Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 10
Question 90
An API accepts identity tokens from several external trust zones. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm one trusted provider's login succeeds without testing signatures from other issuers
Test rejection of forged, expired and wrong-audience assertions
Inspect an authentication diagram while omitting negative trust-boundary tests
Verify the token decodes syntactically without attempting forged or wrong-audience assertions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Token validity depends on trust boundaries, not merely field presence. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test rejection of forged, expired and wrong-audience assertions.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A successful login with one legitimate issuer checks the positive path only. It does not show that forged or unauthorized issuer assertions are rejected.
C:
A diagram documents intended authentication flows but does not exercise signature, expiry or audience enforcement. Negative validation tests are necessary.
D:
A token can decode into syntactically valid fields while carrying a forged signature or wrong audience. Parsing success is not authentication.
Question 91
A payment workflow has a possible unauthorized order-state change. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Protect transport confidentiality while permitting a caller to alter completed order states
Validate payment form syntax but leave the order-state transition unauthenticated
Analyze tampering threats and integrity checks at state transitions
Monitor transaction latency without limiting unauthorized order-status changes
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Tampering scenarios differ from availability overload scenarios. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt unauthorized state modification and verify rejection plus logging.
Incorrect Answers
A:
TLS protects bytes in transit but does not authorize business-state changes after an API receives them. A caller may still alter a completed order without transition checks.
B:
Syntactically well-formed payment fields can accompany an unauthorized state transition. The application needs integrity and authorization checks for each change.
D:
Latency monitoring does not prevent or detect improper manipulation of order status. The design must control who may make each state transition.
Question 92
A payment workflow has a possible unauthorized order-state change. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Submit a valid order only and confirm it completes without testing unauthorized state changes
Check response time and throughput instead of tampering rejection
Review TLS negotiation without altering an order-state field and examining audit evidence
Attempt unauthorized state modification and verify rejection plus logging
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Tampering scenarios differ from availability overload scenarios. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt unauthorized state modification and verify rejection plus logging.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A valid order going through the happy path does not test whether an unauthorized caller can change its terminal state. Exercise a forbidden transition.
B:
Performance measurements do not establish state integrity. An application can respond quickly while accepting fraudulent updates.
C:
TLS negotiation validates a channel but not whether the service rejects a tampered order-state request or records the attempted violation.
Question 93
A product team cannot decide which attack scenarios to prioritize. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rate plausible threat paths against impact, reachability and exposure
Select every possible scenario for immediate remediation without considering exposure or impact
Assign risk priority from vulnerability labels alone without reachability analysis
Prioritize threats solely by alphabetical order in the brainstorming list
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Threat modeling should yield actionable decisions, not an unranked brainstorm. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect prioritized threat register and accepted dispositions.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Attempting every scenario at once ignores whether an attacker can reach it or whether the business impact justifies urgent treatment. Resources need risk-based ordering.
C:
A vulnerability label does not determine the likelihood of a complete exploit path. Reachability, exposure and target impact change priorities.
D:
Alphabetical order is unrelated to exploitability or business loss and can place critical attack paths behind negligible ones.
Question 94
A product team cannot decide which attack scenarios to prioritize. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect scanner severity tags without verifying actual attack-path exposure
Inspect prioritized threat register and accepted dispositions
Verify the threat list is complete but not ranked by plausible business impact
Count proposed mitigations without checking risk-based prioritization and accepted decisions
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Threat modeling should yield actionable decisions, not an unranked brainstorm. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect prioritized threat register and accepted dispositions.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Scanner labels are inputs rather than proof of exposed attacker routes. Confirm the threat register considered realistic entry points and business consequences.
C:
A complete but unranked list cannot guide limited mitigation capacity. Acceptance must show prioritized risk and disposition decisions.
D:
Counting mitigation proposals does not show that higher-impact threats were handled first or that owners approved remaining exposure.
Question 95
A service architecture changes from monolith to public webhooks. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Retain the monolith threat model unchanged after exposing new public webhook interfaces
Add a firewall rule but omit analysis of new service identities and data flows
Update its threat model for new trust relationships and data flows
Treat the prior security signoff as permanent despite the changed trust architecture
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Threat models are living design evidence, not a one-time checklist. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to confirm new entry points are reflected in threat scenarios and tests.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A monolith model does not include the newly exposed webhook callers, routes and trust boundaries. Reusing it silently misses new ways to spoof or inject events.
B:
A firewall rule may restrict network traffic but does not address new caller identities, event authenticity or webhook data-flow abuse.
D:
A past design approval covered a different architecture. New public interfaces require a fresh analysis of threats and compensating controls.
Question 96
A service architecture changes from monolith to public webhooks. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review a deployment approval but not the revised threat model and security tests
Check firewall rule presence without testing the newly exposed webhook trust relationships
Confirm an earlier monolith test passed without assessing new webhook entry points
Confirm new entry points are reflected in threat scenarios and tests
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Threat models are living design evidence, not a one-time checklist. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Confirm new entry points are reflected in threat scenarios and tests.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Deployment approval can be granted without documenting webhook-specific threats or validating their controls. Review the updated model and its tests.
B:
A firewall configuration does not prove that public webhook signatures, identities and trust assumptions were examined. Test the new interaction.
C:
A monolith-era test cannot validate newly exposed webhook entry points. Acceptance should cover the revised data flows and abuse scenarios.
Question 97
A hardware supplier can change device firmware before enterprise receipt. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require supplier provenance, firmware integrity checks and acceptance tests
Deploy all received devices immediately and validate provenance during the next refresh cycle
Trust a supplier's shipping invoice as proof that firmware has not changed
Check only that network transport was encrypted while skipping device firmware verification
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Transport encryption does not prove supply-chain integrity. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify firmware hashes and purchase-chain provenance before deployment.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Deploying before verifying firmware provenance allows a malicious or substituted image to enter trusted infrastructure. Acceptance checks must occur at receipt.
C:
An invoice confirms a commercial shipment, not that the device firmware matches an approved signed release or has not been altered.
D:
Encrypted shipment records protect logistics messages, not the actual firmware running on the device. Independently measure integrity and provenance.
Question 98
A hardware supplier can change device firmware before enterprise receipt. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm delivery quantities without comparing measured firmware with an approved baseline
Verify firmware hashes and purchase-chain provenance before deployment
Verify the shipment used encrypted logistics records without firmware signatures or provenance
Inspect device boot success without validating the integrity of received firmware
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Transport encryption does not prove supply-chain integrity. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify firmware hashes and purchase-chain provenance before deployment.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Correct quantities can accompany compromised or altered firmware. Compare the received images or measured hashes against approved supplier baselines.
C:
Protected logistics records do not establish cryptographic integrity of the device image or trustworthy supplier chain. Check firmware and provenance directly.
D:
Malicious firmware can boot successfully and still contain hidden functions. Startup alone is not evidence of authenticity or authorized version.
Question 99
A critical service depends on a single software component supplier. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Purchase the same software component from the same sole source through multiple resellers
Record a supplier concentration risk without identifying a feasible replacement or resilience arrangement
Assess supplier concentration and plan replacement or resiliency options
Assume a long supplier relationship guarantees component availability during a vendor failure
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Vendor redundancy is a business-continuity control, not just procurement variety. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review supplier-risk assessments and exit-plan test results.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Multiple resellers of one sole-origin component do not create an independent supply source. The same upstream disruption still blocks every reseller.
B:
Recording concentration without a tested substitute or recovery plan leaves the service exposed when the supplier disappears. A risk entry must lead to actionable resilience.
D:
A long supplier relationship offers no guarantee against insolvency, sanctions or a production outage. Business continuity requires a feasible contingency.
Question 100
A critical service depends on a single software component supplier. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review the supplier-risk entry without a practicable recovery or replacement test
Confirm the current vendor meets uptime targets without exercising its exit or substitute plan
Count resellers as independent suppliers while ignoring shared upstream dependency
Review supplier-risk assessments and exit-plan test results
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Vendor redundancy is a business-continuity control, not just procurement variety. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review supplier-risk assessments and exit-plan test results.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An inventory entry acknowledges dependency, but without testing replacement lead times or recovery steps it offers no evidence the service can survive a supplier outage.
B:
Current uptime is positive operating history, not proof the supplier’s failure scenario can be handled. Exercise the exit or substitution arrangement.
C:
Buying through different distributors does not diversify an identical sole-source upstream component. Verify independence at the actual supplier level.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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