Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 8
Question 70
A departing privileged administrator knows shared emergency credentials. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect the exit checklist without attempting revoked break-glass credentials
Test that old sessions and shared break-glass secrets no longer work
Test only the disabled personal username while leaving shared access paths untouched
Verify a password change was recorded without exercising old privileged sessions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Disabling only a primary account leaves alternate access channels active. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test that old sessions and shared break-glass secrets no longer work.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A checked exit form proves someone recorded completion, not that the former administrator’s old break-glass secret is rejected. Perform a controlled negative authentication test.
C:
Testing the personal username covers only one path; reusable emergency credentials and existing sessions may still authorize access.
D:
A recorded password update does not prove privileged sessions were terminated. Attempt use of the prior session and shared secrets to validate revocation.
Question 71
The company is hiring a system administrator for regulated customer data. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Grant access immediately and defer legally permitted screening until the probation period ends
Apply intrusive checks beyond the role's legal and privacy boundaries
Apply role-appropriate candidate checks and confidentiality agreements
Rely only on an informal reference call instead of the approved screening and confidentiality process
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Preemployment controls must be proportional and legally authorized. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review whether screening and agreements were completed before access grant.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Granting privileged access before permitted background checks and agreements leaves regulated data exposed while the candidate has not met the role’s conditions.
B:
Screening more intrusively than law and role risk justify can violate privacy requirements without improving access assurance. Controls must be proportionate.
D:
An informal reference call may be unrecorded and omit mandatory identity, background or confidentiality checks for a sensitive administrator role.
Question 72
The company is hiring a system administrator for regulated customer data. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify unrestricted background data was collected without demonstrating lawful role relevance
Inspect a recruiter email without completed approved screening and agreements
Confirm the candidate accepted the job but not that required checks preceded privileged access
Review whether screening and agreements were completed before access grant
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Preemployment controls must be proportional and legally authorized. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review whether screening and agreements were completed before access grant.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Collecting unlimited background data may itself be unlawful and does not demonstrate that the approved role-specific checks were completed before access.
B:
Recruiter correspondence is not evidence that screening results, confidentiality undertakings and access authorization were completed. Examine the approved record.
C:
Job acceptance is a hiring milestone, not an access-control gate. Confirm required checks and agreements were completed before privileged account activation.
Question 73
A supplier's engineer requires recurring support on critical infrastructure. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require named sponsor, scoped maintenance windows and periodic vendor access reviews
Approve vendor access indefinitely and review only when a contract is renewed
Use a standing shared vendor-admin credential for all future service calls
Allow supplier engineers to connect at any time without a named internal sponsor
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Vendor access cannot be treated as permanent employee access. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to match supplier sessions to work orders and contract obligations.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Indefinite external access persists between maintenance visits and can survive changing supplier staff. Periodic review and narrow time windows reduce exposure.
C:
A standing shared administrator credential loses individual accountability and can be reused outside approved support windows. Use named, sponsored access tied to work.
D:
An unrestricted supplier connection has no internal owner to validate necessity or incident accountability. A sponsor must authorize each access scope and schedule.
Question 74
A supplier's engineer requires recurring support on critical infrastructure. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check that a vendor login succeeded without linking it to an approved maintenance work order
Match supplier sessions to work orders and contract obligations
Review support invoices without inspecting actual access windows and individual sessions
Confirm the contract exists without testing periodic entitlement reviews or sponsor accountability
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Vendor access cannot be treated as permanent employee access. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Match supplier sessions to work orders and contract obligations.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A successful vendor login demonstrates technical connectivity but not that its timing, identity and work purpose were approved. Match the session to a specific work order.
C:
Invoices document billed work, not the precise identities and time windows of privileged sessions. Compare actual access logs with approved maintenance authorizations.
D:
Contract existence does not prove sponsor ownership or periodic entitlement review. Evidence must cover actual supplier sessions and recurring approval controls.
Question 75
A threat has high impact but very low realistic likelihood. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Score the risk by the raw severity of one vulnerability finding without evaluating actual likelihood
Discard the low-likelihood scenario without documenting its potentially severe consequences
Estimate likelihood and business impact separately before choosing treatment
Treat business impact as an accurate proxy for probability and omit exposure analysis
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Risk is not measured by CVSS vulnerability severity alone. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review whether risk scoring documents assumptions and residual exposure.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A vulnerability severity rating measures an individual weakness under assumptions, not how likely the whole threat scenario is to affect this business. Exposure and impact need separate evaluation.
B:
Low probability does not make a catastrophic consequence irrelevant. A documented decision must consider severe impact and what residual risk is acceptable.
D:
Business impact is the consequence of an event, not how likely the adversary can reach it. Treating severity as probability distorts the risk estimate.
Question 76
A threat has high impact but very low realistic likelihood. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the scenario was removed from a dashboard without reviewing residual exposure and rationale
Verify a severity score was assigned without recording likelihood assumptions or business impact
Inspect a vulnerability scanner rating as if it were the full enterprise risk estimate
Review whether risk scoring documents assumptions and residual exposure
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Risk is not measured by CVSS vulnerability severity alone. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review whether risk scoring documents assumptions and residual exposure.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Removing an item from a dashboard can hide the high-impact scenario without recording why low likelihood was judged credible or what residual risk remains.
B:
A severity label without evidence of likelihood assumptions cannot establish risk-based treatment. The score needs documented exposure and potential business consequences.
C:
Scanner scores do not capture compensating controls, asset context or threat reachability. Validate a scenario-specific likelihood and impact assessment.
Question 77
A data center identifies a risk that management elects not to remediate. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require authorized risk-owner acceptance within documented tolerance
Let the engineer silently leave the issue unmitigated and call it accepted risk
Record acceptance with no accountable business owner or defined revisit point
Close the risk without comparing its consequences to approved tolerance
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Risk acceptance is a business decision rather than an engineer's omission. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify acceptance records include consequences, owner and review date.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Doing nothing by technical omission is not an authorized risk acceptance. A business owner must understand and explicitly approve the remaining exposure.
C:
Without an accountable owner or review date, the accepted risk can persist after circumstances change. Acceptance requires documented decision authority and reassessment.
D:
A risk cannot be closed responsibly without showing that its consequences fall within the organization’s approved tolerance. The decision must compare expected exposure with appetite.
Question 78
A data center identifies a risk that management elects not to remediate. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check that the risk is marked low priority without recording the owner or consequences
Verify acceptance records include consequences, owner and review date
Verify the issue disappeared from the dashboard without an acceptance review date
Confirm a remediation ticket is closed without an authorized risk-acceptance decision
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Risk acceptance is a business decision rather than an engineer's omission. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify acceptance records include consequences, owner and review date.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A low-priority tag neither identifies who accepted the risk nor describes its consequences. Inspect the signed risk decision, rationale and review date.
C:
The absence of a dashboard entry may reflect suppression rather than governance. Check that acceptance remains traceable and has a scheduled reassessment.
D:
Ticket closure is a workflow status and may occur without authorized acceptance of residual exposure. Verify the business risk owner’s documented decision.
Question 79
A major business service faces plausible ransomware loss. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Accept all related risks without presenting alternatives to authorized business owners
Purchase cyber insurance and assume all ransomware operational disruption has been eliminated
Compare mitigation, transfer, avoidance and acceptance under risk appetite
Implement one preventive malware signature and skip recovery or residual-risk discussion
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Cyber insurance transfers financial effects but does not eliminate the threat. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect approved treatment decisions and residual risk reporting.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Acceptance without comparing mitigation, avoidance or transfer denies owners information about feasible alternatives. The decision must be deliberate against risk appetite.
B:
Insurance may reimburse some losses but cannot itself restore systems, prevent exfiltration or eliminate interruption. Uninsured and operational residual risks remain.
D:
One malware signature covers a narrow prevention path and leaves backup, containment and recovery risks unaddressed. A treatment strategy must consider bypass and service restoration.
Question 80
A major business service faces plausible ransomware loss. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify an insurance certificate exists without assessing uncovered operational loss
Confirm an antivirus signature was deployed without evaluating residual treatment
Inspect the risk register entry without an accountable decision comparing treatment options
Inspect approved treatment decisions and residual risk reporting
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Cyber insurance transfers financial effects but does not eliminate the threat. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect approved treatment decisions and residual risk reporting.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An insurance certificate shows a policy exists, not what ransomware losses remain excluded or whether downtime and recovery are addressed by the risk decision.
B:
A deployed signature is one preventive measure; it does not show authorized consideration of backup resilience, residual impact or alternative treatments.
C:
A risk-register entry can be a passive description. The evidence must include an accountable choice among treatment options and explicit residual exposure.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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