Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 35
Question 340
A remote system administrator needs occasional access to critical management endpoints. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Expose management RDP to the Internet with a strong password but no bastion or session expiry
Use a shared admin credential and depend on operator notes for temporary access accountability
Give the remote administrator standing VPN administrator privileges for occasional maintenance
Implement strongly authenticated just-in-time remote administration via a controlled bastion
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review session logs and automatic access expiry.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator. “Expose management RDP to the Internet with a strong password but no bastion or session expiry” does not supply that control; “Implement strongly authenticated just-in-time remote administration via a controlled bastion” addresses the identified gap, and “Review session logs and automatic access expiry” verifies the result.
B:
The security distinction is that persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator. “Use a shared admin credential and depend on operator notes for temporary access accountability” addresses neither the required “Implement strongly authenticated just-in-time remote administration via a controlled bastion” action nor its supporting evidence: “Review session logs and automatic access expiry”.
C:
Persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator. “Give the remote administrator standing VPN administrator privileges for occasional maintenance” does not supply that control; “Implement strongly authenticated just-in-time remote administration via a controlled bastion” addresses the identified gap, and “Review session logs and automatic access expiry” verifies the result.
Question 341
A remote system administrator needs occasional access to critical management endpoints. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review session logs and automatic access expiry
Verify a maintenance ticket closed while the privileged remote session and credentials remain active
Confirm the administrator can reach the endpoint but never inspect access auto-expiration
Check VPN traffic encryption without reviewing privileged session recording
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review session logs and automatic access expiry.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Verify a maintenance ticket closed while the privileged remote session and credentials remain active” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review session logs and automatic access expiry”, reflecting the requirement that persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator.
C:
“Confirm the administrator can reach the endpoint but never inspect access auto-expiration” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Implement strongly authenticated just-in-time remote administration via a controlled bastion” works. Persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator. The decisive test is “Review session logs and automatic access expiry”.
D:
“Check VPN traffic encryption without reviewing privileged session recording” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review session logs and automatic access expiry”, reflecting the requirement that persistent broad VPN access is not required for every administrator.
Question 342
A third-party support engineer needs temporary maintenance connectivity. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Leave vendor maintenance access permanently enabled because their next support date is unpredictable
Use scoped third-party network entry with identity verification and session recording
Grant the supplier access to all production subnets through a shared support account
Require contractual confidentiality alone instead of scoped network access and recorded identity
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Leave vendor maintenance access permanently enabled because their next support date is unpredictable” would not establish the protection described: supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. The necessary change is “Use scoped third-party network entry with identity verification and session recording” with the verification “Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window”.
C:
“Grant the supplier access to all production subnets through a shared support account” would not establish the protection described: supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. The necessary change is “Use scoped third-party network entry with identity verification and session recording” with the verification “Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window”.
D:
“Require contractual confidentiality alone instead of scoped network access and recorded identity” leaves the essential control missing: supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. The direct corrective action is “Use scoped third-party network entry with identity verification and session recording”, validated by the acceptance check “Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window”.
Question 343
A third-party support engineer needs temporary maintenance connectivity. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review a work order but not vendor session identity or reachable network zones
Check VPN uptime while a terminated supplier can still connect to undesignated hosts
Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window
Confirm the vendor performs one maintenance task without checking expiration afterward
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window” because supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. “Review a work order but not vendor session identity or reachable network zones” cannot establish that result.
B:
An observation of “Check VPN uptime while a terminated supplier can still connect to undesignated hosts” would not verify the relevant control. Supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window”.
D:
An observation of “Confirm the vendor performs one maintenance task without checking expiration afterward” would not verify the relevant control. Supplier connectivity must not become an always-on unrestricted tunnel. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Test vendor access expiry and segmentation after the window”.
Question 344
Employees use a public videoconference bridge to share regulated designs. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Request that attendees delete materials after the conference without restricting meeting access
Use a public meeting link with no lobby and depend on participants not to forward regulated designs
Encrypt meeting media but permit unrestricted anonymous file downloads from the shared bridge
Require approved collaboration platforms and meeting access controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Request that attendees delete materials after the conference without restricting meeting access” is not the relevant mitigation. Communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. The scenario calls for “Require approved collaboration platforms and meeting access controls”; the acceptance check is “Attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval”.
B:
The proposal “Use a public meeting link with no lobby and depend on participants not to forward regulated designs” does not meet the relevant requirement because communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. The matching remediation is “Require approved collaboration platforms and meeting access controls”.
C:
“Encrypt meeting media but permit unrestricted anonymous file downloads from the shared bridge” is not the relevant mitigation. Communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. The scenario calls for “Require approved collaboration platforms and meeting access controls”; the acceptance check is “Attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval”.
Question 345
Employees use a public videoconference bridge to share regulated designs. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval
Confirm invited attendees can join while omitting an uninvited join attempt
Verify video stream encryption but not whether anonymous viewers can retrieve shared documents
Review the meeting calendar invite but not guest identity and postmeeting access controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. The proposed check, “Confirm invited attendees can join while omitting an uninvited join attempt”, misses the relevant outcome; “Attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
“Verify video stream encryption but not whether anonymous viewers can retrieve shared documents” does not show the required outcome: attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval. That test matters because communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption.
D:
Communication security includes application sharing permissions, not just network encryption. The proposed check, “Review the meeting calendar invite but not guest identity and postmeeting access controls”, misses the relevant outcome; “Attempt uninvited joining and unauthorized file retrieval” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 346
A satellite backhaul has variable latency and intermittent availability. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Reconnect using the same message identifier without replay protection or idempotent acceptance
Design replay-aware encrypted communication and buffering suited to the link
Disable application buffering because the satellite route eventually delivers all data
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
High latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance.
Incorrect Answers
A:
High latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms. “Reconnect using the same message identifier without replay protection or idempotent acceptance” does not supply that control; “Design replay-aware encrypted communication and buffering suited to the link” addresses the identified gap, and “Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance” verifies the result.
C:
High latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms. “Rely on plaintext retransmissions whenever intermittent satellite connectivity breaks encrypted sessions” does not supply that control; “Design replay-aware encrypted communication and buffering suited to the link” addresses the identified gap, and “Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance” verifies the result.
D:
The security distinction is that high latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms. “Disable application buffering because the satellite route eventually delivers all data” addresses neither the required “Design replay-aware encrypted communication and buffering suited to the link” action nor its supporting evidence: “Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance”.
Question 347
A satellite backhaul has variable latency and intermittent availability. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Measure average satellite latency without testing duplicate-delivery or recovery behavior
Verify one message arrives under ideal link conditions but never simulate interruption and recovery
Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance
Check encryption at session start while replayed data may be accepted after reconnect
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
High latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Measure average satellite latency without testing duplicate-delivery or recovery behavior” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Design replay-aware encrypted communication and buffering suited to the link” works. High latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms. The decisive test is “Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance”.
B:
“Verify one message arrives under ideal link conditions but never simulate interruption and recovery” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance”, reflecting the requirement that high latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms.
D:
“Check encryption at session start while replayed data may be accepted after reconnect” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Simulate link interruption and check message recovery without replay acceptance”, reflecting the requirement that high latency can influence secure session design and recovery mechanisms.
Question 348
A maintenance vendor requests an inbound connection to every production subnet. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Open every production subnet to the vendor for ease of diagnostics
Use a vendor IP address as the only access condition and accept all management ports
Place the gateway in a trusted zone but bypass per-device authorization once the supplier authenticates
Expose a purpose-limited management service through a policy-enforced access gateway
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Open every production subnet to the vendor for ease of diagnostics” would not establish the protection described: least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. The necessary change is “Expose a purpose-limited management service through a policy-enforced access gateway” with the verification “Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports”.
B:
“Use a vendor IP address as the only access condition and accept all management ports” leaves the essential control missing: least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. The direct corrective action is “Expose a purpose-limited management service through a policy-enforced access gateway”, validated by the acceptance check “Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports”.
C:
“Place the gateway in a trusted zone but bypass per-device authorization once the supplier authenticates” would not establish the protection described: least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. The necessary change is “Expose a purpose-limited management service through a policy-enforced access gateway” with the verification “Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports”.
Question 349
A maintenance vendor requests an inbound connection to every production subnet. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports
Review the gateway's authentication log but not reachable production prefixes
Check the maintenance agreement while broad inbound firewall rules remain effective
Confirm the vendor can reach a designated endpoint but never try prohibited devices and ports
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports.
Incorrect Answers
B:
An observation of “Review the gateway's authentication log but not reachable production prefixes” would not verify the relevant control. Least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports”.
C:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports” because least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. “Check the maintenance agreement while broad inbound firewall rules remain effective” cannot establish that result.
D:
An observation of “Confirm the vendor can reach a designated endpoint but never try prohibited devices and ports” would not verify the relevant control. Least privilege applies to network reachability, not just system logins. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify vendor identity reaches only designated devices and ports”.
Question 350
A workforce video platform sends meeting recordings into an unmanaged personal account. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require meeting passwords while allowing automatic export of the captured content into unapproved accounts
Enforce enterprise-controlled recording storage and retention policy
Permit meeting recordings in personal storage as long as the user marks them confidential
Disable recording notifications but leave recordings accessible without enterprise retention controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Secure communication requires protection of stored recordings as well as live calls. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check recordings for owner, access restrictions and expiry.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Require meeting passwords while allowing automatic export of the captured content into unapproved accounts” is not the relevant mitigation. Secure communication requires protection of stored recordings as well as live calls. The scenario calls for “Enforce enterprise-controlled recording storage and retention policy”; the acceptance check is “Check recordings for owner, access restrictions and expiry”.
C:
“Permit meeting recordings in personal storage as long as the user marks them confidential” is not the relevant mitigation. Secure communication requires protection of stored recordings as well as live calls. The scenario calls for “Enforce enterprise-controlled recording storage and retention policy”; the acceptance check is “Check recordings for owner, access restrictions and expiry”.
D:
The proposal “Disable recording notifications but leave recordings accessible without enterprise retention controls” does not meet the relevant requirement because secure communication requires protection of stored recordings as well as live calls. The matching remediation is “Enforce enterprise-controlled recording storage and retention policy”.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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