Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 7
Question 60
A warehouse order service must resume within two hours after a disaster. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check that restored files are available while the warehouse ordering workflow remains inaccessible
Verify backup timestamp age instead of measuring recovery from disaster declaration to transactions
Confirm the previous day's orders are intact without timing usable service restoration
Measure elapsed recovery to usable transaction processing
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
RTO is service restoration duration rather than backup age. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Measure elapsed recovery to usable transaction processing.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Files can be restored while the warehouse application remains unable to take orders. RTO compliance requires an end-to-end usable business workflow.
B:
Backup age concerns potential data loss, not elapsed time from disaster to resumed order processing. The acceptance test must clock restoration duration.
C:
Preserving old orders tests data integrity or recovery point, not the two-hour requirement for processing new orders. Measure service availability after failover.
Question 61
A recovery plan ignores a single external identity provider used by all sites. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Map critical third-party dependencies and define alternate authentication arrangements
Ask end users to use shared emergency credentials when the identity provider fails
Assume an alternate data center solves the outage even when it depends on the same identity service
Configure extra application servers without any independent authentication contingency
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A warm disaster-recovery site still fails when mandatory external services are absent. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to perform a recovery exercise with the provider unavailable.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Shared emergency credentials remove individual attribution and may create an ungoverned access path, but they do not provide a tested replacement for the failed identity service.
C:
A second data center can be healthy yet still deny every user if it authenticates against the same unavailable identity provider. The recovery design must account for that common dependency.
D:
More application instances increase compute resilience, not authentication independence. Users will remain locked out when every instance calls the failed provider.
Question 62
A recovery plan ignores a single external identity provider used by all sites. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Test recovery while the external identity service is fully healthy
Perform a recovery exercise with the provider unavailable
Verify the standby VM starts but never attempt employee authentication during provider failure
Check that network redundancy exists without testing identity and credential dependencies
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
A warm disaster-recovery site still fails when mandatory external services are absent. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Perform a recovery exercise with the provider unavailable.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A recovery exercise run while the provider is healthy never invokes the common authentication failure. Test actual logins and access while the dependency is deliberately unavailable.
C:
A standby virtual machine starting successfully is not evidence users can authenticate through the failed external identity service. Include access attempts in the failure exercise.
D:
Redundant network paths do not establish an alternate source of identity assertions. Verify authentication works when the shared provider is offline.
Question 63
Two business lines disagree on which applications must recover first. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Let the infrastructure operations team select recovery tiers without business owner agreement
Give both business lines identical recovery priority while ignoring conflicting service dependencies
Obtain business-owner approval for service prioritization and recovery tiers
Rank recovery priority using server cost and power demand instead of business criticality
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Risk treatment must reflect stakeholder value, not server count alone. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to trace dependency ordering and recovery objectives to BIA signoff.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Operations staff know technology dependencies but cannot determine which business outcome is most critical without owners. Recovery tiers need business-approved impact priorities.
B:
Equal urgency can ignore that one application enables another or supports a more time-critical process. The business impact analysis must resolve ordering conflicts.
D:
Hardware cost and power draw do not measure lost revenue, legal obligations or operational dependency. Business criticality must determine restoration order.
Question 64
Two business lines disagree on which applications must recover first. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm technical backups exist but not that business stakeholders signed the ordering and tolerances
Check a server inventory sorted by hardware value rather than signed business priorities
Verify an IT-run restore sequence without tracing agreed BIA dependencies
Trace dependency ordering and recovery objectives to BIA signoff
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Risk treatment must reflect stakeholder value, not server count alone. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Trace dependency ordering and recovery objectives to BIA signoff.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Available backups are prerequisites but do not show business owners agreed on service sequence or outage tolerances. Verify signed priorities and their dependency rationale.
B:
A hardware-value inventory is unrelated to the agreed restoration sequence and maximum downtime for each business service. Inspect BIA-based approval.
C:
An IT-led restore test may be technically successful but follow the wrong priority order. Map the observed sequence to documented, business-approved dependencies.
Question 65
A contractor needs production access for a three-week migration. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require time-bounded access, screening and documented contractual obligations
Create a permanent vendor administrator account for the short migration engagement
Permit production login before identity screening and contractual authorization are completed
Grant a shared account to all subcontractors and promise to review it when the project ends
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Contractor access should reflect limited engagement scope. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to audit access expiration and contractor separation evidence.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Permanent administrator access outlives the three-week migration and expands the contractor’s attack window. Grant only scoped rights with an automatic end date.
C:
Allowing production access before identity checks and contractual authorization creates an unvetted privileged actor. Required screening and approval must occur before initial access.
D:
Shared credentials prevent tying changes to individual subcontractors, and a later review leaves unchecked activity during the engagement. Use attributable, time-limited identities.
Question 66
A contractor needs production access for a three-week migration. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review a signed purchase order without testing identity screening or actual account scope
Audit access expiration and contractor separation evidence
Confirm a shared account is disabled after project completion while omitting session attribution
Verify access worked on the last migration day but not that it expired afterward
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Contractor access should reflect limited engagement scope. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Audit access expiration and contractor separation evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A purchase order authorizes commercial work but does not prove that this person was screened or had only the privileges the migration required. Examine actual access records.
C:
Disabling a shared account at the end does not reveal which subcontractor performed each production action. The remedy needs individual attribution throughout the work.
D:
Successful access on the last day says nothing about whether access stops on day 22. Test expiry, revocation and residual privileged sessions after the engagement.
Question 67
An employee transfers from finance to operations. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Delay the access review until the next annual certification cycle
Add the operations permissions while retaining all financial entitlements by default
Reconcile new role privileges and revoke obsolete financial entitlements
Rely on the employee to request removal of old finance access voluntarily
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Mover events are independent access-removal triggers, not additive grants. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect before-and-after entitlement snapshots after the transfer.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A mover can retain finance permissions for months before annual certification. A change of role is an immediate trigger to revoke rights no longer justified.
B:
Adding operations grants without removing finance privileges accumulates cross-functional access and can violate least privilege or separation of duties.
D:
Users may not know their inherited entitlements or may fail to request cleanup. Deprovisioning must be driven by the authoritative HR role change workflow.
Question 68
An employee transfers from finance to operations. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify the operations role was granted without checking obsolete finance permissions
Review the annual certification report before the transfer has been reflected
Confirm the employee can log in but not that role-specific entitlements were reconciled
Inspect before-and-after entitlement snapshots after the transfer
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Mover events are independent access-removal triggers, not additive grants. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect before-and-after entitlement snapshots after the transfer.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Receiving operations access confirms only the grant half of the mover workflow. Inspect whether finance-specific privileges disappeared from the post-transfer snapshot.
B:
A report prepared before the transfer cannot demonstrate its obsolete finance entitlements were removed. Compare evidence dated before and after the move.
C:
Successful login proves the identity still works but not that old finance permissions were revoked or new operations permissions correctly limited.
Question 69
A departing privileged administrator knows shared emergency credentials. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Execute immediate account disablement, key rotation and session revocation
Rotate the administrator's primary login password without ending active privileged sessions
Trust the exit interview to prevent future use of known emergency credentials
Disable the administrator's personal account but leave shared break-glass passwords unchanged
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Disabling only a primary account leaves alternate access channels active. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test that old sessions and shared break-glass secrets no longer work.
Incorrect Answers
B:
A password reset does not necessarily terminate existing privileged sessions, tokens or cookies. The departing administrator may remain authenticated until sessions are revoked.
C:
An exit interview has no technical power to invalidate known emergency secrets. Old break-glass credentials require rotation and verification.
D:
Disabling the named account leaves shared emergency passwords available to someone who already knows them. The shared channel must be rotated and retested.
Question 70
A departing privileged administrator knows shared emergency credentials. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect the exit checklist without attempting revoked break-glass credentials
Test that old sessions and shared break-glass secrets no longer work
Test only the disabled personal username while leaving shared access paths untouched
Verify a password change was recorded without exercising old privileged sessions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Disabling only a primary account leaves alternate access channels active. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test that old sessions and shared break-glass secrets no longer work.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A checked exit form proves someone recorded completion, not that the former administrator’s old break-glass secret is rejected. Perform a controlled negative authentication test.
C:
Testing the personal username covers only one path; reusable emergency credentials and existing sessions may still authorize access.
D:
A recorded password update does not prove privileged sessions were terminated. Attempt use of the prior session and shared secrets to validate revocation.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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