Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 33
Question 320
A critical router has one power supply and no spare hardware agreement. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Add a second interface card while ignoring chassis and power-supply failure
Install redundant routers but power the only critical unit from one unprotected supply
Keep replacement hardware on order without a defined restoration deadline or support contract
Design redundant power and appropriate recovery or replacement coverage
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Add a second interface card while ignoring chassis and power-supply failure” is not the relevant mitigation. Hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. The scenario calls for “Design redundant power and appropriate recovery or replacement coverage”; the acceptance check is “Unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load”.
B:
The proposal “Install redundant routers but power the only critical unit from one unprotected supply” does not meet the relevant requirement because hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. The matching remediation is “Design redundant power and appropriate recovery or replacement coverage”.
C:
“Keep replacement hardware on order without a defined restoration deadline or support contract” is not the relevant mitigation. Hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. The scenario calls for “Design redundant power and appropriate recovery or replacement coverage”; the acceptance check is “Unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load”.
Question 321
A critical router has one power supply and no spare hardware agreement. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load
Test redundant network paths but never simulate loss of the sole router supply
Inspect a vendor support brochure without verifying spare availability and recovery obligations
Measure normal router load only, without confirming continuity or replacement on failure
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. The proposed check, “Test redundant network paths but never simulate loss of the sole router supply”, misses the relevant outcome; “Unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
“Inspect a vendor support brochure without verifying spare availability and recovery obligations” does not show the required outcome: unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load. That test matters because hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure.
D:
Hardware resilience must consider support and power supply failure. The proposed check, “Measure normal router load only, without confirming continuity or replacement on failure”, misses the relevant outcome; “Unplug one supply and verify continuity under expected load” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 322
An employee connects an unknown device to an active corporate access switch. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Require employees to accept an access policy page but skip endpoint identity and posture checks
Require NAC admission policies based on identity and posture
Detect rogue endpoints only after they have unrestricted access to internal services
Permit unknown devices to join the production VLAN if they obtain an IP address from DHCP
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Physical port availability should not imply production network admission. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Physical port availability should not imply production network admission. “Require employees to accept an access policy page but skip endpoint identity and posture checks” does not supply that control; “Require NAC admission policies based on identity and posture” addresses the identified gap, and “Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access” verifies the result.
C:
Physical port availability should not imply production network admission. “Detect rogue endpoints only after they have unrestricted access to internal services” does not supply that control; “Require NAC admission policies based on identity and posture” addresses the identified gap, and “Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access” verifies the result.
D:
The security distinction is that physical port availability should not imply production network admission. “Permit unknown devices to join the production VLAN if they obtain an IP address from DHCP” addresses neither the required “Require NAC admission policies based on identity and posture” action nor its supporting evidence: “Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access”.
Question 323
An employee connects an unknown device to an active corporate access switch. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review policy acknowledgement logs while an unknown host still reaches sensitive services
Confirm a registered laptop can connect without trying an unauthorized device
Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access
Inspect DHCP allocations without validating NAC isolation of unregistered endpoints
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Physical port availability should not imply production network admission. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review policy acknowledgement logs while an unknown host still reaches sensitive services” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Require NAC admission policies based on identity and posture” works. Physical port availability should not imply production network admission. The decisive test is “Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access”.
B:
“Confirm a registered laptop can connect without trying an unauthorized device” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access”, reflecting the requirement that physical port availability should not imply production network admission.
D:
“Inspect DHCP allocations without validating NAC isolation of unregistered endpoints” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Connect an unregistered device and confirm isolated access”, reflecting the requirement that physical port availability should not imply production network admission.
Question 324
A network closet uses unmanaged copper runs through publicly accessible space. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Leave publicly accessible copper runs exposed and depend on port passwords for physical security
Paint the cable conduit to mark it as restricted without inspecting tamper points
Encrypt management traffic while permitting unauthorised access to copper splices and taps
Apply physical conduit protection, inspection and cable management
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Leave publicly accessible copper runs exposed and depend on port passwords for physical security” would not establish the protection described: transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. The necessary change is “Apply physical conduit protection, inspection and cable management” with the verification “Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering”.
B:
“Paint the cable conduit to mark it as restricted without inspecting tamper points” leaves the essential control missing: transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. The direct corrective action is “Apply physical conduit protection, inspection and cable management”, validated by the acceptance check “Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering”.
C:
“Encrypt management traffic while permitting unauthorised access to copper splices and taps” would not establish the protection described: transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. The necessary change is “Apply physical conduit protection, inspection and cable management” with the verification “Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering”.
Question 325
A network closet uses unmanaged copper runs through publicly accessible space. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering
Review electrical drawings but not the actual route through public spaces
Check switch configuration backups while physical tap or tamper detection remains absent
Confirm Ethernet connectivity works without examining vulnerable physical cable paths
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering.
Incorrect Answers
B:
An observation of “Review electrical drawings but not the actual route through public spaces” would not verify the relevant control. Transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering”.
C:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering” because transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. “Check switch configuration backups while physical tap or tamper detection remains absent” cannot establish that result.
D:
An observation of “Confirm Ethernet connectivity works without examining vulnerable physical cable paths” would not verify the relevant control. Transmission media exposure is a physical-layer attack route. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review cable-route inspection and incident response to tampering”.
Question 326
An endpoint security agent is missing from a subset of managed desktops. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Deploy the missing agent by email instruction with no network isolation pending remediation
Use central posture enforcement before granting sensitive network access
Allow desktops missing their endpoint agent to reach sensitive applications until the next audit
Base admission on employee username only while ignoring managed device posture
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Deploy the missing agent by email instruction with no network isolation pending remediation” is not the relevant mitigation. Endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. The scenario calls for “Use central posture enforcement before granting sensitive network access”; the acceptance check is “Verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks”.
C:
“Allow desktops missing their endpoint agent to reach sensitive applications until the next audit” is not the relevant mitigation. Endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. The scenario calls for “Use central posture enforcement before granting sensitive network access”; the acceptance check is “Verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks”.
D:
The proposal “Base admission on employee username only while ignoring managed device posture” does not meet the relevant requirement because endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. The matching remediation is “Use central posture enforcement before granting sensitive network access”.
Question 327
An endpoint security agent is missing from a subset of managed desktops. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify compliant desktops connect but never exercise the missing-agent condition
Count licensed endpoint agents without comparing them against devices granted network access
Verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks
Review security agent installation instructions while noncompliant hosts retain full production reachability
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify compliant desktops connect but never exercise the missing-agent condition” does not show the required outcome: verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks. That test matters because endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices.
B:
Endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. The proposed check, “Count licensed endpoint agents without comparing them against devices granted network access”, misses the relevant outcome; “Verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
Endpoint protection is effective only when enforcement covers actual devices. The proposed check, “Review security agent installation instructions while noncompliant hosts retain full production reachability”, misses the relevant outcome; “Verify noncompliant endpoints are restricted to remediation networks” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 328
A Wi-Fi controller reports many false acceptances on a weak device posture rule. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Accept self-declared device compliance instead of verifiable certificates and posture
Treat a successful wireless association as equivalent to authorized corporate network admission
Loosen NAC posture thresholds so unsupported or unknown devices can join without tickets
Refine NAC authorization with certificate identity and posture checks
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone. “Accept self-declared device compliance instead of verifiable certificates and posture” does not supply that control; “Refine NAC authorization with certificate identity and posture checks” addresses the identified gap, and “Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment” verifies the result.
B:
The security distinction is that access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone. “Treat a successful wireless association as equivalent to authorized corporate network admission” addresses neither the required “Refine NAC authorization with certificate identity and posture checks” action nor its supporting evidence: “Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment”.
C:
Access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone. “Loosen NAC posture thresholds so unsupported or unknown devices can join without tickets” does not supply that control; “Refine NAC authorization with certificate identity and posture checks” addresses the identified gap, and “Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment” verifies the result.
Question 329
A Wi-Fi controller reports many false acceptances on a weak device posture rule. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment
Review a device enrollment list but never challenge the controller with a rogue endpoint
Test only known compliant laptops but omit unknown certificate or failed-posture cases
Check Wi-Fi RSSI and throughput rather than NAC acceptance decisions
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Review a device enrollment list but never challenge the controller with a rogue endpoint” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment”, reflecting the requirement that access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone.
C:
“Test only known compliant laptops but omit unknown certificate or failed-posture cases” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Refine NAC authorization with certificate identity and posture checks” works. Access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone. The decisive test is “Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment”.
D:
“Check Wi-Fi RSSI and throughput rather than NAC acceptance decisions” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Exercise both approved and unknown endpoint enrollment”, reflecting the requirement that access control should use trustworthy device identity, not MAC addresses alone.
Question 330
A network vendor's hardware requires high-priority recovery within four hours. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Depend on a best-effort vendor support email without a four-hour hardware restoration commitment
Maintain a support contract and pretested spare or replacement plan
Store one untested replacement card without configuration, compatibility or shipping validation
Treat annual maintenance invoices as proof that a failed network chassis will recover on time
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Warranty entitlement alone may not satisfy required recovery time. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to perform a mock hardware replacement against contractual recovery targets.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Depend on a best-effort vendor support email without a four-hour hardware restoration commitment” would not establish the protection described: warranty entitlement alone may not satisfy required recovery time. The necessary change is “Maintain a support contract and pretested spare or replacement plan” with the verification “Perform a mock hardware replacement against contractual recovery targets”.
C:
“Store one untested replacement card without configuration, compatibility or shipping validation” would not establish the protection described: warranty entitlement alone may not satisfy required recovery time. The necessary change is “Maintain a support contract and pretested spare or replacement plan” with the verification “Perform a mock hardware replacement against contractual recovery targets”.
D:
“Treat annual maintenance invoices as proof that a failed network chassis will recover on time” leaves the essential control missing: warranty entitlement alone may not satisfy required recovery time. The direct corrective action is “Maintain a support contract and pretested spare or replacement plan”, validated by the acceptance check “Perform a mock hardware replacement against contractual recovery targets”.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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