Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 57
Question 560
An outsourcing agreement sets a recovery time without measurable service definitions. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Accept the provider's four-hour recovery promise without defining service start and end events
Measure only the number of helpdesk calls while the outsourced service remains unavailable
Use an unquantified best-effort clause as evidence of the contracted recovery threshold
Define specific SLA indicators and evidence collection
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Service-level terms must be objectively testable. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare measured outage against the contract threshold.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Accept the provider's four-hour recovery promise without defining service start and end events” is not the relevant mitigation. Service-level terms must be objectively testable. The scenario calls for “Define specific SLA indicators and evidence collection”; the acceptance check is “Compare measured outage against the contract threshold”.
B:
The proposal “Measure only the number of helpdesk calls while the outsourced service remains unavailable” does not meet the relevant requirement because service-level terms must be objectively testable. The matching remediation is “Define specific SLA indicators and evidence collection”.
C:
“Use an unquantified best-effort clause as evidence of the contracted recovery threshold” is not the relevant mitigation. Service-level terms must be objectively testable. The scenario calls for “Define specific SLA indicators and evidence collection”; the acceptance check is “Compare measured outage against the contract threshold”.
Question 561
An outsourcing agreement sets a recovery time without measurable service definitions. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Compare measured outage against the contract threshold
Check vendor uptime claims without comparing them with service-specific SLA definitions
Inspect monthly service credits rather than actual restore durations against the contract
Confirm the agreement mentions recovery but not what measurable outage starts the timer
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Service-level terms must be objectively testable. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare measured outage against the contract threshold.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Service-level terms must be objectively testable. The proposed check, “Check vendor uptime claims without comparing them with service-specific SLA definitions”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare measured outage against the contract threshold” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
“Inspect monthly service credits rather than actual restore durations against the contract” does not show the required outcome: compare measured outage against the contract threshold. That test matters because service-level terms must be objectively testable.
D:
Service-level terms must be objectively testable. The proposed check, “Confirm the agreement mentions recovery but not what measurable outage starts the timer”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare measured outage against the contract threshold” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 562
A privileged root account is used for daily development tasks. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Log access to code repositories but skip privileged session attribution on production hosts
Separate daily identities from audited privileged sessions
Use the root account for daily coding and depend on developers to avoid administrative commands
Rename root to a team alias while keeping permanent unrestricted privileges for ordinary development
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure. “Log access to code repositories but skip privileged session attribution on production hosts” does not supply that control; “Separate daily identities from audited privileged sessions” addresses the identified gap, and “Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed” verifies the result.
C:
Routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure. “Use the root account for daily coding and depend on developers to avoid administrative commands” does not supply that control; “Separate daily identities from audited privileged sessions” addresses the identified gap, and “Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed” verifies the result.
D:
The security distinction is that routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure. “Rename root to a team alias while keeping permanent unrestricted privileges for ordinary development” addresses neither the required “Separate daily identities from audited privileged sessions” action nor its supporting evidence: “Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed”.
Question 563
A privileged root account is used for daily development tasks. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm developers can compile software as root without evaluating the need for elevation
Check operating system login counts but not which commands were run with privilege
Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed
Review account names while daily work still occurs under unrestricted administrative identity
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm developers can compile software as root without evaluating the need for elevation” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Separate daily identities from audited privileged sessions” works. Routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure. The decisive test is “Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed”.
B:
“Check operating system login counts but not which commands were run with privilege” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed”, reflecting the requirement that routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure.
D:
“Review account names while daily work still occurs under unrestricted administrative identity” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review access logs to confirm elevated use only when needed”, reflecting the requirement that routine administrative operation increases privilege exposure.
Question 564
Portable backup drives travel between offices without tamper controls. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Record shipment addresses but omit serial numbers and signed custody transfer at receipt
Encrypt the drive yet leave transport untracked and accept any recipient signature as adequate
Ship unencrypted backup drives in ordinary courier packages without tamper seals or tracking
Use encrypted, tracked and sealed transport with receipt confirmation
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Media security follows the object outside the data center. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Record shipment addresses but omit serial numbers and signed custody transfer at receipt” would not establish the protection described: media security follows the object outside the data center. The necessary change is “Use encrypted, tracked and sealed transport with receipt confirmation” with the verification “Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs”.
B:
“Encrypt the drive yet leave transport untracked and accept any recipient signature as adequate” leaves the essential control missing: media security follows the object outside the data center. The direct corrective action is “Use encrypted, tracked and sealed transport with receipt confirmation”, validated by the acceptance check “Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs”.
C:
“Ship unencrypted backup drives in ordinary courier packages without tamper seals or tracking” would not establish the protection described: media security follows the object outside the data center. The necessary change is “Use encrypted, tracked and sealed transport with receipt confirmation” with the verification “Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs”.
Question 565
Portable backup drives travel between offices without tamper controls. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs
Check the courier's tracking page while no approved recipient receipt or seal inspection is recorded
Confirm a delivery invoice exists without reconciling individual backup-media serials
Verify encryption was enabled but not chain-of-custody transfers across offices
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Media security follows the object outside the data center. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs.
Incorrect Answers
B:
An observation of “Check the courier's tracking page while no approved recipient receipt or seal inspection is recorded” would not verify the relevant control. Media security follows the object outside the data center. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs”.
C:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs” because media security follows the object outside the data center. “Confirm a delivery invoice exists without reconciling individual backup-media serials” cannot establish that result.
D:
An observation of “Verify encryption was enabled but not chain-of-custody transfers across offices” would not verify the relevant control. Media security follows the object outside the data center. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Reconcile media serials and transfer-of-custody logs”.
Question 566
A paper archive is readable in a room accessible to general visitors. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Leave confidential paper records on open shelving and rely on visitors not to read them
Restrict physical access and maintain document handling logs
Add restricted labels to the boxes without changing unrestricted room access
Lock only the room's electronic archive cabinet while paper case files remain exposed to guests
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Leave confidential paper records on open shelving and rely on visitors not to read them” is not the relevant mitigation. Data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. The scenario calls for “Restrict physical access and maintain document handling logs”; the acceptance check is “Perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test”.
C:
“Add restricted labels to the boxes without changing unrestricted room access” is not the relevant mitigation. Data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. The scenario calls for “Restrict physical access and maintain document handling logs”; the acceptance check is “Perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test”.
D:
The proposal “Lock only the room's electronic archive cabinet while paper case files remain exposed to guests” does not meet the relevant requirement because data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. The matching remediation is “Restrict physical access and maintain document handling logs”.
Question 567
A paper archive is readable in a room accessible to general visitors. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect digital document permissions while paper archives remain freely accessible
Review access policy acknowledgements but no handling log or physical boundary test
Perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test
Confirm a staff member can retrieve a file but never attempt unauthorized visitor access
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Inspect digital document permissions while paper archives remain freely accessible” does not show the required outcome: perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test. That test matters because data protection is required for physical records, not only disks.
B:
Data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. The proposed check, “Review access policy acknowledgements but no handling log or physical boundary test”, misses the relevant outcome; “Perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
Data protection is required for physical records, not only disks. The proposed check, “Confirm a staff member can retrieve a file but never attempt unauthorized visitor access”, misses the relevant outcome; “Perform unauthorized read attempts in an approved test” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 568
Employees send restricted data to external email using default settings. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Block a single common attachment extension while sensitive documents can still be mailed normally
Require employees to add confidential to email subjects while allowing unrestricted external recipients
Enable encryption for outbound mail but skip content classification and recipient policy
Apply outbound content controls aligned to classification
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose. “Block a single common attachment extension while sensitive documents can still be mailed normally” does not supply that control; “Apply outbound content controls aligned to classification” addresses the identified gap, and “Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action” verifies the result.
B:
The security distinction is that data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose. “Require employees to add confidential to email subjects while allowing unrestricted external recipients” addresses neither the required “Apply outbound content controls aligned to classification” action nor its supporting evidence: “Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action”.
C:
Data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose. “Enable encryption for outbound mail but skip content classification and recipient policy” does not supply that control; “Apply outbound content controls aligned to classification” addresses the identified gap, and “Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action” verifies the result.
Question 569
Employees send restricted data to external email using default settings. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action
Confirm a normal email reaches an external mailbox without trying synthetic restricted content
Review transport TLS status but not whether classification-based DLP enforces restrictions
Check training completion while a prohibited sensitive attachment still leaves the organization
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Confirm a normal email reaches an external mailbox without trying synthetic restricted content” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action”, reflecting the requirement that data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose.
C:
“Review transport TLS status but not whether classification-based DLP enforces restrictions” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Apply outbound content controls aligned to classification” works. Data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose. The decisive test is “Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action”.
D:
“Check training completion while a prohibited sensitive attachment still leaves the organization” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Transmit a synthetic sensitive document and confirm policy action”, reflecting the requirement that data in transit needs controls for recipient, channel and purpose.
Question 570
An intrusion alert is credible but responders immediately rebuild systems. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Eradicate all suspicious files without confirming incident scope or preserving key forensic indicators
Triage, contain and preserve needed evidence before eradication and recovery
Restore the server from backup while attackers retain access to adjacent systems and accounts
Rebuild the suspected compromised host immediately and discard volatile evidence before triage
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Premature rebuilding can destroy investigation evidence. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review incident timeline for containment and evidence steps.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Eradicate all suspicious files without confirming incident scope or preserving key forensic indicators” would not establish the protection described: premature rebuilding can destroy investigation evidence. The necessary change is “Triage, contain and preserve needed evidence before eradication and recovery” with the verification “Review incident timeline for containment and evidence steps”.
C:
“Restore the server from backup while attackers retain access to adjacent systems and accounts” would not establish the protection described: premature rebuilding can destroy investigation evidence. The necessary change is “Triage, contain and preserve needed evidence before eradication and recovery” with the verification “Review incident timeline for containment and evidence steps”.
D:
“Rebuild the suspected compromised host immediately and discard volatile evidence before triage” leaves the essential control missing: premature rebuilding can destroy investigation evidence. The direct corrective action is “Triage, contain and preserve needed evidence before eradication and recovery”, validated by the acceptance check “Review incident timeline for containment and evidence steps”.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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