Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) 200-301 Practice Test 37
Question 360
A branch routing engineer must implement a change. A point-to-point serial link has a single peer, allowing an exit-interface static route without broadcast-layer next-hop ambiguity. Which technical decision most directly meets these requirements?
Use an interface-only static to a large remote network over broadcast Ethernet and assume it cannot create proxy-ARP overhead.
Use an exit-interface static route such as `ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 Serial0/0/0` on the true point-to-point serial link.
Configure `ip route 203.0.113.0 0.0.0.0 Serial0/0/0` and interpret 0.0.0.0 as a /24 mask.
Use a down serial interface as the only egress and expect the destination static to remain usable.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
A genuine point-to-point link has only one downstream peer, so an interface-only route can identify the correct next hop without multiaccess Ethernet ARP ambiguity.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Multiaccess Ethernet may need a specified next-hop to avoid ARP for many remote destinations.
C:
A zero mask is a default prefix, not /24.
D:
The route depends on an operational point-to-point link.
Question 361
A static route pins a destination prefix to BOTH a specified outgoing interface and next-hop address. The team needs a solution consistent with this requirement. Which option is the most appropriate design or configuration decision?
Use `ip route 10.50.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.2` and claim its outgoing interface can never change.
Use a fully specified static such as `ip route 10.50.20.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/0 192.0.2.2`.
Use only `ip route 10.50.20.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/0` on shared Ethernet and forbid all ARP.
Configure only an OSPF area statement and assume it creates a static route with the requested interface and next hop.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
IOS can constrain a static destination to a named outgoing interface and an adjacent next hop. This avoids accidental recursion to a different interface if a matching route to that next hop changes.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Next-hop-only statics rely on recursive route resolution, which may select a different egress path if topology changes.
C:
Interface-only Ethernet routing can cause per-destination ARP or proxy ARP dependence.
D:
OSPF route discovery is not the fully specified static command.
Question 362
R1 connects to R2 on GigabitEthernet0/1, and the adjacent R2 interface uses IPv6 link-local address fe80::2. R2 routes packets toward the remote network 2001:db8:99::/64. R1 must use R2 as the static-route next hop on that Ethernet link. Which Cisco IOS command is complete?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:99::/64 fe80::2
ipv6 route 2001:db8:99::/64 GigabitEthernet0/1
ip route 2001:db8:99::/64 GigabitEthernet0/1 fe80::2
The complete IPv6 static route identifies the remote destination 2001:db8:99::/64, the local outgoing interface GigabitEthernet0/1, and R2's link-local next hop fe80::2. On an Ethernet segment a link-local IPv6 next hop must be associated with the correct egress interface, because fe80:: addresses are not globally unique and their scope is restricted to a link. This form lets R1 resolve the adjacent next hop with Neighbor Discovery and forward packets through R2. After configuring it, check the installed IPv6 route, next-hop adjacency, and a destination in the remote subnet.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The destination prefix and link-local next-hop address look plausible, but a link-local address is meaningful only within a particular link. Cisco IOS requires the outgoing interface when a link-local IPv6 address supplies the static-route next hop. Without GigabitEthernet0/1, the command lacks the zone that identifies the intended adjacent router. It should not be treated as a fully specified route to a remote IPv6 prefix.
B:
Specifying only the Ethernet exit interface omits the adjacent router's IPv6 next-hop address. On multipoint broadcast Ethernet, interface-only static routes can create undesirable Neighbor Discovery attempts for remote destinations or reliance on proxy behavior. The task expressly identifies R2 at fe80::2 as the gateway, so both its address and the attached outgoing interface should appear. An interface-only route is not the requested precise next-hop configuration.
C:
The ip route command creates IPv4 static routes and expects an IPv4 destination and mask or prefix. The supplied destination is an IPv6 /64, and the next-hop address is also IPv6. For an IPv6 route, IOS uses ipv6 route with its IPv6 prefix, interface, and valid IPv6 next-hop syntax. Mixing the IPv4 route command with IPv6 addresses cannot satisfy the stated forwarding requirement.
Question 363
A proposed network design has this requirement: A network advertises a summary 10.100.0.0/16 but must discard unknown internal destinations in that summary safely. Which choice is technically appropriate for that deployment?
Install an aggregate discard `ip route 10.100.0.0 255.255.0.0 Null0` while retaining more-specific real child routes to each active subnet.
Replace all child routes with only the Null0 /16 and expect active 10.100.x subnets to remain reachable.
Route every unallocated 10.100.x address through the external default route instead of the matching internal discard summary.
Set a Null0 /32 for one host and claim it protects all unallocated /24 networks in the /16.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A Null0 summary catches missing child destinations and prevents them from being sent back toward the aggregate source indefinitely. More-specific child prefixes win longest match and continue forwarding normally.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Without longer child routes, the summary would discard even valid destinations.
C:
A matching /16 would be more specific than a default and can intentionally prevent loops.
D:
A /32 discard is host-specific and does not implement an aggregate protection route.
Question 364
A branch routing engineer must implement a change. A maintenance engineer must delete one exact obsolete ip route entry using matching destination, mask and next hop. Which technical decision most directly meets these requirements?
Use `no ip route 10.50.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.2` when the installed statement is 10.50.20.0/24.
Remove the exact obsolete static with `no ip route 10.50.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.2`, including any originally configured distance/flags if required.
Use `no ip route 10.50.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.3` while the original uses next-hop .2.
Delete a VLAN name in the switch database and assume the router’s static-route statement is removed.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
IOS negation must match the route statement targeted for deletion. Removing the wrong prefix, mask, next hop or variant may leave the intended static entry in the running configuration.
Incorrect Answers
A:
This targets a different prefix and would not remove the exact obsolete /24 route.
C:
The next-hop parameter differs, so it does not negate the intended command.
D:
VLAN database operations do not erase IOS `ip route` lines.
Question 365
A primary route and higher-AD backup are configured; loss of the primary should activate the backup without routing loops. The team needs a solution consistent with this requirement. Which option is the most appropriate design or configuration decision?
Simulate the primary-path failure under controlled conditions, then confirm its route withdraws, the higher-AD backup installs and the destination stays reachable without a loop.
Judge success solely because the backup `ip route` command exists in running-config while the primary remains up.
Give the backup AD 1 and expect it to wait behind OSPF 110 while testing.
Disable both primary and backup links during the test, then infer failover is healthy from loss of connectivity.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A floating static is useful only if it becomes active when the preferred dynamic route vanishes and its next hop is reachable. Test both control-plane RIB selection and actual data-plane continuity.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Configuration text does not prove the backup can resolve and carry packets after failure.
C:
That would make the static primary and invalidate the intended failover design.
D:
An absent working forwarding path cannot demonstrate functional backup operation.
Question 366
Inside subnets are reachable, but show ip route has no installed gateway of last resort and off-site public IPs are unreachable. The team should investigate which specific technical cause?
Internal connected routes always imply a usable Internet 0/0 automatically.
The router lacks an installed IPv4 default route (or otherwise covering external prefixes), so unmatched public destinations have no next hop.
The failure must be on every Ethernet interface because public reachability fails while private subnets work.
Any IPv4 default must have /24 mask and will match every public address.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Working inside routes show some local forwarding remains. The gateway-of-last-resort message points to missing 0/0 or unavailable default rather than a general switch problem.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Local subnets do not supply a default gateway to all off-site destinations.
C:
The evidence more specifically identifies absent last-resort routing.
D:
Default is 0.0.0.0/0, not an arbitrary /24.
Question 367
A branch routing engineer must explain an outage. IPv6 addresses in connected /64 work but external IPv6 destinations are unreachable because no active ::/0 exists. Which diagnosis follows from these observations?
The existence of a local `fe80::/10` link-local scope automatically supplies a global IPv6 default route.
A connected /64 must match every global IPv6 address because its prefix is inside 2001:db8::/32.
The IPv6 RIB has no active `::/0` default, so connected /64 traffic works while unmatched external IPv6 destinations lack a route.
The IPv4 0.0.0.0/0 route always handles IPv6 packets with no IPv6 route.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
IPv6 forwarding selects the longest matching installed prefix; an on-link connected /64 is not a default. Configure/learn a resolvable ::/0 when broader IPv6 reachability is needed.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Link-local addresses do not create a route covering arbitrary global IPv6 destinations.
B:
A /64 covers only its own 64-bit subnet prefix.
D:
IPv4 and IPv6 use separate forwarding tables and protocol formats.
Question 368
A branch routing engineer collects this evidence: The static route uses /25 for the target /24, leaving hosts 10.50.20.128–255 without the intended route. Which root-cause interpretation best fits the observations?
The static destination 10.50.20.0/25 covers only .0–.127; hosts .128–.255 need a matching second /25 or the intended corrected /24.
The lower 10.50.20.0/25 covers .0–.255 because all addresses share the first three octets.
Increase the mask to /26 and assume the route will now cover all 256 addresses.
Replace /25 with /32 to include both upper and lower halves of 10.50.20.0/24.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A /25 mask 255.255.255.128 restricts route coverage to half of the target /24. The existing route cannot match destinations in the upper half of 10.50.20.0/24.
Incorrect Answers
B:
That applies to /24; /25 adds one significant bit in the final octet.
C:
Longer /26 prefix covers only 64 addresses, less than /25.
D:
A /32 matches only one exact host address.
Question 369
Troubleshooting report: The configured /32 reaches 198.51.100.42 but does not provide a route for .43; a technician assumes it routes the whole subnet. Which finding best accounts for the behavior?
The installed static is a /32 for 198.51.100.42 only, so it cannot route 198.51.100.43 without another matching prefix.
Any /32 route to .42 automatically covers the entire .0/24 because both are in the same subnet.
A /32 route represents no hosts because .42 is not the broadcast address of /24.
The static /32 changes the administrative distance of all other prefixes in the RIB.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Host routes have all 32 IPv4 address bits fixed. Adjacent .43 is a different /32 and needs its own route or a covering broader route.
Incorrect Answers
B:
That wrongly treats a one-address host prefix as a 256-address subnet.
C:
A /32 host route is a valid one-address destination for forwarding.
D:
A host-specific route does not globally rewrite AD settings.
Question 370
An engineer configured /64 instead of /128 and unintentionally reroutes many other service addresses through one next hop. The team should investigate which specific technical cause?
The /64 and /128 match the same one address because IPv6 uses 128 bits total.
An IPv6 `/64` route was used instead of a `/128` service host route, unintentionally matching other addresses sharing that 64-bit prefix.
A /128 static route would redirect every service host in the /64.
Changing the IPv6 TCP destination port can narrow the /64 network prefix scope.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
IPv6 /64 represents an entire subnet; /128 pins one destination. The overbroad static can hijack other service hosts from their intended more-general route.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Their prefix lengths differ by 64 bits and represent vastly different address sets.
C:
A /128 is the narrowest exact single-host match.
D:
Transport ports do not change the IPv6 destination prefix matching done by normal routing.
Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests
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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test Questions, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with Cisco CCNA 200-301 certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with Cisco 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with Cisco certification CCNA 200-301 exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1: Current Scope Before the 2027 Refresh
Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 is still the current CCNA exam in September 2026. Cisco has already published a future v2.0 blueprint, but the company states that v1.1 remains available through February 2, 2027 and that CCNA v2.0 begins testing on February 3, 2027. Candidates studying now therefore need to keep two facts separate: a refresh is coming, but the live exam today is still v1.1.
The current exam validates network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. That breadth is intentional. CCNA is not solely a routing exam and not solely a configuration exam; it asks candidates to understand how a modern enterprise network is built, how traffic moves through it, how common services support it, how it is secured, and how controllers and APIs are changing operations.
A 2026 CCNA article has to distinguish present scope from future scope. Cisco's current CCNA path still uses 200-301 v1.1, and Cisco's July 2026 transition guidance gives February 2, 2027 as the final day for that version. The refreshed v2.0 exam goes live the next day.
That means candidates should not silently replace the v1.1 blueprint with v2.0 material. Future topics can be useful for long-term learning, but the exam objective that controls a test taken before the changeover is v1.1. Cisco has described v2.0 as placing more practical assessment, security, AI, and troubleshooting throughout the blueprint, which makes it important context without making it the current exam yet.
Within Cisco, 200-301 remains the single core exam for the general CCNA credential. Cisco currently lists it as a 120-minute exam with no formal prerequisite.
Network fundamentals: models, media, addressing, and device roles
Everything else in CCNA depends on a clear model of how endpoints and infrastructure communicate. Candidates should understand routers, Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches, wireless access points, controllers, firewalls, servers, endpoints, and the media that connect them. They should be able to explain what changes as traffic moves from a local Ethernet segment to a remote IP network.
IPv4 subnetting and IPv6 addressing need to be operational skills rather than memorized vocabulary. Given an address and prefix, a candidate should determine the network, identify whether two hosts are local or remote, and understand when a default gateway is used. The same reasoning supports route interpretation later in the blueprint.
Physical fundamentals still matter. Interface state, duplex, speed, cable or optic choice, and device connectivity can create symptoms that resemble higher-layer problems. A good CCNA troubleshooter verifies the lower layers before rewriting routing or access-control configuration.
Network access: VLANs, trunks, STP, EtherChannel, and wireless
The network-access domain explains how devices share campus infrastructure. VLANs separate Layer 2 broadcast domains, access ports place endpoints into a VLAN, and trunks carry multiple VLANs between network devices. Candidates should understand not only the syntax of common configuration but the forwarding problem each feature solves.
Spanning Tree Protocol prevents Layer 2 loops in redundant switched networks by selecting a loop-free logical topology. EtherChannel combines multiple physical links into one logical bundle, increasing capacity and providing resiliency while requiring compatible configuration on the participating ports. These technologies interact with VLAN and trunk design, so they should be learned as a system rather than as isolated command sets.
Wireless adds another access method with different operational concerns: channels, RF behavior, SSIDs, security, access points, and controller-based architectures. CCNA does not require radio-engineering depth, but candidates should be able to recognize basic wireless components and the difference between wired switching and centrally managed wireless access.
IP connectivity: routing decisions and OSPF reasoning
Routing is where the candidate must move from address knowledge to forwarding decisions. A router compares a destination IP address against its routing table, selects the best matching route, and forwards toward the next hop or outgoing interface. Connected, static, default, and dynamically learned routes can all coexist, so candidates need to understand how the table is interpreted.
Single-area OSPF is the principal dynamic-routing protocol in the v1.1 blueprint. Learning OSPF fundamentals should focus on neighbor relationships, router IDs, link-state information, path calculation, network types, and the conditions that prevent adjacency. The exam can present outputs and ask what they imply, so conceptual troubleshooting matters as much as configuration recall.
First Hop Redundancy Protocol concepts also belong in the connectivity picture. End hosts typically know one default-gateway address, while network designers may need gateway redundancy. Understanding the purpose of a virtual gateway helps candidates see why end-host configuration can remain stable even when one physical router fails.
IP services: DHCP, NAT, DNS, NTP, SNMP, and QoS
Enterprise networks depend on services that make raw connectivity usable. DHCP automates host configuration and may require relay when clients and servers are separated by routers. NAT translates addresses at network boundaries. DNS converts names to addresses. NTP keeps time consistent, which becomes critical for logs, authentication, and troubleshooting.
Network management appears through technologies such as syslog and SNMP. Understanding SNMPv3 helps candidates connect monitoring concepts to stronger authentication and privacy than older SNMP versions provide. The exam does not reduce management to one protocol; it expects candidates to know what information these services provide and why operations teams rely on them.
QoS introduces the idea that not all traffic experiences congestion equally. Classification, marking, queuing, and policing or shaping concepts help explain how networks protect delay-sensitive applications. The objective is to understand behavior and purpose, not to become a service-provider QoS specialist.
Security fundamentals inside a networking certification
CCNA treats security as part of ordinary network administration. Candidates need to understand threats, vulnerabilities, authentication, authorization, accounting, secure device access, password policy, Layer 2 protections, wireless security, access-control lists, and the role of firewalls or intrusion-prevention systems.
The practical theme is reducing unnecessary trust. Management traffic should use secure protocols. Privilege should be limited. Access lists should be interpreted in order and with an understanding of implicit behavior. Layer 2 features such as DHCP snooping or port security exist because attacks can occur inside the access network, not only at the internet edge.
Security also changes troubleshooting. A ping failure may be a routing problem, but it may also be policy. An application may be reachable from one subnet and blocked from another by design. Candidates must therefore distinguish broken connectivity from intentionally restricted connectivity.
Automation and programmability in the v1.1 blueprint
CCNA now expects network engineers to understand controller-based architectures, APIs, data formats, and configuration-management ideas. The exam is not a software-development certification, but it does test whether candidates recognize the shift from device-by-device CLI work toward intent, centralized control, and programmable interfaces.
Software-defined networking provides the conceptual frame: control decisions can be logically centralized while devices continue forwarding data. REST APIs and JSON expose structured ways for software to interact with systems. Configuration-management tools and infrastructure-as-code approaches make repeatable changes possible at scale.
Terraform appears in current CCNA study discussions because infrastructure as code helps illustrate declarative automation. Candidates do not need professional-level Terraform expertise, but they should understand why repeatability, version control, validation, and machine-readable configuration are increasingly important to network operations.
Troubleshooting across the stack instead of memorizing commands
The broadest CCNA skill is diagnosis. A candidate should be able to start with a symptom and decide which evidence would meaningfully narrow the cause. If a switch port is down, routing is not the first question. If two hosts in the same VLAN communicate but remote traffic fails, the investigation shifts toward Layer 3. If IP reachability works but names fail, DNS becomes relevant.
CLI output is evidence. Interface status, MAC tables, VLAN information, Spanning Tree state, EtherChannel summaries, IP configuration, routing tables, OSPF neighbors, ACLs, and service configuration all answer different questions. Memorizing a command without understanding the question it answers creates brittle exam preparation.
Hands-on labs should therefore include intentional breakage. Put an access port in the wrong VLAN, misconfigure a trunk, remove a route, alter a default gateway, break a DHCP relay, or write an ACL with an unintended match order. Diagnose each problem from observations rather than from memory of what you changed.
Building a study plan around the live v1.1 exam. A learner entering from 100-150 CCST Networking already has useful foundations in devices, media, addressing, protocols, and basic troubleshooting. CCNA adds configuration depth and forces those fundamentals to work together. The progression should therefore move from packet path and addressing into switching, routing, services, security, and automation while keeping regular troubleshooting practice throughout.
Use the current v1.1 blueprint as the checklist for any exam scheduled before February 3, 2027. Future v2.0 material can be studied as an extension, especially if it improves hands-on skill, but it should be labeled as future scope so it does not displace current objectives.
After CCNA, candidates who want a deeper enterprise-networking path can progress toward professional-level work such as 350-401 ENCOR. CCNA is not simply a gate to that exam; it supplies the routing, switching, services, security, and automation vocabulary on which professional study builds.
What a 2026 CCNA candidate should be able to demonstrate
A strong candidate can explain why a network behaves the way it does. They can interpret an address and route, trace a VLAN path, reason about OSPF, distinguish service failure from raw connectivity failure, recognize security policy effects, and describe why controllers and APIs matter. They are not dependent on one memorized command sequence because they understand the system those commands expose.
They also keep certification timing straight. The live target today is 200-301 CCNA v1.1. Cisco has announced the February 2027 transition, but the future blueprint does not make v1.1 obsolete before its retirement date. Studying the version actually being tested is a basic part of factual exam preparation.
CCNA remains broad by design. The best preparation does not try to flatten that breadth into trivia. It builds a working network model, reinforces it through configuration and troubleshooting, and uses current Cisco objectives to decide how much depth each topic deserves.
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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Test Questions, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test Questions and Answers
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