Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 2
Question 10
A transaction system must prove a submitted order was not silently altered. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect database audit logs for order creation without checking a tampered signature or message authentication code
Tamper a signed test message and verify that acceptance fails
Submit an unchanged order and confirm that the system accepts it
Read the order over encrypted transport without attempting any field alteration
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Integrity is distinct from secrecy of a payload. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Tamper a signed test message and verify that acceptance fails.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An audit entry showing order creation does not test whether tampering is detected. The verification must alter a protected message and confirm that its integrity check rejects it.
C:
An unmodified order should normally succeed under both secure and insecure implementations. Only a negative tamper test demonstrates that unauthorized changes are rejected.
D:
Reading traffic over an encrypted channel does not exercise the application's message-integrity check. A changed order must fail authenticated validation, even if transport remains encrypted.
Question 11
A remote administrator must ensure sensitive secrets are unreadable to packet observers. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Hash transmitted passwords but send other secret-bearing request fields in plaintext
Hide sensitive fields in the user interface while transmitting them over unencrypted HTTP
Use appropriately authenticated encrypted transport
Use an anonymous encrypted channel that accepts a forged server certificate
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Confidentiality is not established by hashing the transmitted data. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to capture the connection and verify plaintext secrets are not recoverable.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Hashing a password field does not protect other plaintext secrets in the request. Packet observers could still read tokens or sensitive parameters sent outside authenticated encryption.
B:
Masking characters in the interface protects against shoulder surfing, not network interception. Unencrypted HTTP exposes secret-bearing traffic to observers.
D:
Encryption without reliable server authentication can connect the administrator to an impersonator. Accepting a forged certificate defeats the trusted endpoint requirement and can expose secrets.
Question 12
A remote administrator must ensure sensitive secrets are unreadable to packet observers. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm a connection is established without validating the server identity or observed ciphertext
Review a transport-security policy without inspecting an actual secret-bearing connection
Verify the client UI masks password characters without capturing network packets
Capture the connection and verify plaintext secrets are not recoverable
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Confidentiality is not established by hashing the transmitted data. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Capture the connection and verify plaintext secrets are not recoverable.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A connected session does not prove the server identity was authenticated or that sensitive application data appeared only as ciphertext on the wire.
B:
A written policy cannot establish that an actual connection uses the intended controls. Capture and inspect representative secret-bearing traffic instead of relying on configuration intent.
C:
UI masking is unrelated to what packets carry. Only network observation of the live session can determine whether secrets remain unintelligible to a packet observer.
Question 13
A customer-facing service has correct access rules but fails during a single router outage. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Design redundant capacity and exercise failover
Expand application CPU capacity but leave the only edge-router path unchanged
Add another router on the same failed power circuit without testing alternate routing
Increase authentication restrictions while retaining the single router dependency
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Availability requires resilient operation beyond access control. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to isolate the primary router and measure sustained service availability.
Incorrect Answers
B:
More CPU on the application host does not remove the single edge-router dependency. A router outage will still cut off the otherwise capable service.
C:
A second router on the same power circuit may fail with the first; without an independent path and failover exercise, the original outage scenario is not mitigated.
D:
Stronger login restrictions address authorization, not loss of the only network route. They cannot restore reachability when the primary router fails.
Question 14
A customer-facing service has correct access rules but fails during a single router outage. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Measure successful login while the single primary router is still available
Isolate the primary router and measure sustained service availability
Review access-control logs rather than isolate the failed router path
Confirm redundant server instances exist without forcing a routing failover test
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Availability requires resilient operation beyond access control. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Isolate the primary router and measure sustained service availability.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A successful login while the only router is healthy does not exercise the identified failure mode. The test must remove the primary route and observe continuity.
C:
Access-control logs concern identity decisions, not route resilience. They cannot establish that users retain service when the router path disappears.
D:
Redundant application servers can still share one failed edge route. The acceptance test needs a forced routing failover under real service traffic.
Question 15
A digital approval must be attributable to one signer even if the document is copied. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Attach a typed signer name without verifying control of a signing private key
Use a checksum with no signer-bound credential or trusted certificate
Use a verified digital signature under a controlled private key
Encrypt the approval document with a shared secret and treat confidentiality as signer attribution
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Nonrepudiation depends on key ownership evidence, not merely encryption. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to validate the signature and identity chain and reject a modified document.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A typed name can be copied or edited by anyone with access to the document. It does not cryptographically tie approval to the claimed signer's controlled private key.
B:
A bare checksum detects some changes only when compared with a trusted baseline. It provides no verifiable signer identity or certificate chain for attribution.
D:
A shared encryption secret proves neither which participant approved the document nor who originated the protected copy. Signer attribution requires a verified asymmetric signature.
Question 16
A digital approval must be attributable to one signer even if the document is copied. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify that the typed name is present even when document contents are altered
Decrypt the document successfully without identifying which party signed it
Compare document hashes but never validate the claimed signer's key or chain
Validate the signature and identity chain and reject a modified document
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Nonrepudiation depends on key ownership evidence, not merely encryption. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Validate the signature and identity chain and reject a modified document.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A typed name can remain visible on a modified document; checking its presence never proves integrity or the signer's private-key participation.
B:
Successful decryption demonstrates access to a key, not which person signed the approval. A shared secret offers no independent signer attribution.
C:
Hashes can show differences between versions but do not bind a value to a verified person. The claimed signer's signature and certificate chain must be validated.
Question 17
An acquired subsidiary uses a conflicting security policy and approval chain. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Establish enterprise governance ownership and integrate subsidiary exceptions into risk decisions
Allow each acquired business to keep conflicting approval authorities indefinitely
Replace subsidiary governance review with deployment of a common endpoint agent
Merge policy documents without assigning owners to unresolved subsidiary exceptions
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Governance assigns decision rights, not just technical configuration. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect board-approved accountability and unresolved exception owners.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Parallel, conflicting approval chains leave unresolved authority over risk and exceptions. Enterprise governance must establish who makes the final security decisions after acquisition.
C:
A common endpoint agent standardizes a technical control, not conflicting risk-acceptance authority or policy ownership between organizations.
D:
Combining policy documents without assigning decision makers only conceals the unresolved conflicts. Exceptions need named owners and an accountable approval route.
Question 18
An acquired subsidiary uses a conflicting security policy and approval chain. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Count migrated policy pages without checking exception approval ownership
Inspect board-approved accountability and unresolved exception owners
Confirm each subsidiary published a policy but not whether enterprise approval rights were reconciled
Verify that the endpoint agent is installed without reviewing conflicting decision authority
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Governance assigns decision rights, not just technical configuration. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect board-approved accountability and unresolved exception owners.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A count of moved pages measures document migration, not reconciliation of authority. The evidence must show which owners approve unresolved subsidiary exceptions.
C:
Publication of separate policies does not resolve contradictions between them. The test should verify enterprise-level decision rights and exception accountability.
D:
Endpoint coverage can be complete while governance authority remains inconsistent. Installation records do not demonstrate that conflicting approval paths were resolved.
Question 19
The business strategy prioritizes expansion into regulated jurisdictions. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Delegate the regulated-market launch decision entirely to the infrastructure team
Choose one cloud security product before mapping new jurisdictional obligations
Translate business objectives into documented security requirements and controls
Copy the existing domestic control checklist without assessing new market requirements
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Security governance should align to business goals before tool selection. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to trace jurisdictional obligations to approved business and security objectives.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Infrastructure staff can implement controls but cannot alone decide the business's obligations in each jurisdiction. Compliance needs business ownership and documented security requirements.
B:
Selecting a product before mapping regional obligations risks missing legal, contractual or governance controls the tool does not address. Requirements must drive the selection.
D:
A domestic checklist may omit privacy, residency or regulatory duties in the new markets. Reuse is appropriate only after a jurisdiction-specific gap assessment.
Question 20
The business strategy prioritizes expansion into regulated jurisdictions. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm that the product was deployed without tracing it to regulated-market obligations
Review domestic policy compliance without checking requirements for the expansion jurisdictions
Count completed infrastructure tasks rather than verify approved security-to-business mappings
Trace jurisdictional obligations to approved business and security objectives
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Security governance should align to business goals before tool selection. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Trace jurisdictional obligations to approved business and security objectives.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Deployment confirmation says the product exists, not that it satisfies obligations of the expansion jurisdictions. Trace each material requirement to an approved objective and control.
B:
Compliance in the current country does not validate a launch into different legal regimes. The assessment must cover the actual target jurisdictions and their requirements.
C:
Completed technical tasks do not demonstrate that business objectives and regulatory obligations were approved and mapped to suitable security requirements.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
Our team works hard to provide students with high exam practice test questions and compelling learning experiences. We're confident of the quality level of the products we offer and provide no hassle satisfaction guarantee.
Why choose Exam-Labs?613,677+Satisfied Customers since 2015
100% Latest Exam Questions
Accurate & Updated Answers
Regular Free Updates
24/7 Customer Support
Instant Download
Exam Info
ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
Use ISC CISSP certification exam practice test questions, study guide and training course - the complete package at discounted price. Pass with CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional practice test questions and answers, study guide, complete training course especially formatted in VCE files. Latest ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers will guarantee your success without studying for endless hours.
FAQs
ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions and Answers
Do you have questions about our CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional practice test questions and answers or any of our products? If you are not clear about our ISC CISSP exam practice test questions, you can read the FAQ below.
The CISSP Premium File has been developed by industry professionals, who have been working with IT certifications for years and have close ties with IT certification vendors and holders - with most recent exam questions and valid answers.
CISSP Premium File is presented in VCE format. VCE (Virtual CertExam) is a file format that realistically simulates CISSP exam environment, allowing for the most convenient exam preparation you can get - in the convenience of your own home or on the go. If you have ever seen IT exam simulations, chances are, they were in the VCE format.
What is VCE?
VCE is a file format associated with Visual CertExam Software. This format and software are widely used for creating tests for IT certifications. To create and open VCE files, you will need to purchase, download and install VCE Exam Simulator on your computer.
Can I try it for free?
Yes, you can. Look through free VCE files section and download any file you choose absolutely free.
Where do I get VCE Exam Simulator?
VCE Exam Simulator can be purchased from its developer, https://www.avanset.com. Please note that Exam-Labs does not sell or support this software. Should you have any questions or concerns about using this product, please contact Avanset support team directly.
How are Premium VCE files different from Free VCE files?
Premium VCE files have been developed by industry professionals, who have been working with IT certifications for years and have close ties with IT certification vendors and holders - with most recent exam questions and some insider information.
Free VCE files All files are sent by Exam-labs community members. We encourage everyone who has recently taken an exam and/or has come across some braindumps that have turned out to be true to share this information with the community by creating and sending VCE files. We don't say that these free VCEs sent by our members aren't reliable (experience shows that they are). But you should use your critical thinking as to what you download and memorize.
How long will I receive updates for CISSP Premium VCE File that I purchased?
Free updates are available during 30 days after you purchased Premium VCE file. After 30 days the file will become unavailable.
How can I get the products after purchase?
All products are available for download immediately from your Member's Area. Once you have made the payment, you will be transferred to Member's Area where you can login and download the products you have purchased to your PC or another device.
Will I be able to renew my products when they expire?
Yes, when the 30 days of your product validity are over, you have the option of renewing your expired products with a 30% discount. This can be done in your Member's Area.
Please note that you will not be able to use the product after it has expired if you don't renew it.
How often are the questions updated?
We always try to provide the latest pool of questions, Updates in the questions depend on the changes in actual pool of questions by different vendors. As soon as we know about the change in the exam question pool we try our best to update the products as fast as possible.
What is a Study Guide?
Study Guides available on Exam-Labs are built by industry professionals who have been working with IT certifications for years. Study Guides offer full coverage on exam objectives in a systematic approach. Study Guides are very useful for fresh applicants and provides background knowledge about preparation of exams.
How can I open a Study Guide?
Any study guide can be opened by an official Acrobat by Adobe or any other reader application you use.
What is a Training Course?
Training Courses we offer on Exam-Labs in video format are created and managed by IT professionals. The foundation of each course are its lectures, which can include videos, slides and text. In addition, authors can add resources and various types of practice activities, as a way to enhance the learning experience of students.
Enter Your Email Address to Proceed
Please fill out your email address below in order to purchase Certification/Exam.
Enter Your Email Address to Proceed
Please fill out your email address below in order to purchase Demo.
Still Not Convinced?
Download 20 Sample Questions that you Will see in your ISC CISSP exam.