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Question 161
A security administrator is designing a new enterprise authentication system that must ensure user credentials are never transmitted in cleartext over the network. The organization also requires mutual authentication between the client and server. Which of the following technologies would best meet these requirements?
( A ) LDAP simple bind
( B ) Kerberos
( C ) TACACS+
( D ) RADIUS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that provides secure and reliable authentication across untrusted networks by leveraging symmetric key cryptography and a ticket-based mechanism. Its primary objective is to allow users and services to authenticate each other without transmitting passwords over the network, thereby protecting credentials from interception or eavesdropping. The protocol operates through a centralized entity called the Key Distribution Center (KDC), which consists of two main components: the Authentication Server (AS) and the Ticket Granting Server (TGS). When a user logs in, they first authenticate with the AS, which verifies the user’s credentials and issues a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT). This TGT serves as proof of authentication and can be presented to the TGS whenever the user needs to access network services. By using tickets instead of repeatedly transmitting passwords, Kerberos significantly reduces the risk of credential theft and replay attacks.
A key feature of Kerberos is mutual authentication. Not only does the client verify the server, but the server also verifies the client, ensuring that both parties are legitimate. This mutual verification protects against common network attacks such as man-in-the-middle or spoofing attempts. In contrast, other authentication protocols have limitations that make them less secure in certain scenarios. For example, LDAP simple bind transmits credentials in plaintext unless combined with SSL/TLS, leaving it vulnerable to interception. RADIUS encrypts only the user password and does not provide mutual authentication, making it less effective for end-to-end security. TACACS+, while encrypting the entire payload, is primarily designed for controlling access to network devices rather than general enterprise authentication.
Question 162
A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with implementing encryption for data at rest within a company’s cloud infrastructure. Which method best protects stored data without significantly impacting application performance?
( A ) Asymmetric key encryption for all stored files
( B ) Symmetric key encryption using AES
( C ) Hashing algorithms like SHA-512
( D ) Transport Layer Security (TLS) sessions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is widely regarded as the most suitable choice for encrypting data at rest due to its combination of strong security, efficiency, and versatility. As a symmetric key encryption algorithm, AES uses a single secret key for both encryption and decryption, which allows for rapid processing and minimal computational overhea( D ) This characteristic makes it highly effective for securing large volumes of stored data without significantly impacting system performance. AES supports multiple key lengths—128, 192, and 256 bits—offering flexibility in balancing security requirements and processing efficiency. The algorithm is designed to withstand contemporary cryptographic attacks, including brute-force attempts, making it reliable for long-term data protection.
Unlike AES, asymmetric encryption methods such as RSA use a pair of keys, public and private, which introduces considerably more computational complexity. While RSA is well-suited for secure key exchange or digital signatures, its slower performance and high resource requirements make it impractical for encrypting large datasets or storage systems. Similarly, hashing algorithms like SHA-512 cannot be used for encrypting data because they are one-way functions designed solely for integrity verification rather than reversible encryption. TLS (Transport Layer Security), another commonly referenced cryptographic technology, is intended to protect data in transit between systems rather than data at rest, and therefore does not provide a solution for stored information.
AES is widely implemented across both software and hardware platforms, enabling seamless integration into various storage solutions, including cloud storage, enterprise databases, and file systems. Many cloud providers and enterprise applications leverage AES to ensure that sensitive data, backups, and archives remain secure even if physical storage devices are lost, stolen, or compromise( D ) With proper key management practices, including secure generation, storage, rotation, and revocation, AES can provide strong confidentiality guarantees while maintaining high operational efficiency. Its performance, proven security, and adaptability make AES an ideal standard for organizations seeking to protect stored information against unauthorized access or data breaches.
Question 163
An enterprise needs to secure interoffice communications over a public WAN connection. Which technology should be implemented to ensure confidentiality, authentication, and integrity?
( A ) VPN using IPSec
( B ) SNMPv3
( C ) SFTP
( D ) SMTP with TLS
Answer: A
Explanation:
IPSec-based Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) are widely regarded as one of the most effective solutions for securing communications over public networks. They provide a comprehensive approach to network security by ensuring encryption, authentication, and data integrity for all IP traffic exchanged between hosts, gateways, or entire networks. By encrypting IP packets, IPSec ensures that intercepted data remains unreadable to unauthorized parties, protecting sensitive information during transmission. The protocol can operate in two modes: transport mode, which secures communication between individual hosts, and tunnel mode, which protects traffic between entire networks, making it highly versatile for enterprise environments with complex network topologies.
The security features of IPSec extend beyond encryption. Authentication mechanisms ensure that only authorized devices can participate in the VPN, while integrity checks using hashing algorithms such as SHA or MD5 verify that data has not been tampered with in transit. IPSec relies on security associations (SAs) to define the parameters of secure communications, including encryption and authentication algorithms, key lengths, and lifetime settings. Organizations often integrate certificate-based authentication within IPSec VPNs to establish trust between endpoints, further enhancing security against spoofing or man-in-the-middle attacks. Encryption algorithms such as AES or 3DES provide robust protection, ensuring that sensitive corporate data remains confidential even if transmitted across untrusted networks such as the public internet.
Compared to other security technologies, IPSec offers a more generalized solution for protecting all network traffi( C ) While SNMPv3 improves the security of network monitoring, it does not encrypt general data transmissions. SFTP provides secure file transfers but does not protect continuous network communications. Similarly, TLS-secured SMTP only protects email traffi( C ) IPSec VPNs, on the other hand, create a secure communication channel for any IP-based application or protocol, making them ideal for enterprise environments where multiple sites, remote employees, and cloud services must exchange sensitive data safely.
Question 164
A penetration tester identifies that a web application uses default administrative credentials. Which mitigation step should the organization prioritize?
( A ) Disable user account creation
( B ) Enforce strong password policies and remove defaults
( C ) Implement SSL/TLS on the web portal
( D ) Restrict access through firewall ACLs only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Default administrative credentials pose one of the most significant security risks in any IT environment because they provide attackers with a straightforward way to gain full access to systems, applications, and network devices. Many devices and software products are shipped with default usernames and passwords intended to simplify initial setup, but if these credentials are left unchanged, they become a highly predictable entry point for malicious actors. Exploiting default credentials can allow attackers to bypass other security controls, modify configurations, exfiltrate sensitive data, or even deploy ransomware across the network. Therefore, addressing this vulnerability is a foundational step in securing any system.
The primary mitigation strategy is to immediately change all default administrative credentials during installation or deployment. Strong password policies should be enforced, requiring complex, unique passwords that combine letters, numbers, and special characters. Policies should also mandate periodic rotation and prohibit password reuse to further reduce the likelihood of compromise. While encryption protocols such as SSL or TLS secure data in transit, they do not mitigate the risk posed by weak or default authentication. Similarly, network-level controls such as access control lists (ACLs) on firewalls can restrict access to certain IP addresses but cannot prevent an attacker who already has valid credentials from gaining full control. Disabling user account creation or limiting user permissions without addressing default passwords also fails to resolve the core vulnerability.
Organizations should complement password management with regular auditing and automated tools to identify any remaining default credentials on networked systems, including routers, switches, servers, and cloud services. Once default passwords are replaced, implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) adds an additional layer of protection, requiring users to provide secondary verification such as a one-time token or biometric factor. Combining strong password practices, routine audits, and MFA significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access, aligns with cybersecurity frameworks like NIST 800-53, and strengthens overall resilience against attacks targeting administrative accounts. Regular training and awareness programs for administrators also help ensure these practices are consistently applied, creating a culture of security hygiene that prevents easy exploitation through default credentials.
Question 165
An organization plans to deploy a new public key infrastructure (PKI). What is the main function of a certificate revocation list (CRL) within the PKI?
( A ) Stores all issued certificates permanently
( B ) Lists certificates that are expired and replaced
( C ) Identifies and invalidates certificates before their expiration date
( D ) Generates new key pairs for compromised certificates
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is a crucial mechanism within a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) that helps maintain the integrity and trustworthiness of digital communications. In a PKI environment, digital certificates serve as the foundation for authentication, encryption, and digital signatures, allowing entities to verify identities and securely exchange information. However, there are situations where a certificate, even before its scheduled expiration date, must be invalidate( D ) This could occur if a private key is compromised, if a certificate was issued incorrectly, if the owner’s affiliation changes, or if other security concerns arise. In such cases, the certificate is revoked, and its details are added to the CRL.
The CRL is published and maintained by the Certificate Authority (CA) that issued the certificates. It is periodically updated and made available to clients, servers, and applications that rely on certificate validation. When a system or user attempts to verify a certificate, it can reference the CRL to determine whether the certificate is still valid or has been revoke( D ) This step is essential because using a revoked certificate can expose users and organizations to a range of security risks, including impersonation, man-in-the-middle attacks, or unauthorized access to sensitive systems. Unlike expired certificates, which automatically become invalid, revoked certificates require immediate recognition and rejection to prevent misuse.
CRLs are typically distributed in a standardized format and can be accessed through network locations specified in the certificate itself, often via HTTP or LDAP. While some newer technologies, such as the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), allow real-time revocation checking, CRLs remain a widely supported and fundamental part of PKI operations. It is important to understand that CRLs do not involve automatic key regeneration or permanent storage of certificates for future use; their sole purpose is to list certificates that should no longer be truste( D ) By consulting CRLs during authentication and secure communication processes, organizations ensure that only valid, trusted certificates are used, thereby protecting data integrity, preventing unauthorized access, and maintaining confidence in digital interactions across enterprise environments.
Question 166
A security engineer is configuring access controls for a financial application that requires the highest level of assurance. Which access control model ensures users only access data relevant to their job roles while preventing privilege escalation?
( A ) Mandatory Access Control
( B ) Role-Based Access Control
( C ) Discretionary Access Control
( D ) Attribute-Based Access Control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an access management approach that assigns permissions to users according to their job responsibilities rather than granting access individually. This methodology ensures that employees can perform their necessary duties without being granted excessive privileges, effectively supporting the principle of least privilege. By restricting access based on roles, RBAC minimizes the risk of unauthorized access and helps prevent accidental or malicious misuse of sensitive information. In industries such as finance, healthcare, or large enterprises, where confidential data like client records, financial transactions, or operational details must be closely protected, RBAC provides a structured and manageable way to enforce security policies while maintaining operational efficiency.
RBAC contrasts with other access control models in both flexibility and applicability. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is highly rigid, using fixed security labels and clearance levels to determine access, which is ideal for military or government environments with strict classification rules. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) offers resource owners the ability to assign access to their own files or systems, but this can lead to inconsistent security practices and accidental exposure of sensitive dat( A ) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC), on the other hand, evaluates dynamic attributes such as user location, device type, time of access, or other contextual factors. While ABAC offers fine-grained control, it is more complex to implement and manage at scale, requiring sophisticated policy engines and real-time evaluation.
RBAC provides a practical balance of security, simplicity, and scalability for organizations. It simplifies administration by grouping permissions into roles rather than assigning individual permissions to each user. This approach ensures consistent policy enforcement and reduces administrative errors, which is particularly important in large organizations with frequent personnel changes. Additionally, RBAC mitigates insider threats by limiting the ability to alter access rights to system administrators, ensuring that sensitive resources remain protecte( D ) Its compatibility with centralized directory services, such as Active Directory or LDAP, allows for seamless integration into enterprise environments, making it easier to manage access as organizations grow. Overall, RBAC offers an effective, scalable, and secure framework for controlling access and maintaining operational integrity.
Question 167
A security consultant is reviewing a company’s backup strategy and notices all data backups are stored in the same physical building as the primary servers. What is the most significant risk in this configuration?
( A ) Unauthorized access by employees
( B ) Data loss due to physical disasters
( C ) Reduced network performance
( D ) Backup file corruption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Storing backups in the same physical location as production servers presents a significant risk to data availability and business continuity. In the event of a catastrophic incident such as a natural disaster, fire, flood, or theft, both the primary data and its backups could be destroyed simultaneously. This defeats the very purpose of having backups, which is to ensure data can be restored not only from routine errors like accidental deletion or file corruption but also from large-scale disasters that could compromise the entire IT infrastructure. Consequently, relying solely on local backups creates a single point of failure, leaving organizations highly vulnerable to permanent data loss.
To mitigate this risk, best practices dictate that backups should be stored in geographically separate locations. Offsite storage, whether through a secure data center or a cloud-based solution, provides resilience against local disasters. By physically separating backup copies from the production environment, organizations can ensure that at least one copy of critical data remains safe and recoverable in case of a regional incident. Additionally, backup data must be protected against unauthorized access. While encryption and access control mechanisms do not address physical disaster risks, they are essential for maintaining confidentiality and preventing unauthorized disclosure or tampering.
Modern backup strategies often follow the 3-2-1 rule: maintaining at least three copies of data, stored on two different types of media, with one copy located offsite. This approach ensures redundancy, enhances recovery options, and aligns with compliance requirements for data protection and disaster recovery planning. Regular verification and testing of backup integrity are also crucial, as they confirm that stored copies are usable when needed and free from corruption. By combining offsite storage, encryption, diversified media, and routine testing, organizations create a robust data protection strategy that guarantees continuity even in the face of catastrophic events. Properly implemented, this approach safeguards operational stability, reduces potential financial losses, and supports long-term organizational resilience.
Question 168
A security analyst detects that employees are accessing company resources from personal devices not managed by IT. Which control should be implemented to reduce associated security risks?
( A ) Network Access Control (NAC)
( B ) Virtual Local Area Network segmentation
( C ) Port security on switches
( D ) Static IP assignments
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Access Control (NAC) is a critical security mechanism that enforces organizational policies on devices attempting to connect to a network. Its primary function is to ensure that only devices meeting specific security requirements are granted access to corporate resources. NAC evaluates endpoints against a range of criteria, including up-to-date antivirus software, operating system patch levels, approved configurations, and compliance with security policies. This is particularly important in modern bring-your-own-device (BYOD) environments, where employees connect personal devices that may not be managed or secured by the organization. By verifying device compliance before network access is allowed, NAC significantly reduces the risk of malware propagation, data breaches, and unauthorized access.
Unlike static network controls such as VLAN segmentation or port security, which primarily organize traffic and restrict access based on network topology, NAC operates at the endpoint level and enforces dynamic security policies. VLANs and port security cannot assess whether a device is running outdated software or infected with malware, whereas NAC can block or quarantine noncompliant devices until they meet policy standards. Static IP assignments provide very limited security value because attackers can bypass them easily, and they do not ensure endpoint integrity. NAC, on the other hand, integrates with directory services, allowing it to verify both user identity and device health. This integration enables organizations to apply access policies dynamically, granting varying levels of network access based on the trustworthiness of the device and the user.
In practice, NAC systems can redirect noncompliant devices to remediation networks where they can receive updates or security patches before gaining full access. This proactive approach ensures that endpoints are not just authenticated but also secure, protecting the enterprise infrastructure from potential vulnerabilities. Additionally, NAC provides visibility into all devices connected to the network, enabling administrators to monitor compliance, detect anomalies, and respond to threats more effectively. By enforcing endpoint security and access policies in real-time, NAC strengthens the overall security posture of an organization, ensuring that only trusted, verified devices communicate on the corporate network.
Question 169
During a forensic investigation, an analyst needs to ensure that digital evidence collected remains admissible in court. Which process best ensures the integrity of that evidence?
( A ) Encrypting the evidence files
( B ) Maintaining a strict chain of custody
( C ) Creating compressed archives of evidence
( D ) Using automated forensic imaging tools
Answer: B
Explanation:
The chain of custody is a fundamental process in digital forensics that ensures the integrity, authenticity, and legal admissibility of evidence throughout an investigation. It involves detailed documentation of every interaction with the evidence, recording who collected it, who handled it, when and where it was accessed, and how it was transferred or store( D ) This meticulous tracking prevents tampering, accidental contamination, or unauthorized modifications, which could compromise the value of the evidence in both technical analysis and legal proceedings. Without a properly maintained chain of custody, even valid evidence could be rendered inadmissible in court because there would be no verifiable assurance that it had remained unchanged from the time of collection.
While technical measures such as encryption and backups are important for protecting digital evidence from external threats or data loss, they alone do not replace the need for chain of custody documentation. Encryption secures the content of files, and backups preserve copies, but neither provides proof of who accessed or handled the evidence or whether it was altered between stages of the investigation. Similarly, automated forensic tools can collect and process data efficiently, but they cannot substitute for the formal procedures and accountability established through proper chain of custody practices.
A critical component of maintaining the chain of custody involves verifying the integrity of digital evidence at each stage, typically using cryptographic hash functions like MD5 or SHA-256. By generating a hash value when evidence is collected and comparing it at subsequent stages, forensic analysts can detect any unauthorized or accidental changes. If a hash mismatch occurs, it signals potential tampering, prompting immediate review of procedures and documentation.
Question 170
A system administrator discovers that multiple accounts are locked out simultaneously across different servers. What is the most probable cause?
( A ) User error due to forgotten passwords
( B ) Brute-force or dictionary attack
( C ) Domain replication delay
( D ) Account expiration policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Simultaneous account lockouts across multiple systems are often a clear indicator of a brute-force or dictionary attack, which are among the most common forms of automated password-guessing attempts. In these attacks, an adversary systematically tries a large number of possible passwords against one or more accounts in order to gain unauthorized access. Because most organizations enforce account lockout policies to prevent repeated login failures, the rapid, successive attempts characteristic of such attacks frequently trigger these lockouts across multiple systems at the same time. This simultaneous response is distinct from typical user errors, which usually affect only one or a few accounts and occur sporadically rather than in a coordinated pattern.
Other potential causes of account lockouts, such as domain replication delays, generally lead to temporary inconsistencies or synchronization issues rather than a coordinated lockout event across all systems. Similarly, account expiration policies simply deactivate accounts at predetermined times and do not result in sudden lockouts triggered by repeated login failures. Therefore, when multiple accounts lock out simultaneously, it is critical for security teams to consider the likelihood of a deliberate attack rather than assuming accidental user error or administrative issues.
To investigate, security teams should promptly review authentication and event logs to identify patterns of failed login attempts. Correlating timestamps, tracking targeted usernames—often common administrative or service accounts—and identifying originating IP addresses can help pinpoint the source of the attack. Blocking or blacklisting suspicious IP addresses and alerting the incident response team are immediate mitigation steps.
Question 171
An organization wants to strengthen its incident response capability by ensuring rapid communication during security breaches. Which step is most important for improving response coordination?
( A ) Implementing automated patch management
( B ) Developing and testing an incident communication plan
( C ) Installing real-time monitoring dashboards
( D ) Training all employees on password management
Answer: B
Explanation:
An effective incident communication plan is a critical component of a comprehensive cybersecurity strategy, providing a structured approach for sharing information during security events. Cybersecurity incidents, such as ransomware attacks, data breaches, or system compromises, often create high-pressure situations where quick, accurate communication is essential to minimize damage. Without a clear communication plan, organizations risk confusion, delays in containment, misinformed decision-making, and inconsistent messaging both internally and externally.
A well-defined plan outlines who needs to be informed at each stage of an incident, establishing a clear hierarchy and assigning responsibilities to specific roles. Escalation procedures ensure that critical issues are reported to senior management or incident response teams promptly, allowing for timely decision-making. The plan also specifies approved channels for communication, whether through secure email, messaging systems, or direct phone calls, which helps prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information. Predefined message templates are often included to standardize notifications, ensuring consistency, clarity, and compliance with legal or regulatory requirements during high-stress scenarios.
While technical measures such as patch management, intrusion detection systems, or continuous monitoring play essential roles in detecting and preventing security incidents, they cannot replace the human element required for coordinating response efforts. Similarly, general security awareness initiatives, such as password training, improve individual behavior but do not directly address the flow of information during an active incident.
Question 172
A network engineer needs to prevent attackers from determining internal IP addresses through outbound traffi( C ) Which technique should be used?
( A ) Network Address Translation (NAT)
( B ) VLAN segmentation
( C ) Proxy chaining
( D ) Packet filtering firewalls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a critical networking technique that helps organizations manage their IP address space and enhance security by masking internal IP addresses from external networks. Essentially, NAT translates private IP addresses used within an internal network into a public IP address, or a set of public addresses, before traffic leaves the internal network. This translation ensures that external entities only see the public-facing IP address, preventing them from directly accessing or mapping internal devices. By hiding the structure and addressing of the internal network, NAT reduces the risk of reconnaissance attacks, such as network scanning or footprinting, which attackers often use to identify vulnerable hosts and services.
Beyond security, NAT provides significant operational benefits. IPv4 address exhaustion has been a longstanding challenge for organizations, and NAT allows multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address or a limited pool of public addresses. This efficient use of addressing conserves scarce public IP resources and simplifies network management by decoupling internal addressing schemes from external routing. NAT can be implemented in different forms depending on organizational requirements. Static NAT maps a specific internal IP to a specific public IP, ensuring predictable addressing for certain services. Dynamic NAT assigns public addresses from a pool on an as-needed basis, while Port Address Translation (PAT), also called NAT overload, allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP by differentiating connections through port numbers.
While NAT provides privacy and mitigates direct exposure to external threats, it complements rather than replaces other security measures. For instance, VLAN segmentation divides networks logically to limit broadcast domains and improve traffic management but does not hide IP addresses from external observers. Proxy chaining can obscure origins at higher layers of communication but introduces latency and complexity, making it less suitable for general-purpose network operations. Packet-filtering firewalls enforce traffic rules based on IP addresses and ports but do not modify IP headers, so they cannot conceal internal networks.
Question 173
A company’s web server is frequently targeted by SQL injection attacks. What is the best long-term solution to mitigate this threat?
( A ) Deploying a web application firewall
( B ) Applying regular patches to the database server
( C ) Conducting penetration tests quarterly
( D ) Using parameterized queries in code
Answer: D
Explanation:
Parameterized queries, also referred to as prepared statements, are one of the most reliable techniques for defending against SQL injection attacks within application development. These queries ensure that user input is processed strictly as data rather than executable SQL commands, effectively isolating variables from the actual query logi( C ) This separation prevents attackers from injecting malicious SQL statements that could otherwise manipulate databases, expose sensitive information, or compromise system integrity. In contrast to string concatenation, where user input is directly appended to SQL statements, parameterized queries use placeholders that the database interprets securely, eliminating opportunities for unintended command execution.
Although web application firewalls (WAFs) can provide an additional layer of protection by filtering suspicious traffic, they serve as a supplementary measure rather than a complete defense. A determined or highly skilled attacker may still bypass WAF filters through obfuscation or novel attack patterns. Similarly, keeping software and database systems regularly patched is important to address known vulnerabilities, but patching alone cannot mitigate risks that stem from insecure coding practices or improper query construction.
Penetration testing, while valuable for uncovering vulnerabilities, focuses primarily on identifying potential weaknesses rather than resolving them. Its role complements secure coding by validating the effectiveness of implemented defenses and uncovering overlooked flaws. However, true prevention requires embedding security into the development process itself, and parameterized queries represent a key component of this proactive approach.
Implementing parameterized queries aligns with secure development lifecycle (SDLC) standards and best practices such as those outlined in OWASP guidelines. To maximize their effectiveness, organizations should combine this approach with comprehensive input validation, least-privilege access for database accounts, and regular code reviews. These additional measures ensure that applications remain resilient even as databases evolve or input sources expan( D )
Question 174
A CISO wants to ensure that third-party vendors follow the same security policies as internal staff when accessing company systems remotely. Which control type achieves this objective?
( A ) Administrative control
( B ) Technical control
( C ) Physical control
( D ) Detective control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative controls refer to organizational policies, standards, and procedures that define expected behavior and enforce security compliance among all personnel, including third-party vendors. These controls include contractual requirements, security training, access management rules, and compliance auditing. By formalizing expectations in vendor agreements and ensuring that partners adhere to internal security frameworks, organizations maintain consistent protection across external access points. Technical controls such as firewalls and encryption enforce mechanisms but don’t ensure policy alignment. Physical controls address building or device security, while detective controls identify incidents after occurrence. Administrative measures establish accountability, enforce due diligence, and can be supported by security awareness programs or mandatory assessments. They form the foundation upon which technical and operational defenses are built, ensuring external entities maintain the same security posture as internal users when handling sensitive systems remotely.
Question 175
A security operations team is implementing log retention policies. Why is maintaining historical log data essential for cybersecurity operations?
( A ) It allows faster system performance
( B ) It enables investigation and compliance auditing
( C ) It prevents system configuration changes
( D ) It ensures encryption of stored data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Historical log data serves as a critical component for detecting security incidents, performing forensic investigations, and meeting regulatory compliance requirements. Logs provide a timeline of system and user activities that help analysts reconstruct events leading to an attack. Without adequate retention, evidence may be lost, hindering the ability to identify the root cause of breaches or demonstrate due diligence to auditors. While encryption and configuration management are important, they do not fulfill forensic or compliance needs. Log retention duration depends on business and legal requirements, such as PCI-DSS or ISO 27001, which mandate specific timeframes. Properly stored and protected logs also enable correlation through security information and event management (SIEM) tools, improving threat detection accuracy. Maintaining this data ensures traceability, accountability, and continuous improvement of an organization’s overall security posture.
Question 176
A company has recently adopted a hybrid cloud model. The security team must ensure that data transmitted between on-premises servers and cloud environments remains confidential and tamper-proof. Which technology best fulfills this requirement?
( A ) Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
( B ) TLS-based VPN tunnel
( C ) Network segmentation
( D ) File integrity monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation:
A TLS-based VPN tunnel provides encrypted and authenticated communication channels between on-premises and cloud systems, ensuring that data transferred across public networks remains confidential and intact. This technology combines the cryptographic strength of Transport Layer Security with VPN tunneling to create a secure path where traffic cannot be intercepted or modified by unauthorized parties. While DLP tools prevent sensitive data from being leaked or exfiltrated, they do not encrypt traffi( C ) Network segmentation separates internal zones for security management but does not protect data during transmission. File integrity monitoring, meanwhile, checks local files for unauthorized changes rather than securing network communication.
TLS-based VPNs authenticate endpoints using certificates or pre-shared keys, ensuring that both communicating parties are verified before establishing the tunnel. This prevents man-in-the-middle attacks and data tampering during transit. Additionally, such tunnels can be configured with modern encryption suites like AES-256 combined with SHA-2 hashing for maximum protection. Organizations employing hybrid cloud models rely heavily on these tunnels to synchronize applications, transfer databases, and perform administrative functions securely. Properly managed keys, certificate renewals, and mutual authentication further ensure resilience against interception. This makes TLS VPNs the preferred approach for hybrid architectures that prioritize data integrity and confidentiality over shared or public infrastructure.
Question 177
An organization wants to deploy a centralized security event management system capable of correlating data from multiple sources to detect advanced threats. Which solution best meets this goal?
( A ) Network intrusion detection system
( B ) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
( C ) Endpoint detection and response
( D ) Host-based firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems collect, aggregate, and analyze log data from numerous sources such as servers, firewalls, routers, and applications to identify patterns indicative of malicious activity. This centralized approach provides real-time visibility and historical analysis capabilities that individual tools cannot achieve. SIEM platforms utilize correlation rules, analytics, and threat intelligence feeds to detect complex, multi-stage attacks that would otherwise go unnotice( D )
A network intrusion detection system monitors network traffic for suspicious signatures but lacks the cross-source correlation and context a SIEM provides. Endpoint detection tools focus solely on device-level anomalies, and host-based firewalls primarily restrict inbound or outbound connections. SIEM technology integrates all these inputs into a unified view, allowing security teams to pinpoint coordinated attacks, insider threats, and compliance violations efficiently. Modern SIEMs also leverage machine learning and behavioral analytics to improve detection accuracy, automatically prioritize alerts, and facilitate incident response workflows. For compliance-driven organizations, SIEM tools streamline reporting for standards such as ISO 27001, HIPAA, and PCI-DSS by maintaining auditable event histories. Hence, implementing a SIEM is the optimal way to unify and enhance enterprise-wide monitoring.
Question 178
A data center administrator needs to ensure continuous operation even if the main power supply fails. Which solution provides the most effective short-term power continuity?
( A ) Backup generator
( B ) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
( C ) Power conditioning unit
( D ) Dual power feeds
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) provides immediate backup power in the event of a main power failure, ensuring systems continue operating long enough for safe shutdowns or transition to backup generators. Unlike generators, which take time to start, a UPS delivers power instantaneously through its internal batteries or capacitors. This prevents data loss, hardware damage, and downtime during short outages. Power conditioning units stabilize voltage but cannot maintain power independently, while dual power feeds provide redundancy but still rely on external sources.
UPS systems come in different types—standby, line-interactive, and online double-conversion—each designed for varying reliability levels. Data centers typically use online UPS models that provide continuous clean power by isolating sensitive equipment from fluctuations. Beyond providing emergency power, a UPS also filters electrical noise and protects equipment from surges. For mission-critical operations, UPS systems are often paired with generators, allowing them to sustain operations seamlessly during extended outages. Routine maintenance, battery checks, and load balancing are essential to maintain readiness. By ensuring uninterrupted availability, a UPS acts as the first line of defense against unexpected power disruptions.
Question 179
An organization is developing a security awareness training program. Which topic should be prioritized to reduce the likelihood of successful phishing attacks?
( A ) Data classification policies
( B ) Recognizing social engineering techniques
( C ) Secure software coding standards
( D ) Network topology understanding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Training employees to recognize social engineering techniques directly addresses the human element exploited in phishing attacks. Phishing relies on psychological manipulation, convincing users to disclose credentials, open malicious attachments, or click harmful links. Awareness programs that focus on identifying suspicious emails, verifying sender authenticity, and avoiding unverified requests significantly reduce the risk of successful compromise.
Data classification policies and coding standards are vital for governance and development security but do not tackle phishing-related threats. Network topology training has minimal impact on user vigilance. Effective phishing awareness sessions include simulations, scenario-based learning, and regular testing to reinforce correct behavior. Employees should learn to verify URLs, avoid sharing sensitive data over email, and report suspected messages immediately. Continuous reinforcement through periodic reminders and real-world examples ensures that staff remain alert against evolving phishing tactics. Organizations that maintain an educated workforce experience fewer security breaches, as informed employees become an active defense layer against social engineering exploitation.
Question 180
A security architect is tasked with designing a solution to ensure that unauthorized changes to critical system configurations are immediately detected and reporte( D ) Which control best meets this requirement?
( A ) Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)
( B ) Security baseline documentation
( C ) Configuration management database (CMDB)
( D ) Antivirus signature updates
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) continuously monitors system files, configuration settings, and log activities to detect unauthorized or anomalous changes. It provides alerts when deviations from established baselines occur, enabling rapid response to potential compromises. Unlike antivirus tools that focus on known malware signatures, HIDS identifies unauthorized actions, such as privilege escalations or unexpected file modifications, that may indicate insider misuse or advanced persistent threats.
Security baseline documentation defines expected configurations but does not actively monitor for deviations. A CMDB maintains asset inventories and relationships but lacks real-time detection capabilities. HIDS can be deployed on critical systems to ensure continuous verification of integrity. Modern solutions employ checksums and cryptographic hashing to validate system states automatically. When integrated with SIEM platforms, HIDS alerts can trigger incident response processes, allowing teams to isolate affected systems promptly. This proactive monitoring is essential for protecting high-value servers, databases, and application environments where any undetected change could compromise operations or compliance.
