Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) 200-301 Practice Test 38
Question 370
An engineer configured /64 instead of /128 and unintentionally reroutes many other service addresses through one next hop. The team should investigate which specific technical cause?
The /64 and /128 match the same one address because IPv6 uses 128 bits total.
An IPv6 `/64` route was used instead of a `/128` service host route, unintentionally matching other addresses sharing that 64-bit prefix.
A /128 static route would redirect every service host in the /64.
Changing the IPv6 TCP destination port can narrow the /64 network prefix scope.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
IPv6 /64 represents an entire subnet; /128 pins one destination. The overbroad static can hijack other service hosts from their intended more-general route.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Their prefix lengths differ by 64 bits and represent vastly different address sets.
C:
A /128 is the narrowest exact single-host match.
D:
Transport ports do not change the IPv6 destination prefix matching done by normal routing.
Question 371
A branch routing engineer must explain an outage. A supposed backup route has AD 1, which outranks the existing OSPF AD 110 path and becomes primary unexpectedly. Which diagnosis follows from these observations?
The OSPF route with AD 110 must win because any dynamic route outranks a static with AD 1.
The problem must be a VLAN tag mismatch because an S route appears ahead of OSPF.
Keep AD 1 but raise the static metric field, expecting OSPF’s protocol metric to override source preference.
The backup static still has default AD 1, which is more preferred than eligible OSPF AD 110 for an identical prefix; increase the static AD above 110.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Floating statics must be administratively less preferred so they do not displace the dynamic primary. Default statics use AD 1; protocol-specific cost is not a substitute for AD ordering.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Lower administrative distance wins between eligible routes to the same prefix.
B:
An installed S route can be explained directly by its lower AD.
C:
Different protocols’ metric values are not the cross-source selection criterion.
Question 372
A branch routing engineer collects this evidence: R1 tries to ARP for a next hop outside all connected subnets because no valid route resolves the configured next-hop IP. Which root-cause interpretation best fits the observations?
The router can ARP directly for every off-link next-hop address regardless of any egress route.
The static next-hop address cannot resolve to a usable connected or recursively reachable neighbor, so ARP/forwarding toward that gateway fails.
A correct route in running-config always guarantees a connected Layer 2 path to its next hop.
The issue is caused by a client DNS server typo, which modifies the router’s ARP next-hop address.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
A next hop outside the connected subnets needs another active route resolving it to a valid egress. With none, the static destination is unusable; ARP cannot resolve a nonadjacent router without a path.
Incorrect Answers
A:
ARP is local-link neighbor resolution, not a general multi-hop next-hop discovery mechanism.
C:
Configuration can name an unreachable or unresolved address.
D:
DNS settings are not the stated static next-hop reachability failure.
Question 373
Troubleshooting report: An engineer copied interface-only syntax to Ethernet, causing repeated ARP attempts for diverse destination IPs through proxy ARP. Which finding best accounts for the behavior?
An interface-only static on multiaccess Ethernet leads the router to ARP for destination IPs along that interface, potentially depending on proxy ARP.
Interface-only Ethernet statics always perform exactly one ARP to a fixed gateway, just like next-hop statics.
ARP cannot be used on Ethernet under any static route because the route is configured manually.
The router must have formed an OSPF adjacency because proxy ARP replies were observed.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Specifying only the outgoing Ethernet interface does not name one adjacent IP next hop. For remote prefixes, repeated ARP for destination addresses can create scale/availability problems; use a reachable explicit next hop.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Without an explicit gateway IP, the router may resolve individual destination addresses via ARP.
C:
IPv4 adjacency resolution remains necessary even when routes are static.
D:
ARP and OSPF are separate protocols and the latter is not implied.
Question 374
Recursive lookup sends the next hop toward an unintended interface after a topology change because the static route was not fully specified. The team should investigate which specific technical cause?
Recursive next-hop route selection can never change its outgoing interface after a topology update.
Next-hop-only static recursion chose an unintended egress after topology change; a fully specified interface-plus-next-hop static can constrain the intended path.
An interface-only Ethernet static always selects the correct unique neighbor without ARP or proxy ARP.
Changing the OSPF router ID automatically pins a static route to a specific port.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
A next-hop IP resolves using the current RIB, which may select another exit as links/routes change. An explicit physical interface plus the appropriate on-link next hop limits this ambiguity when platform-supported.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The very purpose of recursive resolution is to use currently active routes to the next-hop IP.
C:
Multiaccess Ethernet permits multiple neighbors and may ARP for destinations without an explicit next hop.
D:
Router identity does not set the static route egress interface.
Question 375
R1 has Gi0/1 connected to R2 and Gi0/2 connected to R3; each neighbor independently uses the link-local address fe80::1. R3 leads to 2001:db8:60::/64. The administrator enters `ipv6 route 2001:db8:60::/64 Gi0/1 fe80::1`, and traffic goes to the wrong neighbor. What correction addresses the scoped next-hop binding?
Change the fully specified route to use Gi0/2 with fe80::1, the link where R3 is reachable.
Keep Gi0/1 but change the OSPFv2 router ID to R3's identifier.
Convert the route destination to 2001:db8:60::/128, regardless of the real remote network.
Raise the Ethernet MTU on Gi0/1 to make fe80::1 globally unique.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
fe80::1 is meaningful only on a particular interface; R1 must specify the Ethernet link that reaches the intended next-hop owner. Gi0/2 leads to R3, whereas Gi0/1 leads to a different router using the same link-local text.
Incorrect Answers
B:
OSPF router IDs do not select IPv6 static-route next-hop link scope. The route already has an explicit interface; the error is which physical link it names.
C:
A /128 route covers a single IPv6 address, while the required remote destination is the full /64. Narrowing the route cannot fix a next hop directed to the wrong neighbor link.
D:
MTU affects packet size and may affect protocol adjacency, but it does not make a fe80:: address globally unique. Link-local addresses are scoped to their interfaces, and the correct egress link resolves ambiguity.
Question 376
A branch routing engineer collects this evidence: Traffic to a nonallocated /24 inside 10.100.0.0/16 is blackholed by Null0 while a valid child /24 routes successfully. Which root-cause interpretation best fits the observations?
The presence of any Null0 aggregate necessarily drops all valid child /24 traffic.
Unallocated summary destinations should be forwarded by default to an unrelated WAN because they have no service.
The Null0 discard summary correctly handles an unallocated hole inside 10.100.0.0/16; the active child /24 still wins for valid destinations.
Null0 automatically generates ICMP echo replies from every unallocated host in the summary.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
A summary route to Null0 is often an intentional loop-prevention guard. The router discards unknown member destinations and uses more-specific installed child routes for actual internal subnets.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A longer child prefix overrides the broader summary for addresses in that child.
B:
A matching internal Null0 aggregate prevents such erroneous looping or leakage.
D:
Null0 is a discard adjacency, not an address-owning host service.
Question 377
Troubleshooting report: A broad no ip route command removes a different route, but the obsolete next-hop entry still appears in running configuration. Which finding best accounts for the behavior?
A broad negation automatically removes every static route with a common first octet, even if mask/next hop differ.
The old static cannot exist if a different static to the same summary was removed.
The `no ip route` command did not exactly match the obsolete route’s destination/mask/next hop tuple, so the old configured statement remains.
Deleting the routing-table output from terminal history removes the static from running configuration.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Negating an IOS static route uses the same configured route arguments. Different netmasks or next-hop values target another route or fail to remove the intended line.
Incorrect Answers
A:
IOS `no ip route` does not delete all routes by arbitrary broad name matching.
B:
Several configured routes with distinct prefixes or next hops can coexist; removal must target the right entry.
D:
CLI screen/history manipulation does not alter configured route statements.
Question 378
The primary is shut down for a test but the backup's next hop has no independent reachability, so no replacement route installs. The team should investigate which specific technical cause?
The supposed backup static has an unreachable next hop, so it cannot be installed when the primary disappears; repair recursive/adjacent reachability.
The backup static always becomes eligible simply because its AD is 200 even with no path to its next hop.
The primary route should remain installed via a shutdown interface and continue forwarding.
A local username privilege setting determines whether the backup next hop can be reached.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
High AD does not ensure failover. The backup candidate must be valid and resolvable at the moment the lower-AD primary vanishes, or the router has no usable replacement.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Administrative distance controls preference, not basic next-hop reachability.
C:
Link-down may invalidate the primary route and adjacency.
D:
Administrative authentication controls CLI, not the IP next-hop routing requirement.
Question 379
An administrator configures ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1 and confirms that 192.0.2.1 is reachable. Which output most directly proves that the IPv4 static default route is installed in the routing table?
show ip interface brief displays the WAN interface as up/up
show ipv6 route static lists an IPv6 ::/0 route
show ip route shows S* 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.0.2.1
show ip ospf neighbor lists a FULL adjacency
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
The routing information base records the selected routes that the router can use for IPv4 forwarding. The S code identifies a static source, and the asterisk on a default route commonly denotes a candidate default gateway in Cisco IOS displays. The output S* 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.0.2.1 directly shows that the configured default prefix and its next hop are installed rather than merely present in the running configuration. It should also match the operational gateway of last resort. Follow up with a destination-specific reachability test and next-hop resolution if packets still fail. A routing protocol neighbor or connected interface alone cannot substitute for this route-table evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An interface operating up/up is necessary for many forwarding paths but does not establish that the router installed any default route. The interface might be reachable yet the route configuration could have an incorrect next hop, be withdrawn, or fail recursive resolution. The question requests evidence from the IPv4 routing table, which is a stronger check than a physical or line-protocol state alone.
B:
The show ipv6 route static command concerns the independent IPv6 routing table. An IPv6 default route ::/0 does not establish that IPv4 destinations without a more-specific route can reach the specified next hop. A dual-stack router can have IPv6 forwarding that works while IPv4 has no gateway of last resort. Use an IPv4-specific route lookup instead.
D:
A FULL OSPF neighbor state proves an OSPF adjacency formed with a participating router. It does not establish that the manually configured IPv4 default static route is installed, nor that its specific next hop is in use. The default could be absent, overridden, or unresolved even with OSPF functioning correctly. Inspect show ip route for the exact static prefix and next hop instead.
Question 380
A router has been configured with ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1::1 toward a reachable upstream router. Which output specifically establishes that the IPv6 default static route is installed?
show ipv6 route static displays S ::/0 via 2001:db8:1::1
show ip route static displays an IPv4 S* 0.0.0.0/0 entry
show ipv6 neighbors lists the link-layer address of an upstream node
show ipv6 interface brief displays a global-unicast interface address
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
The IPv6 route table stores installed IPv6 prefix routes separately from IPv4. A static ::/0 route shown by show ipv6 route static with next hop 2001:db8:1::1 demonstrates the exact configured fallback prefix has been selected and can participate in IPv6 forwarding. The next hop must also remain reachable for packets to be delivered. If an application still fails, test a destination without a more-specific route and inspect neighbor resolution and the interface path, but do not confuse an up interface or a learned neighbor with proof that the actual default route exists in the routing table.
Incorrect Answers
B:
The IPv4 routing table uses 0.0.0.0/0, not ::/0. Even a valid IPv4 static default route cannot provide forwarding for an otherwise unmatched IPv6 destination. Cisco platforms maintain protocol-specific routes, so the corresponding show ip route output does not answer whether the requested IPv6 route was installed. The required evidence must come from show ipv6 route or its static-route view.
C:
An IPv6 neighbor entry demonstrates that a router has resolved a neighbor at the link layer. It cannot by itself prove which destination prefixes will use that neighbor or whether the default static entry was accepted into the IPv6 route table. Neighbor discovery may work for an on-link router while all external IPv6 packets still lack a route. Verify the installed ::/0 route separately.
D:
A globally addressed and operational IPv6 interface proves the local interface has usable address state. A router may have such an address and still lack a default path for remote prefixes. An address on the upstream-facing link is a prerequisite, not proof of the exact installed ::/0 prefix. A route-table check is necessary to establish the fallback forwarding decision.
Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests
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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test Questions, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with Cisco CCNA 200-301 certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with Cisco 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with Cisco certification CCNA 200-301 exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1: Current Scope Before the 2027 Refresh
Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 is still the current CCNA exam in September 2026. Cisco has already published a future v2.0 blueprint, but the company states that v1.1 remains available through February 2, 2027 and that CCNA v2.0 begins testing on February 3, 2027. Candidates studying now therefore need to keep two facts separate: a refresh is coming, but the live exam today is still v1.1.
The current exam validates network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. That breadth is intentional. CCNA is not solely a routing exam and not solely a configuration exam; it asks candidates to understand how a modern enterprise network is built, how traffic moves through it, how common services support it, how it is secured, and how controllers and APIs are changing operations.
A 2026 CCNA article has to distinguish present scope from future scope. Cisco's current CCNA path still uses 200-301 v1.1, and Cisco's July 2026 transition guidance gives February 2, 2027 as the final day for that version. The refreshed v2.0 exam goes live the next day.
That means candidates should not silently replace the v1.1 blueprint with v2.0 material. Future topics can be useful for long-term learning, but the exam objective that controls a test taken before the changeover is v1.1. Cisco has described v2.0 as placing more practical assessment, security, AI, and troubleshooting throughout the blueprint, which makes it important context without making it the current exam yet.
Within Cisco, 200-301 remains the single core exam for the general CCNA credential. Cisco currently lists it as a 120-minute exam with no formal prerequisite.
Network fundamentals: models, media, addressing, and device roles
Everything else in CCNA depends on a clear model of how endpoints and infrastructure communicate. Candidates should understand routers, Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches, wireless access points, controllers, firewalls, servers, endpoints, and the media that connect them. They should be able to explain what changes as traffic moves from a local Ethernet segment to a remote IP network.
IPv4 subnetting and IPv6 addressing need to be operational skills rather than memorized vocabulary. Given an address and prefix, a candidate should determine the network, identify whether two hosts are local or remote, and understand when a default gateway is used. The same reasoning supports route interpretation later in the blueprint.
Physical fundamentals still matter. Interface state, duplex, speed, cable or optic choice, and device connectivity can create symptoms that resemble higher-layer problems. A good CCNA troubleshooter verifies the lower layers before rewriting routing or access-control configuration.
Network access: VLANs, trunks, STP, EtherChannel, and wireless
The network-access domain explains how devices share campus infrastructure. VLANs separate Layer 2 broadcast domains, access ports place endpoints into a VLAN, and trunks carry multiple VLANs between network devices. Candidates should understand not only the syntax of common configuration but the forwarding problem each feature solves.
Spanning Tree Protocol prevents Layer 2 loops in redundant switched networks by selecting a loop-free logical topology. EtherChannel combines multiple physical links into one logical bundle, increasing capacity and providing resiliency while requiring compatible configuration on the participating ports. These technologies interact with VLAN and trunk design, so they should be learned as a system rather than as isolated command sets.
Wireless adds another access method with different operational concerns: channels, RF behavior, SSIDs, security, access points, and controller-based architectures. CCNA does not require radio-engineering depth, but candidates should be able to recognize basic wireless components and the difference between wired switching and centrally managed wireless access.
IP connectivity: routing decisions and OSPF reasoning
Routing is where the candidate must move from address knowledge to forwarding decisions. A router compares a destination IP address against its routing table, selects the best matching route, and forwards toward the next hop or outgoing interface. Connected, static, default, and dynamically learned routes can all coexist, so candidates need to understand how the table is interpreted.
Single-area OSPF is the principal dynamic-routing protocol in the v1.1 blueprint. Learning OSPF fundamentals should focus on neighbor relationships, router IDs, link-state information, path calculation, network types, and the conditions that prevent adjacency. The exam can present outputs and ask what they imply, so conceptual troubleshooting matters as much as configuration recall.
First Hop Redundancy Protocol concepts also belong in the connectivity picture. End hosts typically know one default-gateway address, while network designers may need gateway redundancy. Understanding the purpose of a virtual gateway helps candidates see why end-host configuration can remain stable even when one physical router fails.
IP services: DHCP, NAT, DNS, NTP, SNMP, and QoS
Enterprise networks depend on services that make raw connectivity usable. DHCP automates host configuration and may require relay when clients and servers are separated by routers. NAT translates addresses at network boundaries. DNS converts names to addresses. NTP keeps time consistent, which becomes critical for logs, authentication, and troubleshooting.
Network management appears through technologies such as syslog and SNMP. Understanding SNMPv3 helps candidates connect monitoring concepts to stronger authentication and privacy than older SNMP versions provide. The exam does not reduce management to one protocol; it expects candidates to know what information these services provide and why operations teams rely on them.
QoS introduces the idea that not all traffic experiences congestion equally. Classification, marking, queuing, and policing or shaping concepts help explain how networks protect delay-sensitive applications. The objective is to understand behavior and purpose, not to become a service-provider QoS specialist.
Security fundamentals inside a networking certification
CCNA treats security as part of ordinary network administration. Candidates need to understand threats, vulnerabilities, authentication, authorization, accounting, secure device access, password policy, Layer 2 protections, wireless security, access-control lists, and the role of firewalls or intrusion-prevention systems.
The practical theme is reducing unnecessary trust. Management traffic should use secure protocols. Privilege should be limited. Access lists should be interpreted in order and with an understanding of implicit behavior. Layer 2 features such as DHCP snooping or port security exist because attacks can occur inside the access network, not only at the internet edge.
Security also changes troubleshooting. A ping failure may be a routing problem, but it may also be policy. An application may be reachable from one subnet and blocked from another by design. Candidates must therefore distinguish broken connectivity from intentionally restricted connectivity.
Automation and programmability in the v1.1 blueprint
CCNA now expects network engineers to understand controller-based architectures, APIs, data formats, and configuration-management ideas. The exam is not a software-development certification, but it does test whether candidates recognize the shift from device-by-device CLI work toward intent, centralized control, and programmable interfaces.
Software-defined networking provides the conceptual frame: control decisions can be logically centralized while devices continue forwarding data. REST APIs and JSON expose structured ways for software to interact with systems. Configuration-management tools and infrastructure-as-code approaches make repeatable changes possible at scale.
Terraform appears in current CCNA study discussions because infrastructure as code helps illustrate declarative automation. Candidates do not need professional-level Terraform expertise, but they should understand why repeatability, version control, validation, and machine-readable configuration are increasingly important to network operations.
Troubleshooting across the stack instead of memorizing commands
The broadest CCNA skill is diagnosis. A candidate should be able to start with a symptom and decide which evidence would meaningfully narrow the cause. If a switch port is down, routing is not the first question. If two hosts in the same VLAN communicate but remote traffic fails, the investigation shifts toward Layer 3. If IP reachability works but names fail, DNS becomes relevant.
CLI output is evidence. Interface status, MAC tables, VLAN information, Spanning Tree state, EtherChannel summaries, IP configuration, routing tables, OSPF neighbors, ACLs, and service configuration all answer different questions. Memorizing a command without understanding the question it answers creates brittle exam preparation.
Hands-on labs should therefore include intentional breakage. Put an access port in the wrong VLAN, misconfigure a trunk, remove a route, alter a default gateway, break a DHCP relay, or write an ACL with an unintended match order. Diagnose each problem from observations rather than from memory of what you changed.
Building a study plan around the live v1.1 exam. A learner entering from 100-150 CCST Networking already has useful foundations in devices, media, addressing, protocols, and basic troubleshooting. CCNA adds configuration depth and forces those fundamentals to work together. The progression should therefore move from packet path and addressing into switching, routing, services, security, and automation while keeping regular troubleshooting practice throughout.
Use the current v1.1 blueprint as the checklist for any exam scheduled before February 3, 2027. Future v2.0 material can be studied as an extension, especially if it improves hands-on skill, but it should be labeled as future scope so it does not displace current objectives.
After CCNA, candidates who want a deeper enterprise-networking path can progress toward professional-level work such as 350-401 ENCOR. CCNA is not simply a gate to that exam; it supplies the routing, switching, services, security, and automation vocabulary on which professional study builds.
What a 2026 CCNA candidate should be able to demonstrate
A strong candidate can explain why a network behaves the way it does. They can interpret an address and route, trace a VLAN path, reason about OSPF, distinguish service failure from raw connectivity failure, recognize security policy effects, and describe why controllers and APIs matter. They are not dependent on one memorized command sequence because they understand the system those commands expose.
They also keep certification timing straight. The live target today is 200-301 CCNA v1.1. Cisco has announced the February 2027 transition, but the future blueprint does not make v1.1 obsolete before its retirement date. Studying the version actually being tested is a basic part of factual exam preparation.
CCNA remains broad by design. The best preparation does not try to flatten that breadth into trivia. It builds a working network model, reinforces it through configuration and troubleshooting, and uses current Cisco objectives to decide how much depth each topic deserves.
Use Cisco CCNA 200-301 certification exam practice test questions, study guide and training course - the complete package at discounted price. Pass with 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) practice test questions and answers, study guide, complete training course especially formatted in VCE files. Latest Cisco certification CCNA 200-301 exam practice test questions and answers will guarantee your success without studying for endless hours.
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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Test Questions, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test Questions and Answers
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