Visit here for our full ITIL ITILFND V4 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 141:
What is the purpose of the service level management practice?
A) To restore service operation quickly
B) To set clear business-based targets for service performance
C) To handle user-initiated service requests
D) To observe services and components
Answer: B) To set clear business-based targets for service performance
Explanation:
The purpose of the service level management (SLM) practice is to set clear business-based targets for service levels and to ensure that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets. Service level management provides transparency about service performance and ensures services meet stakeholder expectations.
SLM involves understanding business requirements for service levels, negotiating realistic service level targets, documenting agreements, monitoring performance, reporting on achievements, and reviewing targets regularly. It also facilitates discussions with stakeholders to ensure expectations remain aligned and that services continue to support business outcomes. Through these activities, service level management ensures a shared understanding between service providers and customers about what levels of service will be delivered.
Option A is incorrect because restoring service operation quickly is the purpose of incident management, not service level management. While service level management may define restoration targets, it does not carry out the restoration. Option C is incorrect because handling user-initiated service requests is the purpose of service request management. Option D is incorrect because observing services and components is the purpose of monitoring and event management, although service level management uses the data that practice produces.
Effective service level management focuses on targets that genuinely matter to customers rather than on technical metrics that may not reflect business value. It prioritizes measurable, meaningful service characteristics such as availability, reliability, transaction success rates, response times, or recovery times. It also ensures that the number of metrics is manageable and avoids unnecessary complexity.
Regular service reviews help ensure that targets remain appropriate as business needs evolve. These reviews are opportunities to evaluate performance trends, discuss issues, adjust expectations, and drive continual improvement. Through these structured conversations and assessments, service level management maintains alignment between services and business objectives and ensures services continue to deliver value over time.
Question 142:
Which guiding principle recommends using minimum steps to accomplish objectives?
A) Keep it simple and practical
B) Optimize and automate
C) Progress iteratively with feedback
D) Start where you are
Answer: A) Keep it simple and practical
Explanation:
The keep it simple and practical guiding principle recommends using the minimum number of steps necessary to accomplish objectives. This principle emphasizes eliminating anything that does not add value, avoiding unnecessary complexity, and ensuring that each step in any process, workflow, or decision-making sequence serves a clear, justifiable purpose. Simplicity is not about oversimplifying to the point of losing effectiveness; instead, it aims to streamline efforts so that work remains efficient, understandable, and sustainable.
This principle recognizes that complexity creates numerous challenges. Complex processes are harder to understand, more prone to errors, and more difficult to maintain. They typically require more training, more documentation, and more time to execute. Complexity also increases cost—both the cost of performing work and the cost of resolving issues when things go wrong. Every additional step, approval, or handoff introduces potential delays, inconsistencies, and opportunities for miscommunication. By contrast, simplicity promotes clarity: it enables teams to quickly understand what needs to be done, why it needs to be done, and how to do it effectively.
Simplicity also supports agility. Organizations that keep processes lean and practical can more easily adapt to changes in customer needs, technology, or business priorities. When processes are overloaded with unnecessary requirements, even small adjustments can become difficult. By keeping things simple, teams retain the flexibility needed to evolve processes as circumstances change. This is especially important in modern service management environments where new technologies, user expectations, and business models evolve rapidly.
Option B is incorrect because optimize and automate focuses on maximizing value by improving efficiency and using technology where it makes sense. While automation often simplifies work, the guiding principle associated with minimizing steps is specifically keep it simple and practical. Option C is incorrect because progress iteratively with feedback is about delivering work in smaller increments and using feedback to guide improvements; it does not directly address minimizing steps or reducing complexity. Option D is incorrect because start where you are focuses on evaluating the existing situation and leveraging what already works rather than creating unnecessary change—not on simplicity itself.
Applying the keep it simple and practical principle requires conscious effort. Organizations should regularly challenge whether activities, approvals, reports, metrics, and tools are truly necessary. This often involves asking: “What value does this step provide?” and “What would happen if we removed it?” If the answer does not clearly demonstrate value, the step should be simplified or removed. Many organizations accumulate process steps over time, often because of past incidents, regulatory misunderstandings, or assumptions that more steps will guarantee higher control. Without regular pruning, processes become bloated, inefficient, and counterproductive.
A practical way to apply this principle is to analyze process flows with a focus on the user experience—both for customers and internal staff. In many cases, simplification requires rethinking how value is delivered, removing unnecessary approvals, streamlining forms, reducing redundant documentation, and consolidating tools. Additionally, simplicity should be encouraged culturally. Teams should feel empowered to question unnecessary complexity and propose more efficient ways of working. Leadership should reinforce the idea that simpler is usually better, as long as essential controls and requirements are preserved.
Question 143:
What is the difference between an incident and a problem?
A) Incidents are planned while problems are unplanned
B) Incidents are disruptions while problems are underlying causes
C) Incidents affect users while problems affect infrastructure
D) Incidents are urgent while problems are not
Answer: B) Incidents are disruptions while problems are underlying causes
Explanation:
The key difference between an incident and a problem is that an incident is an unplanned interruption or reduction in service quality—essentially a disruption or symptom—while a problem is the cause or potential cause of one or more incidents, representing the underlying issue. Users experience incidents directly because they impact service functionality or performance. Problems, however, often remain invisible to users until an incident occurs, because they represent faults, errors, weaknesses, or conditions within the environment that lead to incidents. In this way, an incident answers the question “What is happening?” while a problem answers the question “Why is it happening?”
Incident management and problem management serve two distinct but complementary purposes within service management. Incident management focuses on restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible to minimize business impact. Speed is the primary focus, even if the underlying root cause remains unknown. Workarounds are frequently used in incident management to restore functionality while a deeper investigation may occur later. Problem management, on the other hand, focuses on identifying the root cause of incidents, understanding the underlying faults, and implementing permanent fixes or improvements that prevent recurrence. While incident management works reactively and urgently, problem management tends to be more analytical, thorough, and often longer term.
Option A is incorrect because both incidents and problems are unplanned. Incidents are unplanned disruptions, and problems are unplanned underlying issues or faults that require investigation. Option C is incorrect because the distinction is not about whether the issue relates to users or infrastructure; both incidents and problems can affect any part of the service or any stakeholder. Option D is incorrect because urgency alone does not distinguish incidents from problems. While incidents are typically urgent because they impact users immediately, some problems can also be urgent, especially if they lead to repeated high-impact incidents or pose significant risk.
Understanding the distinction between incidents and problems is essential for effective service management. Treating incidents and problems as the same type of work leads to inefficient handling of disruptions. For example, if organizations rush to investigate root causes during a live incident, recovery may be delayed, causing greater business impact. Conversely, if organizations focus only on quick fixes and never investigate underlying problems, the same incidents will continue to occur, reducing service reliability and user confidence.
Effective service management requires organizations to balance quick restoration of service with long-term stability improvements. Incident management ensures that users can continue working with minimal interruption, while problem management ensures that the environment becomes more stable, predictable, and resilient over time. When both practices operate effectively, organizations reduce firefighting, increase efficiency, and improve overall service quality.
Question 144:
Which practice includes activities to negotiate contracts with suppliers?
A) Supplier management
B) Relationship management
C) Service level management
D) Portfolio management
Answer: A) Supplier management
Explanation:
The supplier management practice includes activities to negotiate contracts and agreements with suppliers. This practice manages the full lifecycle of supplier relationships—from identifying the need for external products or services, to evaluating potential suppliers, selecting the most suitable partners, negotiating contracts, managing performance, and eventually renewing or terminating agreements. Supplier management ensures that suppliers and their services support the organization’s overall strategy, service value chain activities, and desired business outcomes.
Negotiating contracts is a central activity within supplier management because it establishes the formal basis for how the organization and supplier will work together. Effective contract negotiation covers not only commercial terms but also service levels, responsibilities, performance expectations, quality standards, compliance requirements, reporting obligations, escalation paths, security requirements, and mechanisms for managing changes or resolving disputes. Well-constructed contracts reduce ambiguity, protect the organization from risk, and ensure suppliers understand exactly what is expected of them.
A strong negotiation process considers both current and future needs. For example, contracts may incorporate flexibility for scaling services, adjusting pricing models, managing technology changes, or responding to variations in demand. Supplier management balances the organization’s objectives with the supplier’s capabilities and market realities. Successful negotiation does not aim to “win” at the supplier’s expense but to establish a relationship that is mutually beneficial, sustainable, and based on shared understanding.
Option B is incorrect because relationship management focuses on maintaining positive relationships with stakeholders, including internal and external parties, but does not specifically negotiate supplier contracts. While relationship management may collaborate with supplier management, the responsibility for contract negotiation remains firmly with the supplier management practice. Option C is incorrect because service level management negotiates service levels with customers or internal stakeholders, not with suppliers. Supplier management may align supplier performance targets with service level agreements, but they are distinct responsibilities. Option D is incorrect because portfolio management deals with evaluating, prioritizing, and managing investments, projects, and services—not with negotiating contracts with suppliers.
Contract negotiation requires a deep understanding of the organization’s requirements, the supplier market, the cost-benefit landscape, and the legal and operational risks associated with various contract terms. Supplier management must collaborate with procurement teams, legal counsel, financial management, and technical experts to ensure contracts are comprehensive, balanced, and enforceable. It is also important to understand cultural and regional differences when negotiating with international suppliers, as these can influence expectations and communication styles.
Moreover, supplier management does not end with signing a contract. After negotiation, the practice oversees supplier performance, ensures compliance with contractual obligations, conducts regular reviews, manages risks associated with suppliers, and fosters collaborative relationships that encourage innovation and continuous improvement. Contracts should not be viewed as static documents; they may need to be updated or renegotiated as business needs or technology evolve.
Question 145:
What is the definition of a service offering?
A) A formal description of one or more services designed for target consumers
B) The functionality provided by a service
C) The availability commitment for a service
D) A catalogue of all available services
Answer: A) A formal description of one or more services designed for target consumers
Explanation:
A service offering is a description of one or more services, designed to address the needs of a target consumer group. Service offerings may include goods, access to resources, and service actions. They describe what is being provided, who it is for, and may include different options or packages tailored to different consumer needs.
Service offerings make services tangible and understandable for consumers. They typically include information about service features, warranty commitments, constraints, and costs. Organizations may have multiple service offerings based on the same underlying service, tailored for different consumer groups or needs.
Option B is incorrect because the functionality provided by a service is utility, which is one aspect of a service but not the definition of a service offering. Option C is incorrect because availability commitment is part of warranty, which may be included in a service offering description but is not the definition. Option D is incorrect because a catalogue of all available services is the service catalogue, not a service offering.
Well-defined service offerings help consumers understand their options and make informed choices. Offerings should be described in consumer-friendly language, focusing on outcomes and value rather than technical details. Different packaging of offerings can address different market segments or use cases.
Question 146:
Which dimension of service management includes consideration of service relationships and dependencies?
A) Value streams and processes
B) Information and technology
C) Partners and suppliers
D) All four dimensions
Answer: D) All four dimensions
Explanation:
Service relationships and dependencies should be considered across all four dimensions of service management because they exist in all dimensions. The organizations and people dimension considers how people and teams relate and depend on each other. The information and technology dimension considers technology dependencies and data relationships. The partners and suppliers dimension explicitly addresses external relationships. The value streams and processes dimension considers how activities depend on and relate to each other.
Taking a holistic view of relationships and dependencies requires considering all dimensions. Technology dependencies affect how services must be architected. Organizational relationships affect how work gets done. Partner relationships affect service delivery. Process dependencies affect workflow design. Ignoring relationships in any dimension leads to incomplete understanding and potential issues.
Option A would be incomplete because while the value streams and processes dimension certainly addresses process dependencies, relationships exist across all dimensions. Option B would be incomplete because technology dependencies are important but not the only relationships to consider. Option C would be incomplete because while partners and suppliers focuses on external relationships, internal and technical relationships are equally important.
Understanding relationships and dependencies holistically enables organizations to assess impacts of changes, design services that work effectively, identify risks from dependencies, and optimize across all dimensions rather than sub-optimizing within single dimensions. The four dimensions model ensures comprehensive consideration of all relevant factors.
Question 147:
What is the purpose of the release management practice?
A) To make new and changed services available for use
B) To authorize changes to proceed
C) To test new services before deployment
D) To manage incidents affecting releases
Answer: A) To make new and changed services available for use
Explanation:
The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use. Release management plans, schedules, and controls the movement of releases to test and live environments, ensuring that the integrity of the live environment is protected and that the correct components are released. This practice ensures that new or changed functionality is delivered in a controlled, predictable, and coordinated manner, reducing the risk of introducing defects or instability into production environments.
Release management packages multiple changes together into releases and coordinates their deployment. The practice ensures releases are properly planned, tested, approved, and communicated. It balances the desire to deliver new capabilities quickly with the need to maintain service stability and minimize disruption to users. Effective release management also ensures that releases align with organizational priorities, meet defined acceptance criteria, and support business and customer needs.
Option B is incorrect because authorizing changes to proceed is the responsibility of change enablement, not release management. Releases must be authorized, but release management coordinates releases rather than authorizing them. Option C is incorrect because testing new services before deployment is the responsibility of service validation and testing. Release management uses test results but does not perform testing. Option D is incorrect because managing incidents is the responsibility of incident management.
Effective release management coordinates between multiple practices including change enablement, deployment management, and service validation and testing. It determines release strategies such as big bang versus phased deployment and plans for rollback if releases encounter problems. The practice should adapt release approaches to different types of changes and organizational needs.
A key aspect of release management is managing different release cadences for different services or components. For example, infrastructure releases may be infrequent and tightly controlled, while application updates may follow agile or continuous delivery cycles. Release management must support various release models—scheduled, continuous, or on-demand—while ensuring governance and risk controls are maintained.
Communication is also central to release management. Stakeholders must be informed of release contents, schedules, potential impacts, and any necessary actions. Poor communication around releases can lead to user confusion, service disruption, or unmet expectations, even when the technical release is successful.
Release documentation is another critical component. This includes release notes, deployment instructions, known issues, and back-out plans. Proper documentation ensures operational teams can support the release once in production and helps ensure continuity of knowledge across the service lifecycle.
Question 148:
Which practice maintains information about how to diagnose and resolve incidents?
A) Incident management
B) Problem management
C) Knowledge management
D) Service desk
Answer: C) Knowledge management
Explanation:
The knowledge management practice maintains information about how to diagnose and resolve incidents, along with other valuable organizational knowledge. This practice ensures that knowledge from past incidents and their resolutions is captured, organized, maintained, and made accessible so it can be reused when similar incidents occur.
Knowledge management maintains knowledge bases, known error databases, diagnostic scripts, resolution procedures, and other knowledge assets that support efficient incident handling. This knowledge enables faster incident resolution, more consistent service delivery, and better utilization of expertise across the organization.
Option A is incorrect because while incident management uses knowledge to resolve incidents, the responsibility for maintaining the knowledge itself sits with knowledge management. Option B is incorrect because while problem management contributes valuable knowledge about problems and their causes, knowledge management is the practice responsible for maintaining all types of knowledge. Option D is incorrect because the service desk uses knowledge but does not maintain it.
Effective knowledge management requires processes for capturing knowledge when incidents are resolved, organizing knowledge so it can be found easily, keeping knowledge current as services and technologies evolve, and promoting knowledge reuse. The practice should make contributing knowledge as easy as consuming it.
Question 149:
What should service level targets be based on?
A) What is technically achievable
B) What competitors are offering
C) Customer requirements and business needs
D) Industry best practices
Answer: C) Customer requirements and business needs
Explanation:
Service level targets should be based primarily on customer requirements and business needs. Targets should reflect what the business actually needs from services to operate effectively and achieve objectives. This ensures services are designed and operated to deliver genuine business value rather than arbitrary or technically-focused metrics.
Service level management should work with customers to understand their needs, the business impact of service issues, and what levels of service are genuinely required. Targets should be meaningful to customers and should focus on aspects of service that affect their ability to achieve outcomes.
Option A is incorrect because while targets must be technically achievable, they should be driven by business needs rather than by what is easy to deliver. Services should be designed to meet needs. Option B is incorrect because while competitive considerations may be relevant, targets should primarily reflect actual customer needs rather than just matching competitors. Option D is incorrect because while industry best practices provide useful references, each organization’s specific needs should drive their targets.
Setting appropriate service level targets requires dialogue between service providers and customers to balance needs with constraints. Targets should be realistic and sustainable, neither so low that they fail to meet needs nor so high that they require excessive cost or effort. Regular reviews ensure targets remain appropriate as needs and capabilities evolve.
Question 150:
Which practice identifies improvement opportunities from incidents?
A) Incident management
B) Problem management
C) Continual improvement
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation:
Improvement opportunities can and should be identified by incident management, problem management, continual improvement, and indeed all practices. Multiple practices have roles in learning from incidents and driving improvement. Incident management may identify process improvements from incident handling. Problem management identifies opportunities to prevent incidents. Continual improvement coordinates overall improvement efforts.
Incident management reviews may identify opportunities to improve incident handling processes, tools, or documentation. Problem management analysis reveals opportunities to address root causes and prevent incidents. Continual improvement ensures these opportunities are captured, prioritized, and acted upon. A mature organization encourages improvement identification across all practices.
Options A, B, and C would each be incomplete because they suggest only one practice identifies improvement opportunities when actually multiple practices contribute. Recognizing that all practices can and should identify improvements is important for embedding continual improvement throughout the organization rather than isolating it to specific teams.
Organizations should make it easy for anyone to suggest improvements, should evaluate suggestions systematically, and should implement improvements that deliver value. Learning from incidents is a powerful source of improvement because incidents reveal gaps between desired and actual performance. Effective organizations treat incidents as opportunities to learn and improve.
Question 151:
What is the purpose of IT asset management?
A) To manage configuration items and their relationships
B) To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets
C) To ensure accurate information about services
D) To manage supplier contracts for IT assets
Answer: B) To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets
Explanation:
The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets, to help the organization maximize value, control costs, manage risks, support decision-making about purchase, reuse, retirement of assets, and meet regulatory and contractual requirements. This practice tracks assets from acquisition through disposal with emphasis on financial value.
IT asset management ensures organizations know what assets they have, where they are, their costs, contractual obligations, and lifecycle status. The practice supports decisions about asset procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement. It helps optimize asset utilization, ensure license compliance, and manage asset-related costs and risks.
Option A is incorrect because managing configuration items and their relationships is the purpose of configuration management, which focuses on technical configuration rather than asset lifecycle and financial management. Option C is incorrect because ensuring accurate information about services is part of service catalogue management. Option D is incorrect because while asset management considers supplier contracts, managing supplier relationships is the broader purpose of supplier management.
Effective IT asset management provides visibility into the asset base, enables informed investment decisions, helps identify underutilized assets that could be redeployed, ensures compliance with license terms, and supports financial planning. The practice should integrate with configuration management where assets are also configuration items.
Question 152:
Which value chain activity includes service performance reporting?
A) Engage
B) Deliver and support
C) Plan
D) Improve
Answer: A) Engage
Explanation:
The engage value chain activity includes service performance reporting as part of providing transparency and maintaining good relationships with stakeholders. Engage ensures stakeholders have visibility into how services are performing, what issues exist, and what improvements are being made. Transparent reporting builds trust and enables informed discussions.
Service performance reporting communicates about service achievements, issues, trends, and planned activities. The engage activity ensures this information is presented appropriately for different stakeholder audiences and that reporting supports stakeholder needs for transparency and oversight. Reporting is a key element of stakeholder engagement.
Option B is incorrect because while deliver and support produces performance data through operational activities, the reporting of that performance to stakeholders is part of engage. Option C is incorrect because plan uses performance information for planning but the reporting to stakeholders is part of engage. Option D is incorrect because while improve uses performance information to identify improvement opportunities, stakeholder reporting is part of engage.
Effective engagement through reporting requires understanding what information different stakeholders need, presenting information clearly and accurately, being transparent about both successes and challenges, and using reporting as a basis for dialogue rather than just one-way communication. Reports should drive appropriate discussions and decisions.
Question 153:
What is the purpose of the service configuration management practice?
A) To manage service level agreements
B) To ensure that accurate and reliable information about configuration items is available
C) To manage changes to services
D) To catalogue available services
Answer: B) To ensure that accurate and reliable information about configuration items is available
Explanation:
The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services, and the configuration items that support them, is available when and where it is needed. This includes information about how configuration items are configured, their relationships to other items, and their history.
Service configuration management maintains configuration records in a configuration management system, ensuring the information is current, accurate, and accessible. This information supports many other practices including change assessment, incident diagnosis, problem analysis, and impact analysis. Without accurate configuration information, effective service management becomes very difficult.
Option A is incorrect because managing service level agreements is part of service level management, not configuration management. Option C is incorrect because managing changes to services is the purpose of change enablement. Configuration management provides information that supports change management but does not manage changes. Option D is incorrect because cataloguing available services is the purpose of service catalogue management.
Effective configuration management requires discipline in maintaining records as changes occur, appropriate tools for storing and accessing information, clear processes for updating records, and governance to ensure quality. The scope and detail should be based on the value configuration information provides rather than attempting to track everything.
Question 154:
Which practice provides a formal process for obtaining approval before proceeding with changes?
A) Change enablement
B) Release management
C) Deployment management
D) Project management
Answer: A) Change enablement
Explanation:
The change enablement practice provides a formal process for obtaining appropriate authorization before changes proceed to implementation. This approval process ensures changes have been properly assessed for risk, impact has been evaluated, stakeholders have been consulted, and appropriate authority has reviewed and approved the change.
Change authorization is a key control that helps protect services from uncontrolled change while enabling beneficial changes to proceed. The authorization level and process depend on the change type and risk. Standard changes are pre-authorized. Normal changes require individual authorization. Emergency changes use expedited authorization processes.
Option B is incorrect because release management coordinates the deployment of releases but the authorization to proceed comes from change enablement. Option C is incorrect because deployment management executes deployments after authorization has been obtained. Option D is incorrect because project management manages projects but does not provide the authorization process for operational changes.
The authorization process should be efficient and proportionate to risk. Excessive approval requirements slow down beneficial change. Insufficient approval increases risk of service disruption. Organizations should streamline authorization where possible while maintaining necessary oversight. Clear authorization criteria and authorities prevent confusion and delays.
Question 155:
What is a workaround?
A) A permanent solution to a problem
B) A solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available
C) An automated solution to recurring incidents
D) A documented procedure for handling standard changes
Answer: B) A solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available
Explanation:
A workaround is a solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available. Workarounds are temporary measures that enable service restoration or reduction of impact while permanent fixes are being developed or until it is decided that permanent fixes are not justified.
Workarounds are documented by problem management in known error records and can be applied by incident management when related incidents occur. They enable faster incident resolution and service restoration even when root causes have not been eliminated. Workarounds may remain in place indefinitely if the cost or risk of permanent fixes is not justified.
Option A is incorrect because a permanent solution is not a workaround but rather a fix or resolution. Workarounds are by definition temporary or interim measures. Option C is incorrect because while workarounds may eventually be automated, automation is not what defines a workaround. Option D is incorrect because documented procedures for standard changes are change procedures, not workarounds.
Effective use of workarounds requires documenting them clearly so they can be found and applied when needed, training staff on their use, and periodically reviewing whether workarounds are still needed or whether permanent solutions should be implemented. Workarounds should be replaced with permanent solutions when justified.
Question 156:
Which dimension of service management includes consideration of suppliers and partners?
A) Organizations and people
B) Information and technology
C) Partners and suppliers
D) Value streams and processes
Answer: C) Partners and suppliers
Explanation:
The partners and suppliers dimension of service management explicitly includes consideration of the organization’s relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment, delivery, support, and continual improvement of services. This dimension addresses how the organization works with external parties to deliver value.
This dimension considers what services or components should be sourced externally, how to select and manage suppliers, how to structure partnerships, how to integrate supplier capabilities with internal capabilities, and how to manage risks associated with external dependencies. It recognizes that most organizations rely on external parties for aspects of service delivery.
Option A is incorrect because the organizations and people dimension focuses on internal organizational structures, roles, and people rather than external partners and suppliers. Option B is incorrect because the information and technology dimension addresses information and technologies that support services. Option D is incorrect because the value streams and processes dimension focuses on workflows and how activities are organized.
Modern service delivery often involves complex ecosystems of partners and suppliers. Effective management of this dimension requires clear strategies for sourcing, appropriate governance of supplier relationships, integration of supplier services with internal capabilities, and management of dependencies and risks. The dimension ensures external relationships are considered in all aspects of service management.
Question 157:
What is the purpose of the capacity and performance management practice?
A) To ensure services achieve agreed availability levels
B) To ensure services achieve agreed and expected performance satisfying current and future demand
C) To ensure services are delivered within agreed costs
D) To ensure services meet security requirements
Answer: B) To ensure services achieve agreed and expected performance satisfying current and future demand
Explanation:
The purpose of the capacity and performance management practice is to ensure that services achieve agreed and expected performance, satisfying current and future demand in a cost-effective way. This practice ensures there is adequate capacity to meet demand while also optimizing resource utilization to avoid waste.
Capacity and performance management monitors current capacity and performance, forecasts future demand, plans capacity additions or reductions, optimizes resource allocation, and tunes systems for optimal performance. The practice balances having enough capacity to meet needs with efficient use of resources.
Option A is incorrect because ensuring services achieve agreed availability levels is the purpose of availability management, which is related but has a different focus. Option C is incorrect because ensuring services are delivered within agreed costs is part of financial management. Capacity management considers costs but its purpose is ensuring adequate capacity and performance. Option D is incorrect because ensuring services meet security requirements is the purpose of information security management.
Effective capacity and performance management requires understanding demand patterns, good monitoring of utilization and performance, forecasting capabilities, and ability to make informed decisions about capacity investments. The practice should work proactively to address capacity needs before they cause service issues while also identifying opportunities to reduce capacity when demand decreases.
Question 158:
Which practice ensures that risks are properly assessed before changes are implemented?
A) Risk management
B) Change enablement
C) Problem management
D) Service validation and testing
Answer: B) Change enablement
Explanation:
The change enablement practice ensures that risks are properly assessed before changes are implemented. Change assessment evaluates the potential risks and impacts of proposed changes, considers benefits and costs, and determines appropriate authorization levels. This risk assessment is central to change enablement’s purpose of maximizing successful changes.
Change enablement uses risk assessment to determine what level of authorization is required, what testing or validation should occur, and what precautions should be taken during implementation. Higher-risk changes receive more scrutiny while lower-risk changes can proceed more quickly. Risk assessment informs change scheduling and implementation planning.
Option A is incorrect because while risk management provides the overall framework for managing risks, the specific assessment of change risks occurs within change enablement. Risk management principles inform how change risks are assessed. Option C is incorrect because problem management analyzes root causes of incidents but does not assess change risks. Option D is incorrect because service validation and testing verifies that services work correctly but the risk assessment of changes is part of change enablement.
Effective change risk assessment considers multiple factors including complexity, scope of impact, dependencies, timing, track record with similar changes, and adequacy of testing. Assessment should be proportionate to apparent risk. The process should enable rapid assessment of clearly low-risk changes while ensuring thorough evaluation of higher-risk changes.
Question 159:
What is the purpose of the monitoring and event management practice?
A) To restore service operation as quickly as possible
B) To systematically observe services and service components and record and report selected changes of state
C) To reduce the likelihood of incidents
D) To handle user-initiated service requests
Answer: B) To systematically observe services and service components and record and report selected changes of state
Explanation:
The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and service components, and to record and report selected changes of state identified as events. This practice provides the foundation for service visibility and awareness, enabling the organization to understand current state and detect when attention is needed.
Monitoring and event management defines what should be monitored, establishes monitoring capabilities, detects and filters events, correlates related events, determines appropriate responses, and triggers actions when needed. The practice enables proactive service management by providing early warning of potential issues and data for analysis and improvement.
Option A is incorrect because restoring service operation as quickly as possible is the purpose of incident management. Monitoring may detect incidents but restoration is not its purpose. Option C is incorrect because reducing the likelihood of incidents is the purpose of problem management. Monitoring provides data that supports problem management but prevention is not its purpose. Option D is incorrect because handling user-initiated service requests is the purpose of service request management.
Effective monitoring and event management balances comprehensive observation with appropriate filtering to avoid overwhelming staff with excessive events. It should distinguish between informational events, warnings, and exceptions requiring action. Monitoring should cover all four dimensions and should provide data that supports multiple practices and decision-making.
Question 160:
Which practice includes evaluating the impact of changes that have been implemented?
A) Change enablement
B) Service validation and testing
C) Continual improvement
D) Release management
Answer: A) Change enablement
Explanation:
The change enablement practice includes evaluating the impact of changes that have been implemented through post-implementation reviews. These reviews assess whether changes achieved their objectives, whether they caused any unexpected impacts, and what lessons can be learned to improve future change success rates.
Post-implementation reviews are an important feedback mechanism that enables learning from both successful and unsuccessful changes. They provide information about change effectiveness, identify issues that occurred, capture lessons learned, and inform improvements to change processes and practices. Reviews should occur for significant changes.
Option B is incorrect because service validation and testing occurs before implementation to verify readiness, not after implementation to evaluate impact. Testing validates changes work correctly before deployment. Option C is incorrect because while continual improvement certainly uses information from change evaluations, the responsibility for conducting post-implementation reviews sits with change enablement. Option D is incorrect because release management coordinates releases but evaluation of implemented changes is part of change enablement.
Effective post-implementation reviews occur after sufficient time has passed to assess real results but soon enough that details are fresh. Reviews should be conducted objectively to identify genuine lessons rather than just confirming success. Findings should lead to tangible improvements in how changes are handled.
