verification “Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed”.
C:
“Allow IT administrators to approve entitlement renewals without business-data owner involvement” leaves the essential control missing: certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. The direct corrective action is “Require data/resource owners to recertify actual business need”, validated by the acceptance check “Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed”.
D:
“Auto-renew all access certifications if the employee has not filed a complaint” would not establish the protection described: certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. The necessary change is “Require data/resource owners to recertify actual business need” with the verification “Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed”.
Question 442
Quarterly access certification is performed by IT without business-owner review. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm review forms were sent but not that responsible owners made decisions
Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed
Count certified accounts without sampling actual revocations after denial
Check IT signature presence while sensitive data-access needs remain unreviewed
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm review forms were sent but not that responsible owners made decisions” would not verify the relevant control. Certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed”.
C:
An observation of “Count certified accounts without sampling actual revocations after denial” would not verify the relevant control. Certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Sample owner decisions and verify revoked entitlements are removed” because certification is not simply a technical inventory snapshot. “Check IT signature presence while sensitive data-access needs remain unreviewed” cannot establish that result.
Question 443
Temporary project roles never expire after completion. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require users to submit their own expiry requests after project completion
Keep temporary roles permanently assigned but hide them from the application portal
Use access packages with expiration and periodic reassessment
Grant project entitlements without an end date because the team may collaborate again
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check grant end dates and post-project access tests.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Require users to submit their own expiry requests after project completion” does not meet the relevant requirement because time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. The matching remediation is “Use access packages with expiration and periodic reassessment”.
B:
“Keep temporary roles permanently assigned but hide them from the application portal” is not the relevant mitigation. Time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. The scenario calls for “Use access packages with expiration and periodic reassessment”; the acceptance check is “Check grant end dates and post-project access tests”.
D:
“Grant project entitlements without an end date because the team may collaborate again” is not the relevant mitigation. Time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. The scenario calls for “Use access packages with expiration and periodic reassessment”; the acceptance check is “Check grant end dates and post-project access tests”.
Question 444
Temporary project roles never expire after completion. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check role description text but never attempt access after the scheduled completion
Confirm the project role was granted without verifying a configured expiration date
Review project closure status while participants retain privileged access
Check grant end dates and post-project access tests
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check grant end dates and post-project access tests.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. The proposed check, “Check role description text but never attempt access after the scheduled completion”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check grant end dates and post-project access tests” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Confirm the project role was granted without verifying a configured expiration date” does not show the required outcome: check grant end dates and post-project access tests. That test matters because time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access.
C:
Time-bounded privileges reduce accumulated access. The proposed check, “Review project closure status while participants retain privileged access”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check grant end dates and post-project access tests” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 445
A stale automated user-provisioning feed creates duplicate active identities. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Reconcile immutable identifiers and enforce lifecycle event idempotence
Create a fresh account for every repeated provisioning event regardless of existing immutable identity
Match inbound hires by display name only and merge unrelated users when names collide
Disable reconciliation alerts so duplicate IDs do not slow onboarding
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping. “Create a fresh account for every repeated provisioning event regardless of existing immutable identity” does not supply that control; “Reconcile immutable identifiers and enforce lifecycle event idempotence” addresses the identified gap, and “Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping. “Match inbound hires by display name only and merge unrelated users when names collide” addresses neither the required “Reconcile immutable identifiers and enforce lifecycle event idempotence” action nor its supporting evidence: “Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts”.
D:
Provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping. “Disable reconciliation alerts so duplicate IDs do not slow onboarding” does not supply that control; “Reconcile immutable identifiers and enforce lifecycle event idempotence” addresses the identified gap, and “Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts” verifies the result.
Question 446
A stale automated user-provisioning feed creates duplicate active identities. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check the source employee list but not active duplicate directory identities
Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts
Review provisioning throughput while repeated events silently create separate accounts
Verify one onboarding event creates an account without replaying the same feed message
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Check the source employee list but not active duplicate directory identities” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts”, reflecting the requirement that provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping.
C:
“Review provisioning throughput while repeated events silently create separate accounts” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts”, reflecting the requirement that provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping.
D:
“Verify one onboarding event creates an account without replaying the same feed message” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Reconcile immutable identifiers and enforce lifecycle event idempotence” works. Provisioning reliability depends on stable identity mapping. The decisive test is “Replay onboarding and check for duplicate accounts”.
Question 447
A web portal's password recovery accepts weak personal knowledge questions. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Replace knowledge questions with one email-only recovery link that does not bind to an approved account identity
Continue using personal knowledge questions because they are easy for customers to remember
Replace weak knowledge-based recovery with stronger approved authenticators
Ask for birth date and hometown from public profiles to bypass the stronger authenticator
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Replace knowledge questions with one email-only recovery link that does not bind to an approved account identity” leaves the essential control missing: security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. The direct corrective action is “Replace weak knowledge-based recovery with stronger approved authenticators”, validated by the acceptance check “Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts”.
B:
“Continue using personal knowledge questions because they are easy for customers to remember” would not establish the protection described: security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. The necessary change is “Replace weak knowledge-based recovery with stronger approved authenticators” with the verification “Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts”.
D:
“Ask for birth date and hometown from public profiles to bypass the stronger authenticator” would not establish the protection described: security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. The necessary change is “Replace weak knowledge-based recovery with stronger approved authenticators” with the verification “Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts”.
Question 448
A web portal's password recovery accepts weak personal knowledge questions. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm legitimate users can recover accounts but never attempt an attacker with public biographical facts
Check that recovery answers are hashed while low-entropy knowledge remains guessable
Review password reset email delivery without challenging identity assurance of the requester
Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm legitimate users can recover accounts but never attempt an attacker with public biographical facts” would not verify the relevant control. Security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts” because security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. “Check that recovery answers are hashed while low-entropy knowledge remains guessable” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Review password reset email delivery without challenging identity assurance of the requester” would not verify the relevant control. Security questions are vulnerable when answers are discoverable. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Attempt account takeover using publicly available biographical facts”.
Question 449
A security token application trusts an unverified local device clock for expiry. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Validate token lifetime server-side and control tolerance for clock skew
Allow indefinite clock skew when the token arrives from a trusted mobile device
Treat a token as valid whenever its signature is sound even if its not-before time is in the future
Accept tokens based on an unverified phone clock and ignore server time for expiration
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Allow indefinite clock skew when the token arrives from a trusted mobile device” is not the relevant mitigation. Authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. The scenario calls for “Validate token lifetime server-side and control tolerance for clock skew”; the acceptance check is “Replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens”.
C:
The proposal “Treat a token as valid whenever its signature is sound even if its not-before time is in the future” does not meet the relevant requirement because authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. The matching remediation is “Validate token lifetime server-side and control tolerance for clock skew”.
D:
“Accept tokens based on an unverified phone clock and ignore server time for expiration” is not the relevant mitigation. Authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. The scenario calls for “Validate token lifetime server-side and control tolerance for clock skew”; the acceptance check is “Replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens”.
Question 450
A security token application trusts an unverified local device clock for expiry. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check JWT signature verification only while lifetime constraints remain unenforced
Replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens
Confirm a newly issued token is accepted without testing expired values
Review device clock synchronization settings without server-side claim validation
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. The proposed check, “Check JWT signature verification only while lifetime constraints remain unenforced”, misses the relevant outcome; “Replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity. The proposed check, “Confirm a newly issued token is accepted without testing expired values”, misses the relevant outcome; “Replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Review device clock synchronization settings without server-side claim validation” does not show the required outcome: replay expired and not-yet-valid tokens. That test matters because authenticator validation must establish time and context integrity.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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