Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 3
Question 20
The business strategy prioritizes expansion into regulated jurisdictions. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm that the product was deployed without tracing it to regulated-market obligations
Review domestic policy compliance without checking requirements for the expansion jurisdictions
Count completed infrastructure tasks rather than verify approved security-to-business mappings
Trace jurisdictional obligations to approved business and security objectives
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Security governance should align to business goals before tool selection. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Trace jurisdictional obligations to approved business and security objectives.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Deployment confirmation says the product exists, not that it satisfies obligations of the expansion jurisdictions. Trace each material requirement to an approved objective and control.
B:
Compliance in the current country does not validate a launch into different legal regimes. The assessment must cover the actual target jurisdictions and their requirements.
C:
Completed technical tasks do not demonstrate that business objectives and regulatory obligations were approved and mapped to suitable security requirements.
Question 21
Audit findings recur because no one owns control remediation. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Assign accountable control owners, deadlines and escalation
Hold informal meetings with control operators without assigning decisions or deadlines
Transfer all unresolved exceptions to the security helpdesk without business risk acceptance
Close repeat audit findings when remediation tickets are created, without naming accountable owners
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Governance differs from informal operational ticket closure. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify the risk committee tracks overdue actions and accepted exceptions.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Meetings without named action owners or deadlines cannot prevent the same findings from recurring. Accountable remediation requires explicit assignments and escalation for missed dates.
C:
A helpdesk can track work but cannot automatically accept business risk on behalf of an authorized owner. Unresolved exceptions need a governed risk decision.
D:
Opening a ticket is not remediation. Closing findings at ticket creation hides unresolved control weaknesses and leaves no accountable completion evidence.
Question 22
Audit findings recur because no one owns control remediation. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review helpdesk ticket age without checking risk-committee escalation for unresolved controls
Verify the risk committee tracks overdue actions and accepted exceptions
Count opened remediation tickets without confirming owner, due date or closure evidence
Verify meeting attendance without tracking overdue findings or accountable exceptions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Governance differs from informal operational ticket closure. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify the risk committee tracks overdue actions and accepted exceptions.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Ticket age can indicate backlog, but it does not show whether overdue control risks reached the authorized committee or received a justified exception decision.
C:
The number of tickets opened cannot prove remediation accountability. Confirm an owner, due date, effective corrective action and closure evidence for each recurring finding.
D:
Attendance at a meeting is not evidence that overdue control deficiencies were assigned, escalated or resolved. The test needs action tracking and approved exception records.
Question 23
An organization wants to adopt a recognized control catalog across business units. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Adopt every control in a large catalog with no organizational scoping or applicability analysis
Choose the catalog with the highest number of controls regardless of business risk
Select a fitting framework and tailor control baselines to actual risk
Delegate tailoring entirely to individual system administrators without enterprise governance
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
A named framework is not evidence that every control fits the enterprise. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect traceability from business risks to selected control statements.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Blindly adopting every catalog control ignores applicability and can waste resources while leaving business-specific risks unaddressed. Controls need a scoped justification.
B:
Catalog size is not a risk-management criterion. The chosen baseline must cover relevant threats, obligations and business processes, not maximize a control count.
D:
Uncoordinated administrator choices can produce inconsistent baselines and missing enterprise requirements. Tailoring needs a common risk and governance framework.
Question 24
An organization wants to adopt a recognized control catalog across business units. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Count implemented controls without confirming which requirements apply to each business unit
Accept local administrator attestations without a common approved baseline or rationale
Check that the framework document was purchased without tracing controls to actual risks
Inspect traceability from business risks to selected control statements
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A named framework is not evidence that every control fits the enterprise. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect traceability from business risks to selected control statements.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A control count does not show whether the right controls address each unit's risk. Verify approved applicability and documented risk-to-control traceability.
B:
Local attestations without a shared baseline may reflect incompatible judgments. The acceptance evidence needs enterprise-approved tailoring and reasons for exceptions.
C:
Buying a framework is not evidence of implementation or suitability. Trace actual business risks to selected control statements and verify their treatment.
Question 25
A board asks whether the risk committee is exercising due diligence. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Show documented reviews of threat exposure, treatment choices and follow-up
Record risk committee membership but omit treatment decisions and follow-up
Accept a once-yearly board signature as proof that risk oversight was continuous
Rely exclusively on a current security dashboard without documented committee decisions
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Due diligence is an ongoing informed process, not an annual signature. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to examine recurring meeting evidence and actions with named owners.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Committee membership establishes who attends but gives no evidence that risks were evaluated, treatment decisions made, or assigned actions followed up. A roster alone cannot establish continuing oversight.
C:
An annual signature records a point-in-time acknowledgement, not informed decisions throughout changing threat exposure. Due diligence requires recurring assessment and documented follow-through.
D:
A dashboard may display current measurements without showing who interpreted them, chose a response, or checked completion. The board needs an auditable decision trail, not just metrics.
Question 26
A board asks whether the risk committee is exercising due diligence. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review only the yearly signoff without checking interim risk decisions or changes
Examine recurring meeting evidence and actions with named owners
Confirm dashboards were viewed but not that treatment owners accepted corrective actions
Inspect meeting invitations without examining decisions, follow-ups or reassessments
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Due diligence is an ongoing informed process, not an annual signature. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Examine recurring meeting evidence and actions with named owners.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A single annual approval can miss new exposures and overdue risk treatments arising during the year. Continuous diligence is supported by dated reviews and decisions across the period.
C:
Viewing dashboards says nothing about whether accountable owners accepted or executed corrective actions. Evidence must connect deteriorating indicators to decisions and follow-up.
D:
Invitations show that meetings were scheduled, not that material threats were debated or assigned. Minutes, named decisions and reassessments are needed to demonstrate oversight.
Question 27
A retailer launches services in two countries with divergent privacy requirements. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Treat encryption in transit as sufficient for every jurisdictional processing obligation
Adopt whichever country's privacy rules are less restrictive without mapping actual data flows
Map processing jurisdictions and obtain jurisdiction-specific legal interpretation
Apply the home-country privacy notice to both countries without local legal analysis
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
A universal privacy assumption cannot replace jurisdictional analysis. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect records of data flows, lawful basis and applicable requirements.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Transport encryption protects data in motion but does not establish lawful bases, retention, notices or permitted processing in either market. Those obligations require country-specific analysis of the actual data flows.
B:
Choosing the least restrictive regime can leave processing in the other country noncompliant. The firm must determine which rules apply to each activity before selecting controls.
D:
A notice valid at headquarters may omit required rights or disclosures for the second market. Local legal applicability must be assessed rather than assumed from a copied notice.
Question 28
A retailer launches services in two countries with divergent privacy requirements. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Audit one country's records while excluding the second country's processing activities
Verify that both websites display the same generic privacy notice
Confirm TLS is enabled without examining applicable local obligations or lawful bases
Inspect records of data flows, lawful basis and applicable requirements
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A universal privacy assumption cannot replace jurisdictional analysis. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect records of data flows, lawful basis and applicable requirements.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An audit confined to one jurisdiction cannot establish compliance for customers or employees whose data is processed under the other. Both sets of data flows and obligations must be in the evidence.
B:
Matching privacy notices only proves consistent wording; it does not show either notice reflects the local processing law or lawful basis. Uniformity can preserve the same gap in both markets.
C:
TLS demonstrates a transport safeguard, not the legality of collection, purpose, transfer or retention in each jurisdiction. The test must inspect applicable requirements and documented legal grounds.
Question 29
A software team integrates proprietary code with an unfamiliar open-source license. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Review license obligations before distribution and document compliance
Assume all open-source licenses permit unrestricted proprietary redistribution
Delete the license files from shipped code and rely on procurement approval
Perform a vulnerability scan but omit assessment of redistribution and attribution duties
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Open-source licensing affects redistribution rights independently of security. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify distribution contents and notices comply with chosen licenses.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Open-source licenses differ in redistribution conditions, source disclosure and attribution requirements. Assuming universal permission risks distributing proprietary code under incompatible or unmet terms.
C:
Removing license files can itself violate notice obligations and procurement approval does not replace license compliance. The actual bundled components and notices require legal review.
D:
A vulnerability scan assesses technical weaknesses, not whether distribution triggers copyleft, notice or attribution duties. Licensing obligations need their own review before shipping.
Question 30
A software team integrates proprietary code with an unfamiliar open-source license. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify a security scan passed while leaving license obligations unexamined
Verify distribution contents and notices comply with chosen licenses
Review procurement approval without inspecting the shipped artifacts or license requirements
Confirm the code compiled without checking license notices or distribution conditions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Open-source licensing affects redistribution rights independently of security. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify distribution contents and notices comply with chosen licenses.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Passing a security scan does not demonstrate that the distributable package includes required license notices or complies with redistribution conditions. The acceptance evidence must inspect licensing artifacts.
C:
An approved purchase may authorize use of software without validating obligations imposed by licenses on shipped code. Inspect the delivered components and applicable terms.
D:
Compilation only shows the code builds, even if notices or distribution conditions are missing. A successful build is not a license-compliance test.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
Our team works hard to provide students with high exam practice test questions and compelling learning experiences. We're confident of the quality level of the products we offer and provide no hassle satisfaction guarantee.
Why choose Exam-Labs?613,677+Satisfied Customers since 2015
100% Latest Exam Questions
Accurate & Updated Answers
Regular Free Updates
24/7 Customer Support
Instant Download
Exam Info
ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
Use ISC CISSP certification exam practice test questions, study guide and training course - the complete package at discounted price. Pass with CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional practice test questions and answers, study guide, complete training course especially formatted in VCE files. Latest ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers will guarantee your success without studying for endless hours.
FAQs
ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions and Answers
Do you have questions about our CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional practice test questions and answers or any of our products? If you are not clear about our ISC CISSP exam practice test questions, you can read the FAQ below.
The CISSP Premium File has been developed by industry professionals, who have been working with IT certifications for years and have close ties with IT certification vendors and holders - with most recent exam questions and valid answers.
CISSP Premium File is presented in VCE format. VCE (Virtual CertExam) is a file format that realistically simulates CISSP exam environment, allowing for the most convenient exam preparation you can get - in the convenience of your own home or on the go. If you have ever seen IT exam simulations, chances are, they were in the VCE format.
What is VCE?
VCE is a file format associated with Visual CertExam Software. This format and software are widely used for creating tests for IT certifications. To create and open VCE files, you will need to purchase, download and install VCE Exam Simulator on your computer.
Can I try it for free?
Yes, you can. Look through free VCE files section and download any file you choose absolutely free.
Where do I get VCE Exam Simulator?
VCE Exam Simulator can be purchased from its developer, https://www.avanset.com. Please note that Exam-Labs does not sell or support this software. Should you have any questions or concerns about using this product, please contact Avanset support team directly.
How are Premium VCE files different from Free VCE files?
Premium VCE files have been developed by industry professionals, who have been working with IT certifications for years and have close ties with IT certification vendors and holders - with most recent exam questions and some insider information.
Free VCE files All files are sent by Exam-labs community members. We encourage everyone who has recently taken an exam and/or has come across some braindumps that have turned out to be true to share this information with the community by creating and sending VCE files. We don't say that these free VCEs sent by our members aren't reliable (experience shows that they are). But you should use your critical thinking as to what you download and memorize.
How long will I receive updates for CISSP Premium VCE File that I purchased?
Free updates are available during 30 days after you purchased Premium VCE file. After 30 days the file will become unavailable.
How can I get the products after purchase?
All products are available for download immediately from your Member's Area. Once you have made the payment, you will be transferred to Member's Area where you can login and download the products you have purchased to your PC or another device.
Will I be able to renew my products when they expire?
Yes, when the 30 days of your product validity are over, you have the option of renewing your expired products with a 30% discount. This can be done in your Member's Area.
Please note that you will not be able to use the product after it has expired if you don't renew it.
How often are the questions updated?
We always try to provide the latest pool of questions, Updates in the questions depend on the changes in actual pool of questions by different vendors. As soon as we know about the change in the exam question pool we try our best to update the products as fast as possible.
What is a Study Guide?
Study Guides available on Exam-Labs are built by industry professionals who have been working with IT certifications for years. Study Guides offer full coverage on exam objectives in a systematic approach. Study Guides are very useful for fresh applicants and provides background knowledge about preparation of exams.
How can I open a Study Guide?
Any study guide can be opened by an official Acrobat by Adobe or any other reader application you use.
What is a Training Course?
Training Courses we offer on Exam-Labs in video format are created and managed by IT professionals. The foundation of each course are its lectures, which can include videos, slides and text. In addition, authors can add resources and various types of practice activities, as a way to enhance the learning experience of students.
Enter Your Email Address to Proceed
Please fill out your email address below in order to purchase Certification/Exam.
Enter Your Email Address to Proceed
Please fill out your email address below in order to purchase Demo.
Still Not Convinced?
Download 20 Sample Questions that you Will see in your ISC CISSP exam.