Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 37
Question 360
A third-party ISP must monitor routers but should not change customer ACLs. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Grant the ISP unrestricted router configuration commands to simplify their monitoring tasks
Share a full administrator password with the ISP and rely on contractual promises not to change ACLs
Enable router syslog but omit command authorization that separates read from write functions
Use restricted management roles, command authorization and monitoring audit logs
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check role rights and evidence of denied write operations.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Grant the ISP unrestricted router configuration commands to simplify their monitoring tasks” would not establish the protection described: network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. The necessary change is “Use restricted management roles, command authorization and monitoring audit logs” with the verification “Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations”.
B:
“Share a full administrator password with the ISP and rely on contractual promises not to change ACLs” leaves the essential control missing: network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. The direct corrective action is “Use restricted management roles, command authorization and monitoring audit logs”, validated by the acceptance check “Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations”.
C:
“Enable router syslog but omit command authorization that separates read from write functions” would not establish the protection described: network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. The necessary change is “Use restricted management roles, command authorization and monitoring audit logs” with the verification “Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations”.
Question 361
A third-party ISP must monitor routers but should not change customer ACLs. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations
Review router authentication records but not the exact command privilege set
Check the ISP's monitoring report without evidence that unauthorized write operations fail
Confirm the ISP can view interface metrics without attempting an ACL modification
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations.
Incorrect Answers
B:
An observation of “Review router authentication records but not the exact command privilege set” would not verify the relevant control. Network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations”.
C:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations” because network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. “Check the ISP's monitoring report without evidence that unauthorized write operations fail” cannot establish that result.
D:
An observation of “Confirm the ISP can view interface metrics without attempting an ACL modification” would not verify the relevant control. Network management can be delegated without granting configuration ownership. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check role rights and evidence of denied write operations”.
Question 362
A cross-border team must send secret engineering diagrams through messaging. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rely on legal boilerplate while allowing message servers in prohibited jurisdictions
Use an approved end-to-end protected collaboration channel and residency-aware controls
Forward cross-border engineering diagrams over an ordinary consumer messaging account without residency controls
Encrypt diagrams with a generic password but permit unrestricted onward sharing and permanent retention
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Rely on legal boilerplate while allowing message servers in prohibited jurisdictions” is not the relevant mitigation. Communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. The scenario calls for “Use an approved end-to-end protected collaboration channel and residency-aware controls”; the acceptance check is “Test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location”.
C:
“Forward cross-border engineering diagrams over an ordinary consumer messaging account without residency controls” is not the relevant mitigation. Communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. The scenario calls for “Use an approved end-to-end protected collaboration channel and residency-aware controls”; the acceptance check is “Test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location”.
D:
The proposal “Encrypt diagrams with a generic password but permit unrestricted onward sharing and permanent retention” does not meet the relevant requirement because communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. The matching remediation is “Use an approved end-to-end protected collaboration channel and residency-aware controls”.
Question 363
A cross-border team must send secret engineering diagrams through messaging. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the recipient reads a test diagram without attempting unapproved forwarding
Inspect end-to-end encryption status but not storage location and expiry settings
Test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location
Review team membership while protected diagrams remain accessible through personal backups
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm the recipient reads a test diagram without attempting unapproved forwarding” does not show the required outcome: test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location. That test matters because communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection.
B:
Communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. The proposed check, “Inspect end-to-end encryption status but not storage location and expiry settings”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
Communication requirements include legal geography as well as cryptographic protection. The proposed check, “Review team membership while protected diagrams remain accessible through personal backups”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test message forwarding restrictions and approved retention location” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 364
A recursive resolver permits spoofed unsigned DNS answers for a sensitive signed zone. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Encrypt DNS queries to the same resolver but accept unauthenticated spoofed answers for signed zones
Flush the recursive cache after every query without checking DNSSEC validation chains
Trust any unsigned response from a configured upstream forwarder merely because it arrived from its expected IP
Validate DNSSEC signatures where deployed and secure the recursive resolution policy
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
DNSSEC authentication protects signed DNS data integrity, not transport confidentiality. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to deliberately corrupt a signed response and verify validation failure.
Incorrect Answers
A:
DNSSEC authentication protects signed DNS data integrity, not transport confidentiality. “Encrypt DNS queries to the same resolver but accept unauthenticated spoofed answers for signed zones” does not supply that control; “Validate DNSSEC signatures where deployed and secure the recursive resolution policy” addresses the identified gap, and “deliberately corrupt a signed response and verify validation failure” verifies the result.
B:
The security distinction is that DNSSEC authentication protects signed DNS data integrity, not transport confidentiality. “Flush the recursive cache after every query without checking DNSSEC validation chains” addresses neither the required “Validate DNSSEC signatures where deployed and secure the recursive resolution policy” action nor its supporting evidence: “deliberately corrupt a signed response and verify validation failure”.
C:
DNSSEC authentication protects signed DNS data integrity, not transport confidentiality. “Trust any unsigned response from a configured upstream forwarder merely because it arrived from its expected IP” does not supply that control; “Validate DNSSEC signatures where deployed and secure the recursive resolution policy” addresses the identified gap, and “deliberately corrupt a signed response and verify validation failure” verifies the result.
Question 365
A contractor can enter both public office areas and restricted server rooms with one badge. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Separate physical entitlements by zone and approved business need
Post a restricted-area sign but leave contractor badge permissions identical across zones
Depend on a contractor NDA rather than removing unnecessary physical door entitlements
Grant the contractor one badge profile that includes all server rooms because office access was approved
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Post a restricted-area sign but leave contractor badge permissions identical across zones” is not the relevant mitigation. Physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. The scenario calls for “Separate physical entitlements by zone and approved business need”; the acceptance check is “Test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events”.
C:
The proposal “Depend on a contractor NDA rather than removing unnecessary physical door entitlements” does not meet the relevant requirement because physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. The matching remediation is “Separate physical entitlements by zone and approved business need”.
D:
“Grant the contractor one badge profile that includes all server rooms because office access was approved” is not the relevant mitigation. Physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. The scenario calls for “Separate physical entitlements by zone and approved business need”; the acceptance check is “Test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events”.
Question 366
A contractor can enter both public office areas and restricted server rooms with one badge. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check the badge was issued by security while prohibited door-access attempts remain untested
Test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events
Confirm the badge opens the public office door without testing restricted entries
Review the contractor's contract but not its server-room authorization records
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. The proposed check, “Check the badge was issued by security while prohibited door-access attempts remain untested”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization. The proposed check, “Confirm the badge opens the public office door without testing restricted entries”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Review the contractor's contract but not its server-room authorization records” does not show the required outcome: test the badge at unauthorized doors and inspect denied events. That test matters because physical access to a building does not confer server-room authorization.
Question 367
An employee's account can read confidential records belonging to unrelated divisions. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Let each employee access records in every division once they pass multifactor authentication
Restrict file downloads but permit unrestricted read access to unrelated confidential records
Apply resource-scoped logical access based on role and purpose
Hide other divisions from the search interface while direct record URLs remain authorized
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization. “Let each employee access records in every division once they pass multifactor authentication” addresses neither the required “Apply resource-scoped logical access based on role and purpose” action nor its supporting evidence: “Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session”.
B:
Authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization. “Restrict file downloads but permit unrestricted read access to unrelated confidential records” does not supply that control; “Apply resource-scoped logical access based on role and purpose” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session” verifies the result.
D:
Authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization. “Hide other divisions from the search interface while direct record URLs remain authorized” does not supply that control; “Apply resource-scoped logical access based on role and purpose” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session” verifies the result.
Question 368
An employee's account can read confidential records belonging to unrelated divisions. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify login authentication rather than resource-specific permission enforcement
Inspect dashboard menu visibility while a guessed record identifier still opens unrelated data
Confirm the employee can view their own division's records without trying a foreign division
Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify login authentication rather than resource-specific permission enforcement” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session”, reflecting the requirement that authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization.
B:
“Inspect dashboard menu visibility while a guessed record identifier still opens unrelated data” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Apply resource-scoped logical access based on role and purpose” works. Authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization. The decisive test is “Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session”.
C:
“Confirm the employee can view their own division's records without trying a foreign division” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt cross-division reads under a valid employee session”, reflecting the requirement that authentication must be followed by resource-specific authorization.
Question 369
A shared mobile device remains signed into a sensitive application after return. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Use device session controls and rapid revocation on reassignment
Reassign the handset immediately and plan to revoke prior sessions at the next weekly review
Trust users to sign out of the shared mobile device manually before returning it
Delete the device's browser history but preserve active refresh tokens in the sensitive app
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Device custody change is a logical access event. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Reassign the handset immediately and plan to revoke prior sessions at the next weekly review” would not establish the protection described: device custody change is a logical access event. The necessary change is “Use device session controls and rapid revocation on reassignment” with the verification “Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data”.
C:
“Trust users to sign out of the shared mobile device manually before returning it” leaves the essential control missing: device custody change is a logical access event. The direct corrective action is “Use device session controls and rapid revocation on reassignment”, validated by the acceptance check “Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data”.
D:
“Delete the device's browser history but preserve active refresh tokens in the sensitive app” would not establish the protection described: device custody change is a logical access event. The necessary change is “Use device session controls and rapid revocation on reassignment” with the verification “Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data”.
Question 370
A shared mobile device remains signed into a sensitive application after return. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the next employee can sign in without attempting reuse of the previous user's token
Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data
Check the device's screen lock while background sessions remain accessible
Verify device inventory reassignment but not application-level token invalidation
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Device custody change is a logical access event. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm the next employee can sign in without attempting reuse of the previous user's token” would not verify the relevant control. Device custody change is a logical access event. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data”.
C:
An observation of “Check the device's screen lock while background sessions remain accessible” would not verify the relevant control. Device custody change is a logical access event. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Reset and reissue the device and verify prior tokens cannot access data” because device custody change is a logical access event. “Verify device inventory reassignment but not application-level token invalidation” cannot establish that result.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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