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Question 21
Which cloud deployment model allows an organization to maintain sensitive data on-premises while utilizing public cloud resources for less critical workloads?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model combines both private and public cloud infrastructures, allowing organizations to leverage the benefits of both environments. This model enables businesses to keep sensitive data and critical applications on-premises or in a private cloud while using public cloud resources for less sensitive workloads, development, testing, or burst capacity needs.
The hybrid cloud approach provides flexibility and control over data placement based on security, compliance, and performance requirements. Organizations can maintain regulatory compliance by keeping sensitive customer information, financial records, or proprietary data within their own infrastructure while taking advantage of the scalability, cost-effectiveness, and global reach of public cloud services for non-sensitive operations.
Option A is incorrect because a public cloud model hosts all resources and data on third-party infrastructure accessible over the internet, without the ability to maintain on-premises control of sensitive data.
Option B is incorrect because a private cloud is dedicated entirely to a single organization and does not incorporate public cloud resources, limiting the flexibility to use external cloud services for different workload types.
Option D is incorrect because a community cloud is shared among several organizations with common concerns such as security requirements or compliance needs, but it does not specifically address the combination of on-premises and public cloud resources that defines a hybrid model.
Question 22
What is the primary purpose of implementing auto-scaling in a cloud environment?
A) To reduce network latency
B) To automatically adjust compute resources based on demand
C) To improve data encryption standards
D) To enhance user authentication processes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Auto-scaling is a cloud computing feature that automatically adjusts the number of compute resources allocated to an application based on current demand. This ensures optimal performance during peak usage periods while minimizing costs during low-demand times. The system monitors predefined metrics such as CPU utilization, memory usage, or network traffic and scales resources up or down accordingly.
The primary benefit of auto-scaling is cost optimization combined with performance assurance. During traffic spikes, additional instances are automatically provisioned to handle the increased load, preventing performance degradation or service outages. Conversely, when demand decreases, unnecessary instances are terminated, reducing operational expenses.
Option A is incorrect because reducing network latency is typically addressed through content delivery networks, edge computing, or optimized network routing rather than auto-scaling compute resources.
Option C is incorrect because data encryption standards are security-related configurations that are independent of auto-scaling functionality and involve cryptographic protocols and key management.
Option D is incorrect because user authentication processes involve identity and access management systems, multi-factor authentication, and directory services, which are not directly related to the dynamic provisioning of compute resources.
Auto-scaling is essential for modern cloud applications that experience variable workloads and need to maintain service level agreements while controlling infrastructure costs.
Question 23
Which storage type provides the lowest latency and highest IOPS for database workloads in cloud environments?
A) Object storage
B) File storage
C) Block storage with SSD
D) Archive storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Block storage with solid-state drives provides the lowest latency and highest input/output operations per second, making it ideal for database workloads that require fast, consistent performance. Block storage presents raw storage volumes that can be attached to virtual machines and formatted with any file system, allowing direct access at the block level.
SSDs use flash memory technology that enables significantly faster read and write operations compared to traditional hard disk drives. This makes them particularly suitable for transactional databases, high-performance applications, and workloads requiring frequent random access patterns. Cloud providers typically offer tiered block storage options with varying IOPS levels to match different performance requirements.
Option A is incorrect because object storage is optimized for storing large amounts of unstructured data such as images, videos, and backups, but it operates through API calls and is not suitable for low-latency database operations requiring direct block-level access.
Option B is incorrect because file storage provides shared file systems accessible over network protocols like NFS or SMB, which introduce additional latency compared to block storage and are better suited for shared file access rather than high-performance database workloads.
Option D is incorrect because archive storage is designed for long-term data retention with infrequent access, offering the lowest cost but with retrieval times measured in hours, making it completely unsuitable for active database workloads.
Question 24
What is the primary function of a cloud load balancer?
A) To encrypt data in transit
B) To distribute incoming traffic across multiple servers
C) To monitor system performance metrics
D) To manage user authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cloud load balancer distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances to ensure optimal resource utilization, maximize throughput, minimize response time, and avoid overloading any single server. This distribution improves application availability and reliability by routing traffic away from failed or unhealthy instances to healthy ones.
Load balancers operate at different layers of the network stack. Layer 4 load balancers make routing decisions based on network and transport layer information such as IP addresses and TCP ports, while Layer 7 load balancers can make more intelligent routing decisions based on application-level data such as HTTP headers, cookies, or URL paths.
Option A is incorrect because while some load balancers support SSL/TLS termination for encryption, this is a secondary feature rather than the primary function. Encryption can also be handled by other services or at the application level.
Option B is the correct answer as it directly describes the core purpose of load balancing technology in cloud environments.
Option C is incorrect because monitoring system performance metrics is the function of monitoring and observability tools rather than load balancers, though load balancers may provide basic health check information.
Option D is incorrect because user authentication is handled by identity and access management systems, authentication services, or application-level security controls, not by load balancers.
Question 25
Which cloud service model provides users with a complete development and deployment environment without managing underlying infrastructure?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) Function as a Service (FaaS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Platform as a Service provides developers with a complete cloud-based environment for building, testing, deploying, and managing applications without the complexity of maintaining the underlying infrastructure. PaaS includes development tools, database management systems, middleware, operating systems, and server infrastructure, all managed by the cloud provider.
With PaaS, developers can focus on writing code and building applications while the platform handles server provisioning, scaling, patching, security updates, and infrastructure maintenance. This accelerates development cycles and reduces operational overhead. Common PaaS offerings include services for web applications, mobile backends, API development, and container orchestration.
Option A is incorrect because IaaS provides virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networks, but users must still manage operating systems, middleware, and runtime environments themselves.
Option C is incorrect because SaaS delivers fully functional applications to end users over the internet, requiring no development work or infrastructure management, but it does not provide a development environment for creating custom applications.
Option D is incorrect because FaaS, also known as serverless computing, allows developers to deploy individual functions that execute in response to events, but it represents a more specific execution model rather than a complete development platform with integrated tools and services.
Question 26
What is the primary purpose of implementing Resource Access Control Lists (RACLs) in cloud environments?
A) To monitor network traffic patterns
B) To control which users or services can access specific cloud resources
C) To optimize storage performance
D) To automate backup processes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Resource Access Control Lists are security mechanisms that define and enforce which users, groups, or services have permission to access specific cloud resources. RACLs provide granular control over resource access by specifying allowed or denied actions for different principals, implementing the principle of least privilege to minimize security risks.
RACLs typically define permissions such as read, write, execute, delete, or administrative access for various resources including virtual machines, storage buckets, databases, and network components. They work in conjunction with identity and access management systems to ensure that only authorized entities can perform specific operations on cloud resources.
Option A is incorrect because monitoring network traffic patterns is accomplished through network monitoring tools, flow logs, and intrusion detection systems rather than access control lists, which focus on authorization rather than observation.
Option C is incorrect because storage performance optimization involves selecting appropriate storage tiers, configuring caching, implementing data compression, or using performance-optimized storage classes rather than access control mechanisms.
Option D is incorrect because automating backup processes requires backup services, scheduling tools, and data protection policies rather than access control lists, though RACLs may define who can configure or restore backups.
Properly configured RACLs are essential for maintaining security compliance and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive cloud resources.
Question 27
Which technology enables multiple isolated virtual networks to coexist on the same physical network infrastructure?
A) Network Address Translation (NAT)
B) Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
C) Domain Name System (DNS)
D) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual Local Area Networks enable network administrators to create multiple isolated logical networks on the same physical network infrastructure. VLANs segment network traffic by grouping devices into separate broadcast domains regardless of their physical location, improving security, performance, and management flexibility.
VLANs operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model and use tagging mechanisms such as IEEE 802.1Q to identify which VLAN a frame belongs to. This allows switches to forward traffic only to ports belonging to the same VLAN, creating logical separation between different network segments. In cloud environments, VLANs help isolate tenant networks, separate production from development environments, and implement security zones.
Option A is incorrect because NAT translates private IP addresses to public addresses for internet connectivity and does not create isolated network segments. NAT is primarily used for IP address conservation and providing internet access to private networks.
Option C is incorrect because DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses, facilitating human-readable addressing for network resources, but it does not provide network isolation or segmentation capabilities.
Option D is incorrect because DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses and network configuration parameters to devices, simplifying network management but not creating isolated virtual networks or providing segmentation functionality.
VLANs are fundamental to building secure, scalable cloud network architectures with proper traffic isolation.
Question 28
What is the main advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cloud deployments?
A) It eliminates the need for network security
B) It enables consistent, repeatable, and automated infrastructure provisioning
C) It reduces the cost of cloud storage
D) It improves application performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Infrastructure as Code is a practice that manages and provisions cloud infrastructure through machine-readable definition files rather than manual configuration. IaC enables consistent, repeatable, and automated infrastructure deployments by treating infrastructure configuration as software code that can be versioned, tested, and deployed using standard development practices.
With IaC, infrastructure configurations are defined in declarative or imperative code using tools like Terraform, CloudFormation, or Ansible. This approach eliminates configuration drift, reduces human error, enables rapid environment replication, and facilitates disaster recovery. Teams can version control their infrastructure definitions, review changes through code reviews, and roll back to previous configurations if issues arise.
Option A is incorrect because IaC does not eliminate the need for network security. Security measures such as firewalls, encryption, access controls, and monitoring remain essential regardless of how infrastructure is provisioned.
Option C is incorrect because while IaC can help implement cost optimization strategies through consistent resource tagging and automated resource cleanup, it does not directly reduce storage costs, which depend on storage tier selection and data management practices.
Option D is incorrect because IaC focuses on infrastructure provisioning and management rather than application performance. Performance improvements require application optimization, appropriate resource sizing, and architectural decisions beyond infrastructure deployment methods.
Question 29
Which cloud storage redundancy option provides the highest level of data durability by replicating data across multiple geographic regions?
A) Locally Redundant Storage (LRS)
B) Zone Redundant Storage (ZRS)
C) Geo-Redundant Storage (GRS)
D) Premium Storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Geo-Redundant Storage provides the highest level of data durability by replicating data synchronously within a primary region and then asynchronously to a secondary geographic region hundreds of miles away. This redundancy strategy protects against regional disasters, datacenter failures, and large-scale outages that could affect an entire geographic area.
GRS typically maintains at least six copies of data across two regions, ensuring business continuity even if an entire region becomes unavailable. Some cloud providers offer read access to the secondary region (Read-Access GRS) allowing applications to read data from the backup location, improving availability and enabling disaster recovery scenarios.
Option A is incorrect because Locally Redundant Storage replicates data only within a single datacenter in one availability zone, providing protection against hardware failures but not against datacenter or regional disasters.
Option B is incorrect because Zone Redundant Storage replicates data across multiple availability zones within a single region, offering better protection than LRS but not protecting against region-wide disasters that could affect all zones simultaneously.
Option D is incorrect because Premium Storage refers to a performance tier using SSD-based storage with high IOPS and low latency, but it is not a redundancy option and can be combined with various redundancy strategies.
Organizations requiring maximum data protection typically choose GRS for critical business data.
Question 30
What is the primary purpose of implementing a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)?
A) To increase CPU processing power
B) To create an isolated network environment within a public cloud
C) To reduce cloud storage costs
D) To improve database query performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud provides an isolated network environment within a public cloud infrastructure, giving organizations control over their virtual networking configuration including IP address ranges, subnets, route tables, and network gateways. VPCs enable secure, private sections of cloud infrastructure where resources can be launched in a defined virtual network.
Within a VPC, organizations can define security groups, network access control lists, and implement network segmentation to control inbound and outbound traffic. VPCs can be connected to on-premises datacenters through VPN or dedicated connections, creating hybrid cloud architectures. This isolation ensures that resources within one VPC cannot directly communicate with resources in other VPCs unless explicitly configured.
Option A is incorrect because increasing CPU processing power involves selecting appropriate virtual machine instance types or scaling compute resources, which is unrelated to network isolation provided by VPCs.
Option C is incorrect because VPCs focus on network isolation and security rather than storage cost optimization. Storage costs depend on factors like storage tier selection, data lifecycle policies, and compression strategies.
Option D is incorrect because database query performance depends on factors such as indexing, query optimization, database configuration, and compute resources rather than the network isolation provided by VPCs, though network architecture can affect connectivity latency.
VPCs are fundamental building blocks for secure cloud architectures.
Question 31
Which cloud computing characteristic allows users to access resources from any location with internet connectivity?
A) Resource pooling
B) Rapid elasticity
C) Broad network access
D) Measured service
Answer: C
Explanation:
Broad network access is a fundamental characteristic of cloud computing that enables users to access cloud resources over the network through standard mechanisms, regardless of their physical location. This accessibility is typically provided through internet connectivity and supports heterogeneous client platforms including mobile phones, tablets, laptops, and workstations.
This characteristic enables remote work, global collaboration, and distributed application architectures. Users can access their applications, data, and services from anywhere with internet connectivity, using various devices and platforms. Cloud providers ensure that their services are accessible through well-documented APIs, web interfaces, and client applications that work across different operating systems and devices.
Option A is incorrect because resource pooling refers to the provider’s ability to serve multiple customers using multi-tenant models with physical and virtual resources dynamically assigned according to demand, rather than accessibility from different locations.
Option B is incorrect because rapid elasticity describes the capability to quickly scale resources up or down based on demand, often automatically, giving the appearance of unlimited capacity rather than network accessibility.
Option D is incorrect because measured service relates to cloud systems automatically controlling and optimizing resource usage through metering capabilities, providing transparency for both provider and consumer regarding resource consumption and billing.
Broad network access ensures that cloud services remain available and accessible regardless of user location or device type.
Question 32
What is the primary function of a cloud orchestration tool?
A) To encrypt data at rest
B) To automate and coordinate complex workflows across multiple cloud resources
C) To monitor application performance
D) To provide user authentication services
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud orchestration tools automate and coordinate complex workflows, tasks, and processes across multiple cloud resources and services. Orchestration goes beyond simple automation by managing dependencies between tasks, handling error conditions, and coordinating the provisioning, configuration, and management of interconnected cloud components.
Orchestration tools enable organizations to define multi-step processes that might involve provisioning virtual machines, configuring networks, deploying applications, setting up databases, and establishing monitoring. These tools ensure that tasks execute in the correct sequence, handle failures gracefully, and maintain desired state configurations across complex cloud environments.
Option A is incorrect because encrypting data at rest is accomplished through encryption services, key management systems, and storage configuration rather than orchestration tools, which focus on workflow automation and coordination.
Option C is incorrect because monitoring application performance is the function of observability platforms, application performance management tools, and monitoring services that collect and analyze metrics, logs, and traces.
Option D is incorrect because providing user authentication services is handled by identity and access management systems, directory services, and authentication providers such as Active Directory, OAuth providers, or SAML identity providers.
Popular orchestration tools include Kubernetes for container orchestration, Terraform for infrastructure orchestration, and various workflow engines for business process automation.
Question 33
Which disaster recovery metric defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?
A) Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
B) Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
C) Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
D) Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Recovery Point Objective defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, representing the age of files that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume after a disaster. RPO determines how frequently data backups must occur and influences backup strategy, technology selection, and recovery procedures.
For example, an RPO of four hours means that the organization can tolerate losing up to four hours of data, requiring backups at least every four hours. Organizations with lower RPO requirements need more frequent backups, continuous replication, or synchronous data mirroring, which typically increase costs but minimize potential data loss.
Option A is incorrect because RTO defines the maximum acceptable time to restore systems and resume operations after a disaster, focusing on recovery duration rather than data loss. RTO influences infrastructure design, redundancy requirements, and recovery procedures.
Option C is incorrect because MTTR measures the average time required to repair a failed component and restore it to operational status, focusing on maintenance efficiency rather than acceptable data loss timeframes.
Option D is incorrect because MTBF measures the average time between system failures, providing reliability metrics for predicting when failures might occur rather than defining acceptable data loss parameters for disaster recovery planning.
RPO and RTO together form the foundation of disaster recovery planning and business continuity strategies.
Question 34
What is the primary benefit of implementing containerization in cloud environments?
A) Increased physical server capacity
B) Application portability and consistent runtime environments across different platforms
C) Reduced network bandwidth requirements
D) Enhanced data encryption capabilities
Answer: B
Explanation:
Containerization packages applications along with their dependencies, libraries, and configuration files into isolated containers that can run consistently across different computing environments. This approach provides application portability, allowing containers to run reliably whether deployed on a developer’s laptop, testing environment, or production cloud infrastructure.
Containers share the host operating system kernel, making them more lightweight than virtual machines while still providing isolation. This enables faster startup times, higher density of applications per host, and more efficient resource utilization. Container technology, particularly Docker and orchestrated through Kubernetes, has become fundamental to modern cloud-native application development and microservices architectures.
Option A is incorrect because containerization does not increase physical server capacity. Instead, it improves resource utilization by running multiple isolated applications on existing infrastructure more efficiently than traditional virtualization or bare-metal deployments.
Option C is incorrect because containerization primarily addresses application packaging and deployment consistency rather than network bandwidth optimization. Network bandwidth requirements depend on application design, data transfer patterns, and communication protocols.
Option D is incorrect because data encryption capabilities are implemented through cryptographic libraries, encryption services, and security configurations rather than containerization technology, though containers can include encryption tools and implement secure communication patterns.
Containerization enables DevOps practices, continuous integration and deployment, and cloud-native architectures.
Question 35
Which cloud security control helps prevent unauthorized access by verifying user identity through multiple authentication factors?
A) Firewall rules
B) Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
C) Data encryption
D) Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multi-Factor Authentication enhances security by requiring users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access to cloud resources, making unauthorized access significantly more difficult even if passwords are compromised. MFA typically combines something the user knows (password), something the user has (security token or mobile device), and something the user is (biometric data).
Common MFA implementations include one-time passwords generated by mobile apps, SMS codes, hardware tokens, biometric authentication, or push notifications to registered devices. By requiring multiple independent credentials, MFA dramatically reduces the risk of account compromise from phishing attacks, password breaches, or credential stuffing attempts.
Option A is incorrect because firewall rules control network traffic based on predefined security policies, filtering packets based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols, but they do not verify user identity or implement authentication mechanisms.
Option C is incorrect because data encryption protects information confidentiality by converting data into unreadable format without proper decryption keys, but it does not authenticate users or verify their identity before granting access.
Option D is incorrect because IDS monitors network traffic and system activities for suspicious patterns or known attack signatures, providing security alerting and detection capabilities rather than user authentication and identity verification.
MFA is considered a critical security best practice for protecting cloud accounts and sensitive resources.
Question 36
What is the primary purpose of implementing API rate limiting in cloud services?
A) To improve data encryption
B) To prevent resource exhaustion and protect against abuse or denial-of-service attacks
C) To increase storage capacity
D) To enhance user interface design
Answer: B
Explanation:
API rate limiting controls the number of requests a client can make to an API within a specified time period, protecting cloud services from resource exhaustion, abuse, and denial-of-service attacks. Rate limiting ensures fair resource distribution among users, maintains service availability, and prevents individual clients from overwhelming the system with excessive requests.
Rate limiting policies can be implemented at various levels including per user, per API key, per IP address, or globally across all clients. When limits are exceeded, the API typically returns an HTTP 429 status code indicating too many requests. Organizations implement rate limiting to maintain service quality, control costs, and ensure that resources remain available to all legitimate users.
Option A is incorrect because improving data encryption involves implementing stronger cryptographic algorithms, proper key management, and encryption protocols rather than controlling API request rates or access frequency.
Option C is incorrect because increasing storage capacity requires provisioning additional storage resources, upgrading storage tiers, or implementing data compression and deduplication rather than limiting API request rates.
Option D is incorrect because enhancing user interface design involves user experience principles, visual design, and frontend development practices rather than backend API request management and rate limiting mechanisms.
Effective rate limiting balances service protection with user experience by setting appropriate thresholds based on typical usage patterns.
Question 37
Which cloud networking component provides secure connectivity between a Virtual Private Cloud and an on-premises datacenter?
A) Internet Gateway
B) VPN Gateway or Direct Connect
C) Load Balancer
D) Content Delivery Network
Answer: B
Explanation:
VPN Gateways and Direct Connect services provide secure connectivity between cloud VPCs and on-premises datacenters, enabling hybrid cloud architectures. VPN connections encrypt traffic over the public internet, while Direct Connect establishes dedicated private connections that bypass the internet entirely, offering more consistent performance and enhanced security.
VPN gateways support site-to-site connections using protocols like IPsec, creating encrypted tunnels between on-premises VPN devices and cloud VPN gateways. Direct Connect provides dedicated network connections with higher bandwidth, lower latency, and more predictable network performance compared to internet-based connections, though typically at higher cost.
Option A is incorrect because Internet Gateways enable resources within a VPC to communicate with the public internet, providing outbound connectivity and receiving inbound traffic from the internet rather than establishing private connections to on-premises infrastructure.
Option C is incorrect because Load Balancers distribute incoming traffic across multiple servers or instances within cloud environments to improve availability and performance, but they do not provide connectivity between cloud and on-premises networks.
Option D is incorrect because Content Delivery Networks cache and distribute content from edge locations closer to end users to reduce latency and improve performance, but they do not establish secure connections between cloud and on-premises datacenters.
Hybrid connectivity solutions are essential for organizations migrating workloads to the cloud or maintaining distributed architectures.
Question 38
What is the primary function of a cloud management platform?
A) To provide antivirus protection
B) To centralize management, monitoring, and optimization across multiple cloud environments
C) To replace all cloud provider native tools
D) To eliminate the need for network configuration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud Management Platforms provide centralized capabilities for managing, monitoring, and optimizing resources across multiple cloud environments including public, private, and hybrid clouds. CMPs offer unified interfaces for provisioning, governance, cost management, security compliance, and operational monitoring across diverse cloud providers and services.
These platforms address challenges organizations face when using multiple cloud providers or managing complex hybrid environments. CMPs typically include features for resource inventory, cost allocation and optimization, policy enforcement, automation workflows, and consolidated reporting. They help organizations maintain visibility, control, and governance across their entire cloud infrastructure.
Option A is incorrect because providing antivirus protection is the function of endpoint security solutions, antimalware software, and security services rather than cloud management platforms, though CMPs may integrate with security tools for comprehensive management.
Option C is incorrect because CMPs complement rather than replace cloud provider native tools, offering cross-cloud management capabilities while often integrating with and leveraging native services for actual resource provisioning and management.
Option D is incorrect because network configuration remains necessary regardless of management platforms used. CMPs may simplify network management through centralized interfaces, but they do not eliminate the need for proper network design and configuration.
Popular CMPs include solutions from vendors like VMware, Red Hat, and various cloud-native management tools.
Question 39
Which cloud storage class is most appropriate for frequently accessed data requiring low latency?
A) Archive storage
B) Cold storage
C) Hot or Standard storage
D) Glacier storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hot or Standard storage classes are optimized for frequently accessed data requiring low latency and high throughput. These storage tiers provide immediate access with millisecond response times, making them suitable for active databases, website content, streaming media, mobile applications, and other workloads requiring real-time data access.
Hot storage typically has higher per-gigabyte storage costs compared to cold or archive tiers, but lower data access and retrieval fees. This pricing structure makes hot storage cost-effective for data accessed regularly, as the total cost of ownership remains lower when considering both storage and access costs for frequently used data.
Option A is incorrect because archive storage is designed for long-term data retention with infrequent access, featuring the lowest storage costs but with retrieval times measured in hours, making it unsuitable for frequently accessed data requiring low latency.
Option B is incorrect because cold storage is intended for infrequently accessed data with retrieval times ranging from minutes to hours and lower storage costs than hot storage, but higher access fees that make it expensive for frequently accessed workloads.
Option D is incorrect because Glacier storage, a type of archive storage offered by some cloud providers, is specifically designed for long-term archival with very low storage costs but retrieval delays that make it inappropriate for data requiring frequent, low-latency access.
Selecting appropriate storage classes based on access patterns optimizes both performance and cost.
Question 40
What is the primary purpose of implementing cloud resource tagging?
A) To improve network speed
B) To organize, track, and manage cloud resources for cost allocation and governance
C) To encrypt data in transit
D) To increase storage capacity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud resource tagging assigns metadata labels to cloud resources for organization, tracking, cost allocation, automation, and governance purposes. Tags typically consist of key-value pairs such as environment:production, department:finance, or project:migration, enabling organizations to categorize and manage resources according to business requirements.
Effective tagging strategies enable detailed cost reporting by department, project, or application, facilitate automated operations based on tag criteria, support compliance auditing, and improve resource discovery and inventory management. Organizations typically establish tagging policies as part of cloud governance frameworks to ensure consistent tag application across all resources.
Option A is incorrect because improving network speed requires network optimization techniques such as selecting appropriate bandwidth, using content delivery networks, optimizing routing, or upgrading network infrastructure rather than applying metadata tags to resources.
Option C is incorrect because encrypting data in transit requires implementing SSL/TLS protocols, VPN connections, or other cryptographic mechanisms rather than applying organizational tags to cloud resources for management purposes.
Option D is incorrect because increasing storage capacity involves provisioning additional storage resources or upgrading to higher-capacity storage tiers rather than applying metadata tags, though tags can help identify storage resources for management and optimization.
