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Question 61:
What is the purpose of Microsoft Information Governance in Microsoft 365?
A) Managing employee schedules
B) Managing content lifecycle and retention
C) Tracking hardware inventory
D) Processing payroll
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations accumulate vast amounts of data requiring systematic approaches to determine what content to keep, how long to retain it, and when to delete it, balancing compliance requirements against storage costs and data risks.
Option A is incorrect as managing employee schedules involves calendar applications, scheduling tools, or workforce management systems. Information Governance focuses on data and content management rather than personnel scheduling. These represent different organizational functions requiring different tools.
Option B is correct as Microsoft Information Governance provides capabilities for managing content lifecycle and retention across Microsoft 365 services. Information Governance helps organizations retain content that must be kept for legal or business reasons while deleting content that no longer serves purposes and creates unnecessary risk and storage costs. Key capabilities include retention policies defining how long content is kept before deletion, retention labels for item-level retention control, records management for declaring official records requiring special handling, and disposition reviews for approving content deletion. Organizations use Information Governance to meet regulatory requirements, implement defensible deletion practices, reduce data sprawl, and manage storage costs while protecting important organizational knowledge.
Option C is incorrect because tracking hardware inventory requires asset management systems tracking physical devices, computers, and equipment. Information Governance manages digital content and data, not physical assets. Hardware tracking and content governance serve different IT functions.
Option D is incorrect as processing payroll requires human resources and financial systems that calculate salaries, withholdings, and payments. Information Governance has no relationship to payroll processing. These are completely separate business functions with different specialized systems.
Question 62:
Which Microsoft 365 application is used for project and task management?
A) Microsoft Planner
B) Microsoft Forms
C) Microsoft Sway
D) Microsoft Stream
Answer: A
Explanation:
Teams need tools for organizing work, assigning tasks, tracking progress, and coordinating projects, requiring dedicated project management applications integrated with collaboration platforms.
Option A is correct as Microsoft Planner provides project and task management capabilities within Microsoft 365. Planner allows teams to create plans with boards organizing tasks into buckets representing project phases or categories. Each task can include descriptions, due dates, assignments, checklists, attachments, and comments. Visual charts show progress and task distribution. Planner integrates with Teams allowing task management within team channels, and tasks sync with Outlook for calendar integration. Teams use Planner for coordinating projects, tracking deliverables, managing campaigns, or any scenario requiring organized task management. The simple interface makes Planner accessible to users without project management expertise.
Option B refers to Microsoft Forms, which creates surveys and quizzes for collecting information through structured questions. While Forms might gather project-related information, it does not manage tasks or projects. Forms focuses on data collection rather than work coordination.
Option C represents Microsoft Sway, which creates interactive presentations and reports. Sway might present project information attractively but does not provide task assignment, progress tracking, or project management capabilities. Sway is a content creation tool rather than a project coordination platform.
Option D refers to Microsoft Stream, which hosts enterprise videos. While teams might share project-related videos through Stream, it does not provide task management or project coordination features. Stream focuses on video content rather than work organization.
Question 63:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 Apps admin center?
A) Managing social media accounts
B) Managing Office application deployments and updates
C) Creating presentations
D) Editing photos
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations deploying Office applications across numerous devices need centralized tools for managing installation, configuration, and updates to ensure consistency and minimize IT support burden.
Option A is incorrect as managing social media accounts requires social media management platforms or direct access to social networks. The Apps admin center focuses on Microsoft Office application management rather than social media. These represent entirely different administrative domains.
Option B is correct as the Microsoft 365 Apps admin center provides capabilities for managing Office application deployments, configurations, and updates across an organization. Administrators use this portal to configure update channels determining when devices receive feature updates, monitor installation and update status across the organization, manage cloud policies controlling application behavior, access inventory information showing which versions are deployed, and configure security baseline policies. The Apps admin center helps organizations maintain consistent Office application versions, control feature rollout timing, troubleshoot deployment issues, and ensure security policies are applied across all installations.
Option C is incorrect because creating presentations is accomplished using PowerPoint application. The Apps admin center is designed for managing applications themselves rather than creating content within applications. Content creation and application administration represent different activities.
Option D is incorrect as editing photos requires photo editing applications like Photos app or professional tools. The Apps admin center manages Office applications deployment rather than providing photo editing capabilities. Photo editing and application management serve different purposes.
Question 64:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides email protection against spam and malware?
A) Azure Active Directory
B) Exchange Online Protection
C) OneDrive for Business
D) Microsoft Teams
Answer: B
Explanation:
Email remains a primary communication channel and major attack vector requiring comprehensive protection against spam, malware, phishing, and other threats as a foundational security layer.
Option A refers to Azure Active Directory, which provides identity and access management services including authentication and authorization. While Azure AD is fundamental to security, it does not specifically protect email against spam and malware. Azure AD controls who can access resources rather than scanning email content for threats.
Option B is correct as Exchange Online Protection provides comprehensive email protection against spam, malware, and other email threats for Exchange Online mailboxes. EOP includes anti-spam filtering using reputation-based and content-based detection, anti-malware scanning using multiple engines, connection filtering blocking known malicious IP addresses, and policy filtering enforcing organizational email policies. EOP operates automatically for all Exchange Online customers providing baseline protection without requiring configuration. Organizations can customize protection policies, create allowed and blocked sender lists, configure quarantine settings, and review protection reports. EOP serves as the first defense layer, with organizations adding Defender for Office 365 for advanced threat protection.
Option C refers to OneDrive for Business, which provides personal cloud storage. While OneDrive scans files for malware, it is not specifically an email protection service. OneDrive protects stored files rather than incoming email messages.
Option D represents Microsoft Teams, which is a collaboration and communication platform. While Teams includes security features and scans shared files, it is not specifically designed for email protection. Teams and Exchange serve different communication purposes with separate protection mechanisms.
Question 65:
What is the maximum attachment size for files uploaded to Microsoft Teams?
A) 25 MB
B) 100 MB
C) 250 MB
D) 1 GB
Answer: C
Explanation:
Teams channels and chats allow file sharing, and understanding size limits helps users know when to use alternative methods for sharing extremely large files to avoid upload failures or performance issues.
Option A suggesting 25 MB is too restrictive and would significantly limit Teams file sharing capabilities. While 25 MB is the attachment limit for Exchange Online emails, Teams provides more generous limits for files shared in channels and chats since files are actually stored in SharePoint rather than being true attachments.
Option B indicating 100 MB is below the actual limit. While 100 MB would accommodate many business documents, Teams supports larger files to handle scenarios like sharing videos, large presentations, or detailed designs that exceed this threshold.
Option C is correct as Microsoft Teams supports uploading files up to 250 MB in channels and chats. When users share files in Teams, the files are actually stored in SharePoint document libraries associated with the team, allowing the larger file sizes that SharePoint supports. The 250 MB limit provides significant capacity for most business files while preventing extremely large uploads that might impact performance. For files exceeding 250 MB, users should upload them directly to SharePoint or OneDrive and share links within Teams conversations.
Option D suggesting 1 GB exceeds the Teams upload limit, though SharePoint itself can store larger files up to the SharePoint file size limit. Users attempting to upload files approaching 1 GB through Teams interface would encounter errors. Such large files should be uploaded through alternative methods like SharePoint or OneDrive sync clients.
Question 66:
Which Microsoft 365 feature allows users to see their tasks from multiple applications in one place?
A) Microsoft To Do
B) Microsoft Forms
C) Microsoft Bookings
D) Microsoft Whiteboard
Answer: A
Explanation:
Users receive tasks from various sources including email flags, Planner assignments, and personal task lists, requiring a unified interface showing all tasks regardless of origin for effective personal productivity management.
Option A is correct as Microsoft To Do provides a unified task management interface consolidating tasks from multiple sources within Microsoft 365. To Do displays flagged emails from Outlook, tasks assigned in Planner, tasks from Microsoft Project, and personal task lists users create in To Do itself. The application syncs across devices ensuring tasks are accessible on computers, tablets, and smartphones. Users can organize tasks with due dates, reminders, notes, and subtasks, creating My Day lists focusing on immediate priorities. To Do integrates with Outlook Tasks and provides a comprehensive view of personal work across Microsoft 365 applications, helping users manage everything requiring attention in one location.
Option B refers to Microsoft Forms, which creates surveys and quizzes for information gathering. Forms does not aggregate tasks or provide task management capabilities. Its purpose is creating questions and collecting responses rather than managing personal productivity.
Option C represents Microsoft Bookings, which manages appointment scheduling for businesses. While Bookings creates appointments that appear on calendars, it does not consolidate tasks from multiple applications. Bookings focuses on scheduling rather than personal task management.
Option D refers to Microsoft Whiteboard, which provides a digital canvas for visual collaboration. Whiteboard is designed for brainstorming and sketching ideas rather than managing tasks. While teams might capture action items on whiteboards, Whiteboard does not function as a task aggregation tool.
Question 67:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 Compliance Manager?
A) Managing employee benefits
B) Assessing compliance posture and providing improvement actions
C) Scheduling meetings
D) Creating presentations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations face numerous compliance requirements from regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, and ISO standards, needing tools to assess compliance status, identify gaps, and implement improvements systematically.
Option A is incorrect as managing employee benefits requires human resources systems handling insurance, retirement plans, and employee programs. Compliance Manager focuses on regulatory compliance and data governance rather than HR functions. These represent different organizational responsibilities.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 Compliance Manager helps organizations assess their compliance posture against various regulations and standards and provides actionable recommendations for improvement. Compliance Manager includes pre-built assessments for regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, ISO 27001, NIST, and others, along with capability to create custom assessments. The tool evaluates current configurations, calculates compliance scores showing progress toward meeting requirements, provides improvement actions explaining how to address compliance gaps, and tracks completion of compliance activities. Organizations use Compliance Manager to understand compliance obligations, prioritize compliance investments, demonstrate compliance progress to stakeholders and auditors, and systematically implement required controls.
Option C is incorrect because scheduling meetings involves Outlook calendar and Teams features. Compliance Manager has no relationship to meeting scheduling and serves entirely different organizational purposes focused on regulatory compliance rather than calendar management.
Option D is incorrect as creating presentations is accomplished through PowerPoint or Sway. Compliance Manager provides compliance assessment and management capabilities rather than content creation tools. These serve different purposes within organizational operations.
Question 68:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides advanced eDiscovery capabilities including machine learning and analytics?
A) Basic eDiscovery
B) Advanced eDiscovery
C) Audit log search
D) Content search
Answer: B
Explanation:
Complex legal matters involving large data volumes require sophisticated tools beyond basic search, including analytics to identify relevant content, reduce review sets, and organize information for legal teams.
Option A refers to Basic eDiscovery, which provides foundational search and hold capabilities for locating and preserving content. While Basic eDiscovery is valuable for simpler investigations, it lacks the advanced analytics, machine learning, and sophisticated review tools that complex legal matters require. Basic eDiscovery offers search and hold without advanced processing.
Option B is correct as Advanced eDiscovery provides comprehensive capabilities for complex legal investigations including machine learning for prioritizing relevant documents, near-duplicate detection to reduce redundant review, email threading to understand conversation relationships, themes to identify key topics, predictive coding to accelerate document review, and redaction tools for protecting privileged information. Advanced eDiscovery supports large-scale investigations where legal teams must review hundreds of thousands or millions of documents efficiently. The service integrates with legal review platforms and provides analytics helping legal teams understand case content, identify key custodians, and organize information effectively.
Option C refers to audit log search, which allows searching activity logs to understand what actions occurred within Microsoft 365. While audit logs support investigations, audit log search does not provide the document review, analytics, and legal hold capabilities that eDiscovery requires. Audit logs track activities rather than preserving and analyzing content.
Option D represents content search, which provides basic search capabilities across Microsoft 365 locations. Content search can locate content but lacks the advanced analytics, machine learning, and review tools that Advanced eDiscovery provides for complex legal matters.
Question 69:
What is the purpose of Microsoft Cloud App Security?
A) Weather forecasting
B) Cloud access security broker for monitoring and protecting cloud applications
C) Playing music
D) Photo editing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations use numerous cloud applications beyond Microsoft 365, requiring visibility and control over cloud application usage, data movement, and potential security threats across the entire cloud application portfolio.
Option A is incorrect and nonsensical as weather forecasting requires meteorological systems and has no relationship to cloud application security. The name Cloud App Security refers to securing cloud applications, not weather clouds. This represents a fundamental misunderstanding of the product purpose.
Option B is correct as Microsoft Cloud App Security functions as a Cloud Access Security Broker providing visibility, control, and protection across cloud applications. MCAS discovers shadow IT by identifying cloud applications employees use, assesses application risk scores, monitors user activities across cloud apps, detects anomalous behavior indicating compromised accounts or insider threats, controls application access through session policies, protects sensitive data moving between cloud applications, and integrates with Conditional Access for enforcing access policies. Organizations use MCAS to gain visibility into cloud application usage, prevent data leakage, detect threats, and enforce security policies across sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud applications.
Option C is incorrect as playing music requires media player applications or streaming services. Cloud App Security monitors and protects business applications rather than providing media playback. These represent completely unrelated technology categories.
Option D is incorrect because photo editing requires image manipulation applications. Cloud App Security focuses on monitoring and protecting cloud application usage rather than editing visual content. Security monitoring and photo editing serve entirely different purposes.
Question 70:
Which Microsoft 365 plan is designed specifically for frontline workers?
A) Microsoft 365 E3
B) Microsoft 365 F3
C) Microsoft 365 Business Premium
D) Office 365 E5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Frontline workers including retail employees, healthcare workers, manufacturing staff, and field service technicians have different needs than information workers, requiring specialized licensing tailored to mobile-first, simplified access patterns.
Option A represents an enterprise plan designed for information workers with comprehensive features including full Office applications, advanced security, and compliance capabilities. E3 provides more functionality than frontline workers typically need and is priced accordingly for desk-based information workers.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 F3 is specifically designed for frontline workers who primarily need mobile access to essential applications rather than full desktop Office suites. F3 includes Teams for communication, SharePoint and OneDrive for accessing documents, Viva Connections for organizational news, Shifts for schedule management, task management tools, and basic security features. F3 provides web and mobile application access without desktop Office installation rights, reflecting frontline workers’ typical device usage patterns. The plan is priced lower than information worker plans, making it cost-effective for organizations with large frontline populations.
Option C represents a business plan designed for small and medium businesses providing comprehensive features for information workers. Business Premium includes desktop Office applications and advanced features that exceed typical frontline worker needs and pricing expectations.
Option D refers to an enterprise plan providing comprehensive features including advanced analytics and voice capabilities. E5 represents premium licensing for information workers rather than the simplified, mobile-focused frontline worker experience.
Question 71:
What is the purpose of Azure Active Directory Identity Protection?
A) File compression
B) Detecting and remediating identity-based risks
C) Video editing
D) Database management
Answer: B
Explanation:
User accounts represent major security risks when compromised, requiring automated systems that detect suspicious authentication patterns, risky sign-ins, and compromised credentials to prevent unauthorized access.
Option A is incorrect as file compression involves reducing file sizes for storage or transmission efficiency. Identity Protection focuses on security and risk detection rather
than file management. These represent completely unrelated technical capabilities serving different purposes.
Option B is correct as Azure Active Directory Identity Protection detects and remediates identity-based risks by analyzing sign-in behaviors and user activities to identify suspicious patterns. Identity Protection uses machine learning and Microsoft’s threat intelligence to detect risks including anonymous IP address usage, atypical travel patterns where users sign in from geographically distant locations within impossible timeframes, malware-linked IP addresses, unfamiliar sign-in properties, and leaked credentials found in breach databases. When risks are detected, Identity Protection can automatically require multi-factor authentication, require password changes, or block access based on configured policies. Administrators receive risk reports identifying risky users and sign-ins requiring investigation. Organizations use Identity Protection to prevent account compromise, detect credential theft, and respond automatically to identity threats.
Option C is incorrect because video editing requires specialized multimedia applications. Identity Protection analyzes security risks and authentication patterns rather than manipulating video content. Security monitoring and video production represent entirely different technical domains.
Option D is incorrect as database management requires database management systems like SQL Server for storing, organizing, and querying structured data. Identity Protection focuses on security and identity rather than data storage and retrieval. These serve different IT infrastructure purposes.
Question 72:
Which Microsoft 365 service allows organizations to create custom business applications without extensive coding?
A) Power Apps
B) Power BI
C) Power Automate
D) Power Virtual Agents
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations often need custom applications addressing specific business processes but lack development resources or budgets for traditional software development, creating demand for low-code platforms enabling business users to build applications.
Option A is correct as Power Apps provides a low-code platform for creating custom business applications without extensive programming knowledge. Power Apps includes canvas apps for designing pixel-perfect custom interfaces and model-driven apps for building data-centric applications based on Dataverse. Users build applications through visual designers, connecting to data sources including Microsoft 365 services, SQL databases, SharePoint lists, and hundreds of other connectors. Power Apps supports business logic through formulas similar to Excel, integrates with Power Automate for workflows, and deploys to web browsers and mobile devices. Organizations use Power Apps to digitize paper processes, create inspection apps, build customer-facing portals, and develop departmental applications without traditional development cycles.
Option B refers to Power BI, which provides business intelligence and data visualization capabilities. While Power BI creates interactive reports and dashboards, it focuses on analytics and visualization rather than building functional business applications with data entry, workflows, and business logic.
Option C represents Power Automate, which creates automated workflows between applications. While Power Automate is essential for application functionality, it focuses on process automation rather than building complete applications with user interfaces and data management. Power Apps and Power Automate often work together.
Option D refers to Power Virtual Agents for building chatbots. While chatbots provide conversational interfaces, Power Virtual Agents focuses specifically on bot creation rather than general business application development. It addresses a specific application type rather than broad application needs.
Question 73:
What is the primary purpose of Microsoft 365 usage reports?
A) Predicting stock market trends
B) Understanding how users adopt and utilize Microsoft 365 services
C) Managing employee vacation time
D) Tracking vehicle maintenance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations investing in Microsoft 365 need visibility into service adoption, usage patterns, and user engagement to optimize investments, identify training needs, and demonstrate value to stakeholders.
Option A is incorrect and absurd as predicting stock market trends requires financial analysis platforms and market data systems. Microsoft 365 usage reports analyze internal service adoption rather than external financial markets. These represent completely unrelated business intelligence domains.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 usage reports provide insights into how users across the organization adopt and utilize Microsoft 365 services. Reports show metrics including active users across services, email activity, SharePoint site usage, OneDrive files stored and shared, Teams meetings and messages, Yammer posts, and overall service adoption trends. Administrators use these reports to understand which services deliver value, identify departments with low adoption requiring training, justify continued investment by demonstrating usage, compare adoption across organizational units, and track changes over time. Usage reports support data-driven decisions about service deployment, training investments, and change management strategies.
Option C is incorrect as managing employee vacation time requires human resources or time-tracking systems handling leave requests, accrual calculations, and approval workflows. Usage reports focus on technology adoption rather than HR processes. These serve different organizational functions.
Option D is incorrect because tracking vehicle maintenance requires fleet management or asset maintenance systems recording service schedules, repairs, and costs. Usage reports analyze digital service adoption rather than physical asset maintenance. These represent unrelated business operations.
Question 74:
Which Microsoft 365 feature allows external users to collaborate on documents without requiring them to sign in?
A) Guest access with authentication
B) Anonymous sharing links with editing permissions
C) Conditional Access policies
D) Multi-factor authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations need flexible sharing options balancing convenience of quick external collaboration against security requirements, with anonymous sharing providing maximum convenience for trusted scenarios.
Option A refers to guest access where external users are added to Azure AD as guests and must authenticate before accessing shared content. While guest access provides better security and tracking than anonymous sharing, it requires external users to sign in, which is the opposite of what the question asks. Guest access is more secure but less convenient than anonymous sharing.
Option B is correct as anonymous sharing links with editing permissions allow external users to collaborate on documents without requiring authentication or Microsoft accounts. Anyone with the link can access and edit the document without signing in. This provides maximum convenience for quick collaboration with external parties like contractors, clients, or partners who need temporary document access. However, anonymous sharing reduces security since anyone obtaining the link can access content without authentication. Administrators can configure whether anonymous sharing is allowed, restrict it to view-only permissions, require link expiration, and limit it to specific domains balancing convenience with security requirements.
Option C represents Conditional Access policies that control access based on conditions like location or device compliance. Conditional Access actually enforces authentication requirements rather than eliminating them. These policies strengthen security by requiring additional verification rather than enabling anonymous access.
Option D refers to multi-factor authentication which adds security layers requiring multiple verification methods during sign-in. MFA is the opposite of anonymous access, requiring users to authenticate with additional factors beyond passwords. MFA strengthens authentication rather than eliminating it.
Question 75:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 Communication Compliance?
A) Improving internet bandwidth
B) Detecting inappropriate communication and policy violations
C) Designing network architecture
D) Managing server hardware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations must monitor communications for regulatory compliance, policy violations, harassment, and inappropriate content while respecting employee privacy and meeting industry-specific requirements like financial services regulations.
Option A is incorrect as improving internet bandwidth involves network infrastructure upgrades, traffic optimization, and internet service provider arrangements. Communication Compliance monitors message content for policy violations rather than managing network performance. These represent different IT infrastructure concerns.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 Communication Compliance detects inappropriate communication and policy violations across Microsoft Teams, Exchange, Yammer, and third-party platforms integrated with Microsoft 365. The service uses machine learning and configurable policies to identify potential violations including harassment, discrimination, threats, profanity, sharing sensitive information, regulatory violations in regulated industries, and custom-defined policy violations. Communication Compliance can detect patterns like adult content, threats, targeted harassment, and regulatory compliance violations relevant to industries like financial services. Designated reviewers investigate flagged communications, remediate violations, and document compliance activities. Organizations use Communication Compliance to meet regulatory requirements, prevent insider trading, detect harassment, and enforce corporate policies.
Option C is incorrect because designing network architecture requires network engineering expertise and planning tools. Communication Compliance analyzes message content rather than designing infrastructure. Network architecture and communication monitoring serve different technical purposes.
Option D is incorrect as managing server hardware involves data center operations, hardware maintenance, and infrastructure management. Communication Compliance operates at the application layer monitoring messages rather than managing physical infrastructure. These represent different IT operational domains.
Question 76:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides custom learning experiences and training content for users?
A) Microsoft Learn
B) Microsoft Viva Learning
C) Microsoft Stream
D) Microsoft Forms
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations invest heavily in employee training and development, requiring platforms that centralize learning content, integrate with existing learning systems, and deliver training directly within collaboration tools employees use daily.
Option A refers to Microsoft Learn, which provides free training and certification resources for Microsoft technologies. While Microsoft Learn offers valuable content for learning Microsoft products, it is a public training platform rather than an organizational learning management system. Microsoft Learn serves individual learners rather than providing corporate learning platforms.
Option B is correct as Microsoft Viva Learning provides a centralized learning hub within Microsoft Teams where employees can discover, share, and track learning content from multiple sources. Viva Learning aggregates content from Microsoft Learn, LinkedIn Learning, organizational SharePoint libraries, third-party learning management systems, and custom content providers. Employees access training directly within Teams without switching applications, managers can recommend learning paths, and organizations track learning completion. Viva Learning makes training accessible in the flow of work, increases learning engagement by reducing friction, and provides unified learning experiences across content sources. Organizations use Viva Learning to support continuous learning, onboarding, skill development, and compliance training.
Option C refers to Microsoft Stream, which hosts enterprise videos. While learning content might be delivered through videos stored in Stream, Stream itself is a video hosting platform rather than a learning management system with course structures, tracking, and recommendations.
Option D represents Microsoft Forms, which creates quizzes and surveys. While Forms can assess knowledge through quizzes, it does not provide comprehensive learning experiences with content delivery, progress tracking, and learning path management that learning platforms require.
Question 77:
What is the maximum number of people who can participate in a Teams live event?
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 100,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
Organizations need capabilities for broadcasting to very large audiences for company-wide town halls, executive announcements, and major events, requiring specialized features beyond standard meeting capabilities.
Option A suggesting 1,000 participants is far below the actual capacity for Teams live events. While standard Teams meetings support up to 10,000 participants, live events are specifically designed for much larger broadcast scenarios and provide significantly higher capacity.
Option B indicating 10,000 participants represents the capacity for standard Teams meetings but understates live event capacity. Microsoft designed live events specifically to exceed standard meeting limitations for true broadcast scenarios reaching entire large organizations.
Option C is correct as Teams live events support up to 20,000 attendees for broadcasts to large audiences. Live events provide different experiences than standard meetings, with presenters and producers having full interactive capabilities while attendees participate in view-only mode, asking questions through moderated Q&A. Live events support external streaming through third-party platforms for even larger audiences beyond 20,000. Organizations use live events for company-wide town halls, training sessions, executive communications, and major announcements where most participants observe rather than actively participate. The live event format is optimized for broadcast scenarios rather than interactive meetings.
Option D suggesting 100,000 participants exceeds the native Teams live event capacity, though organizations can achieve such scale by streaming to external platforms. While Teams can produce events streamed to external Content Delivery Networks reaching unlimited audiences, the direct Teams live event capacity is 20,000 participants.
Question 78:
Which Microsoft 365 feature helps users find experts and knowledge within their organization?
A) Microsoft Search
B) Microsoft Viva Topics
C) Microsoft Forms
D) Microsoft Bookings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations accumulate vast knowledge across documents, conversations, and employee expertise, but finding relevant information and experts when needed challenges employees, impacting productivity and leading to duplicated efforts.
Option A refers to Microsoft Search, which provides intelligent search across Microsoft 365 finding documents, people, sites, and answers. While Microsoft Search helps locate content and people, it provides general search capabilities rather than specifically organizing knowledge into topics and identifying subject matter experts. Search is one component that Viva Topics uses but doesn’t provide the comprehensive knowledge organization.
Option B is correct as Microsoft Viva Topics uses artificial intelligence to automatically discover, organize, and surface organizational knowledge. Viva Topics analyzes content across SharePoint, Teams, and other Microsoft 365 services to identify topics like projects, products, processes, or technologies. For each topic, Viva Topics creates topic pages containing related documents, conversations, and people associated with the topic who may be experts. Topic cards appear automatically when users encounter topics in documents or search results, providing quick access to relevant information and experts. Organizations use Viva Topics to preserve institutional knowledge, help employees find expertise, accelerate onboarding, and reduce time spent searching for information. The AI-driven approach scales knowledge organization beyond manual curation.
Option C represents Microsoft Forms for creating surveys and quizzes. Forms collects information through structured questions but does not organize knowledge or identify experts. Forms serves data collection purposes rather than knowledge management.
Option D refers to Microsoft Bookings for appointment scheduling. Bookings helps schedule meetings with specific people but does not discover expertise or organize organizational knowledge. Scheduling and knowledge management serve different purposes.
Question 79:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 insider risk management?
A) Predicting weather patterns
B) Detecting risky activities by employees that could harm the organization
C) Managing customer relationships
D) Processing insurance claims
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations face risks from employees who might intentionally or accidentally cause harm through data theft, intellectual property leakage, policy violations, or sabotage, requiring tools that detect concerning patterns while respecting privacy.
Option A is incorrect and absurd as predicting weather patterns requires meteorological systems and atmospheric data. Insider risk management analyzes employee activities for security risks rather than environmental conditions. These represent completely unrelated domains with no connection.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 insider risk management detects risky activities by employees that could harm the organization including data theft when employees leave, intellectual property theft, data leaks intentional or accidental, offensive behavior and policy violations, and security violations. The service uses machine learning and configurable policies to identify concerning patterns like unusual file downloads, communication with competitors, accessing sensitive content unrelated to job responsibilities, or data transfer to personal accounts. Insider risk management protects employee privacy by using pseudonymization initially, revealing identities only to authorized investigators after suspicious patterns are detected. Organizations use insider risk management to prevent data breaches, protect intellectual property, meet regulatory requirements, and detect potential threats before damage occurs.
Option C is incorrect as managing customer relationships requires Customer Relationship Management systems tracking interactions, sales opportunities, and customer information. Insider risk management focuses on employee security risks rather than customer interactions. These serve different business purposes.
Option D is incorrect because processing insurance claims requires insurance management systems handling claims submission, evaluation, and payment. Insider risk management monitors employee activities for security threats rather than processing insurance transactions. These represent unrelated business functions.
Question 80:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides protection for devices including mobile device management?
A) Microsoft Intune
B) Microsoft Defender
C) Azure Information Protection
D) Microsoft Cloud App Security
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations need comprehensive device management capabilities protecting corporate data on diverse devices including company-owned and personal devices across Windows, iOS, Android, and macOS platforms.
Option A is correct as Microsoft Intune provides comprehensive mobile device management and application management protecting corporate data on devices. Intune enrolls devices, deploys applications, configures device settings, enforces compliance policies requiring encryption or password complexity, implements conditional access restricting device access based on compliance, protects corporate data through app protection policies, and remotely wipes corporate data from lost or stolen devices. Intune supports Windows, iOS, Android, and macOS devices with unified management through cloud-based administration. Organizations use Intune to secure mobile workforces, implement bring-your-own-device programs, protect corporate data on personal devices, ensure device compliance, and maintain security standards across diverse device fleets.
Option B refers to Microsoft Defender, which provides threat protection including antivirus, anti-malware, and threat detection. While Defender protects devices from malware and attacks, it focuses on threat protection rather than comprehensive device management including configuration, compliance, and application deployment that Intune provides. Defender and Intune serve complementary purposes.
Option C represents Azure Information Protection for classifying and protecting documents and emails. While AIP protects content, it does not provide device management capabilities like enrollment, configuration, or compliance enforcement. AIP focuses on information protection rather than device management.
Option D refers to Microsoft Cloud App Security for monitoring and protecting cloud applications. MCAS provides visibility into cloud app usage and data movement but does not manage device configurations or deployments. MCAS operates at the cloud application layer rather than device management layer.
