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Q41. You are managing a hybrid environment where all on-premises servers are Azure Arc-enabled. You use Azure Automation Update Management to patch these servers. You need to create a patching schedule that installs “Critical” and “Security” updates on all your Windows Servers. The schedule must run every month on the last Friday at 10:00 PM and must exclude a specific list of KBs. What should you create in your Azure Automation account?
A) A Data Collection Rule (DCR)
B) An Update Deployment Schedule
C) A PowerShell runbook with a Register-ScheduledJob command
D) An Azure Policy guest configuration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct answer. The Azure Automation Update Management solution is designed to orchestrate and schedule patch deployments across a hybrid fleet of machines. To define when updates are applied, what classifications are included (e.g., “Critical,” “Security”), and which updates to exclude, you create an Update Deployment Schedule. This object contains all the scheduling and scoping logic for the patch job.
Option A is incorrect. A Data Collection Rule (DCR) is used by the Azure Monitor Agent (AMA) to define what monitoring data (logs, performance counters) to collect from servers. It is not used for deploying updates.
Option C is incorrect. While you could theoretically use a PowerShell runbook to script this, it is not the native, out-of-the-box solution. The Update Deployment Schedule is the purpose-built feature for this, and it handles all the complex orchestration (reboots, maintenance windows, etc.) automatically.
Option D is incorrect. An Azure Policy guest configuration is used to audit or enforce configuration settings inside a machine (e.g., “ensure a registry key is set”). It is not an update deployment scheduling tool.
Q42. You are designing a new two-node Windows Server 2022 failover cluster on-premises. The two nodes are in the same rack. You do not have a separate, third server to act as a witness, and you do not have any shared storage (like a SAN or iSCSI) to configure as a disk witness. You have an Azure subscription. What is the most appropriate and recommended witness type to ensure cluster quorum?
A) Cloud Witness
B) Disk Witness
C) File Share Witness
D) Node Majority (no witness)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. A Cloud Witness is the perfect solution for this scenario. It is a type of cluster quorum witness that uses a small blob in an Azure Storage Account as the “vote.” It is ideal for two-node clusters (or any cluster without shared storage) because it doesn’t require any additional on-premises infrastructure—just an Azure subscription. This provides the necessary tie-breaking vote to prevent a split-brain scenario if the two nodes lose network communication.
Option B is incorrect. A Disk Witness requires a small, dedicated shared disk (LUN) on a SAN, iSCSI, or SAS array, which the prompt states is not available.
Option C is incorrect. A File Share Witness requires a file share on a third server that is not part of the cluster. The prompt states this is not available.
Option D is incorrect. Node Majority is the default for odd-numbered clusters (3, 5, etc.). A two-node cluster must have a witness (Disk, File Share, or Cloud) to achieve quorum. Without a witness, a two-node cluster would use Node Majority and would fail if either node went down, defeating the purpose of high availability.
Q43. You need to provide an on-premises backup solution for a fleet of Hyper-V VMs and several application-aware workloads, including SQL Server and SharePoint. The business requires fast, on-premises restores (Disk-to-Disk) and long-term, off-site retention in Azure (Disk-to-Disk-to-Cloud). Which Microsoft product is designed for this D2D2C scenario?
A) The Microsoft Azure Recovery Services (MARS) agent
B) Microsoft Azure Backup Server (MABS)
C) Azure Site Recovery (ASR)
D) Windows Server Backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct answer. Microsoft Azure Backup Server (MABS) is the purpose-built solution for this. MABS is an on-premises server product (derived from System Center DPM) that provides comprehensive, application-aware backups for Hyper-V, VMware, SQL, SharePoint, and more. It backs up data to a local disk storage pool (Disk-to-Disk) for fast, short-term restores. It then seamlessly integrates with an Azure Recovery Services vault to send its backups to Azure for long-term, off-site retention (Disk-to-Cloud), fulfilling the D2D2C requirement.
Option A is incorrect. The MARS agent is a lightweight agent used to back up files, folders, and system state directly to Azure. It cannot perform application-aware backups of Hyper-V, SQL, or SharePoint.
Option C is incorrect. Azure Site Recovery (ASR) is a disaster recovery (replication) service, not a backup service. It provides a low RPO/RTO but does not provide the long-term, point-in-time retention of a backup solution.
Option D is incorrect. Windows Server Backup is a basic, in-box tool for backing up a single server. It is not an enterprise-scale, centralized, or application-aware solution that integrates with Azure for D2D2C.
Q44. You are planning to migrate an on-premises file server running Windows Server 2008 R2 to a new Windows Server 2022 server. The migration must include all files, folders, NTFS permissions, and share-level permissions. You also need to perform a seamless cutover by migrating the original server’s name and IP address to the new server. Which Windows Server tool is designed for this end-to-end migration?
A) Robocopy
B) Azure Migrate: Server Migration
C) Storage Migration Service (SMS)
D) Azure Data Box
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option C is the correct answer. The Storage Migration Service (SMS), managed via Windows Admin Center, is the purpose-built tool for this exact scenario. It is a three-phase (Inventory, Transfer, Cutover) process. It inventories the old server’s data, shares, and permissions. It transfers the data to the new server. Finally, during the crucial Cutover phase, it shuts down the source server, takes over its identity (server name and IP configuration), and applies it to the destination server, making the migration invisible to end users and applications.
Option A is incorrect. Robocopy is a file-copy utility. While it can move files and NTFS permissions, it cannot migrate share-level permissions, and it has no capability to perform the identity cutover.
Option B is incorrect. Azure Migrate: Server Migration is for “lift-and-shift” migrations of entire VMs to Azure. It is not a file-server-aware tool that can migrate shares and identity from an old OS to a new one.
Option D is incorrect. Azure Data Box is a hardware appliance for offline data transfer of very large datasets to Azure. It is not an orchestrated migration tool for a live file server.
Q45. You need to collect performance counters (like CPU, Memory, and Disk I/O) from your on-premises Windows Servers and analyze them in an Azure Log Analytics workspace. You must use the newest agent and configuration method. Which components should you use?
A) The Log Analytics Agent (MMA) configured from the workspace.
B) The Azure Monitor Agent (AMA) configured by a Data Collection Rule (DCR).
C) The SCOM agent connected to the Log Analytics workspace.
D) Windows Admin Center connected to Azure Monitor.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct answer. The Azure Monitor Agent (AMA) is the new, consolidated agent that is replacing the legacy Log Analytics Agent (MMA). The AMA is configured using Data Collection Rules (DCRs). The DCR is an Azure-based resource that defines what data to collect (e.csv., ‘Processor\% Processor Time’) and where to send it (e.g., a specific Log Analytics workspace). This combination is the modern, strategic solution for collecting monitoring data.
Option A is incorrect. The Log Analytics Agent (MMA) is the legacy agent. While it still functions, it is being deprecated, and the prompt specifically asked for the newest method.
Option C is incorrect. While SCOM can be connected to Log Analytics to forward data, this adds a large layer of on-premises infrastructure (SCOM) and is not the direct, modern way to collect data.
Option D is incorrect. Windows Admin Center can display performance counters for a single server, but it is not the agent responsible for collecting and forwarding that data at scale to Log Analytics.
Q46. You are designing a new Hyper-V failover cluster. The primary requirement is to build a hyper-converged infrastructure (HCI) solution that uses the local, direct-attached NVMe and SSD drives within each cluster node. This technology must aggregate these local drives into a single, resilient, software-defined storage pool that all nodes can access as a Cluster Shared Volume (CSV). Which Windows Server technology meets this requirement?
A) Storage Spaces Direct (S2D)
B) Storage Replica
C) DFS-R (Distributed File System Replication)
D) iSCSI Target Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. This is the textbook definition of Storage Spaces Direct (S2D). S2D is the Microsoft technology (part of Windows Server Datacenter and Azure Stack HCI) that enables hyper-converged infrastructure. It takes the local, direct-attached drives (SAS, SATA, NVMe) in each node of a failover cluster and aggregates them into a single, software-defined storage pool. It then creates resilient volumes (using mirror or parity) from this pool, which are presented as Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs) for use by Hyper-V VMs.
Option B is incorrect. Storage Replica is a technology for replicating existing volumes (block-level) between two servers or clusters, typically for DR or a stretch cluster. It does not create the shared storage pool from local disks.
Option C is incorrect. DFS-R is a file-level replication technology used for keeping file shares in sync. It is not suitable for and not supported for storing running Hyper-V VMs.
Option D is incorrect. The iSCSI Target Server role would turn one server into a SAN, which is the opposite of a hyper-converged (S2D) model, which uses local drives from all nodes.
Q47. Your company wants to implement a disaster recovery (DR) solution for its on-premises VMware virtual machines. The goal is to replicate these VMs to Azure. The solution must support orchestrated failover and, critically, allow for non-disruptive DR testing by failing over into an isolated Azure network. Which Azure service is designed for this?
A) Azure Site Recovery (ASR)
B) Azure Migrate: Server Migration
C) Microsoft Azure Backup Server (MABS)
D) Hyper-V Replica
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. Azure Site Recovery (ASR) is the premier DR-as-a-Service (DRaaS) solution in Azure. It is explicitly designed to replicate on-premises workloads, including VMware VMs, Hyper-V VMs, and physical servers, to Azure. It orchestrates the entire failover and provides the “Test Failover” capability, which spins up a copy of the VM in an isolated Azure VNet for testing, without affecting the production on-premises workload.
Option B is incorrect. Azure Migrate uses ASR technology, but its purpose is one-way migration, not ongoing disaster recovery. ASR is the service you would use for a permanent DR strategy.
Option C is incorrect. MABS is a backup solution. Its RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is hours, whereas ASR’s RTO is minutes. Backup is not the same as DR.
Option D is incorrect. Hyper-V Replica is a technology for replicating a VM from one Hyper-V host to another Hyper-V host. It cannot be used for VMware VMs and cannot replicate directly to Azure.
Q48. You have a large number of on-premises Windows Servers. You need to implement a Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) solution. The solution must assess these on-premises servers for security misconfigurations, compare them against industry benchmarks, and provide a “Secure Score” in the Azure portal. What is the first step to enable this?
A) Onboard the servers to Azure Arc and enable Microsoft Defender for Cloud.
B) Install the Azure Sentinel agent on all servers.
C) Install the Microsoft Defender for Endpoint agent on all servers.
D) Run the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) on each server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. This is a two-part solution. First, to make on-premises servers “visible” to the Azure management plane, you must onboard them using Azure Arc. Once a server is an Arc-enabled resource, it can be managed by Azure services. Second, Microsoft Defender for Cloud is the Azure-native CSPM solution. By enabling Defender for Cloud (formerly Azure Security Center) on the subscription, it will automatically assess all connected resources (including the new Arc-enabled servers) for vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and compliance, then aggregate this into the “Secure Score.”
Option B is incorrect. Azure Sentinel is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) solution. It collects logs to find active threats. It does not perform posture assessment (CSPM).
Option C is incorrect. Microsoft Defender for Endpoint is an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) solution. It detects and responds to active threats (like malware) on the endpoint. It is not a CSPM tool.
Option D is incorrect. MBSA is a legacy, standalone on-premises tool that is no longer supported or developed. It does not integrate with Azure or provide a Secure Score.
Q49. Your company has two datacenters, Site A and Site B, connected by a high-speed, low-latency fiber link. You need to design a single Hyper-V failover cluster that has nodes in both sites. The solution must provide automatic failover of VMs between sites and must guarantee zero data loss (RPO of zero) during a site failure. Which Windows Server technology is required to enable this?
A) Storage Replica configured in Synchronous mode
B) Storage Spaces Direct (S2D)
C) Azure Site Recovery (ASR)
D) Hyper-V Replica
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. This scenario describes a “stretch cluster.” The key enabling technology is Storage Replica. To meet the RPO of zero requirement, you must configure Storage Replica in Synchronous mode. In this mode, a write I/O from an application (like Hyper-V) is not acknowledged as complete until it has been written to the data log on both the primary site and the secondary site. This ensures data is identical on both sides in real-time, allowing for an automatic cluster failover with no data loss.
Option B is incorrect. S2D can be stretched, but it is Storage Replica that provides the replication that makes the stretch possible. S2D by itself does not replicate between two separate clusters or sites.
Option C is incorrect. ASR is a disaster recovery solution, not a high availability (stretch cluster) solution. ASR is asynchronous (RPO is measured in seconds/minutes, not zero) and failover is an orchestrated, non-automatic event.
Option D is incorrect. Hyper-V Replica is also an asynchronous DR technology (minimum RPO of 30 seconds) and is not integrated with Cluster Shared Volumes for automatic failover.
Q50. You have just installed Windows Server 2022 using the “Server Core” installation option. The server has no graphical user interface (GUI). You need to use a modern, browser-based management tool to connect to the server from your Windows 11 desktop to manage its firewall, services, event logs, and local users. Which tool is the recommended, on-premises solution for this?
A) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
B) Windows Admin Center (WAC)
C) The Azure Portal
D) System Center Operations Manager (SCOM)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct answer. Windows Admin Center (WAC) is the modern, browser-based management tool designed to be the successor to traditional MMC snap-ins (like Event Viewer, Services, etc.). It is the recommended tool for managing “headless” Server Core installations because it provides a rich, graphical interface for all common administrative tasks, connecting remotely from a client or gateway.
Option A is incorrect. If you use RDP to connect to a Server Core machine, you will only get a command prompt, as there is no desktop GUI to display.
Option C is incorrect. The Azure Portal can only manage on-premises servers if they are first onboarded to Azure Arc. WAC is the direct, on-premises management tool.
Option D is incorrect. SCOM is an enterprise monitoring and alerting platform. It is not a hands-on, real-time management tool for configuring a single server’s services or firewall.
Q51. You need to enhance the security of your on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). You are most concerned with detecting advanced identity-based attacks, such as Pass-the-Ticket, Golden Ticket, and lateral movement attempts that use domain credentials. Which Microsoft Defender product is specifically designed to detect these on-premises AD threats?
A) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
B) Microsoft Defender for Identity
C) Microsoft Defender for Cloud
D) Azure AD Identity Protection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct answer. Microsoft Defender for Identity (MDI) is the Microsoft security solution built specifically for this purpose. It works by installing lightweight sensors on your on-premises domain controllers. These sensors monitor AD authentication traffic (Kerberos, NTLM) in real-time. This data is sent to the MDI cloud service, which uses behavioral analytics and heuristics to detect anomalous activity and known attack patterns like Pass-the-Ticket, skeleton key, malicious replication, and more.
Option A is incorrect. Defender for Endpoint is an EDR solution that protects the endpoint (the server or client). While it can contribute signals, it does not have the deep Active Directory protocol inspection that MDI does.
Option C is incorrect. Defender for Cloud is a CSPM (posture management) and CWP (workload protection) solution. It is not an identity threat detection tool.
Option D is incorrect. Azure AD Identity Protection is a powerful tool for detecting threats in Azure Active Directory (cloud-based identities). It has no visibility into your on-premises AD DS Kerberos traffic.
Q52. You are in the planning phase of migrating 100 on-premises Hyper-V virtual machines to Azure. Before you begin the migration, you must perform a detailed assessment. A key requirement is to discover the network dependencies of your multi-tier applications without installing agents on the VMs. You need to know which VMs are communicating with each other and on which ports. Which tool should you use?
A) Azure Migrate: Server Assessment
B) Azure Network Watcher
C) Windows Admin Center (WAC)
D) Azure Site Recovery (ASR)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. The Azure Migrate: Server Assessment tool is designed for this exact pre-migration discovery and planning. When you deploy the Azure Migrate appliance for Hyper-V, you can enable agentless dependency analysis. This feature non-invasively captures and analyzes network connection data from your Hyper-V hosts to build a map of which servers are communicating, on which TCP ports, and even which processes are involved. This is crucial for correctly “grouping” multi-tier applications for migration.
Option B is incorrect. Azure Network Watcher is a tool for monitoring, diagnosing, and gaining insights into your Azure network infrastructure. It does not have visibility into your on-premises Hyper-V environment.
Option C is incorrect. WAC is a server management tool. It does not perform large-scale migration assessments or dependency mapping.
Option D is incorrect. ASR is the replication engine often used for the migration itself. It is not the assessment tool. You use Server Assessment (Option A) first to plan, and then you use the Server Migration tool (which leverages ASR) to move the VMs.
Q53. You need to back up files and folders from a single, on-premises Windows Server 2016. You do not have an on-premises backup infrastructure like MABS or DPM. You want to back up this data directly to an Azure Recovery Services vault for off-site retention. The backup must also include the server’s System State. Which agent should you install?
A) The Microsoft Azure Recovery Services (MARS) agent
B) The Microsoft Azure Backup Server (MABS) agent
C) The Azure Site Recovery (ASR) mobility service
D) The Azure Monitor Agent (AMA)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. The MARS agent is the lightweight, “direct-to-cloud” backup solution for on-premises Windows Servers. It is designed for exactly this scenario: backing up files, folders, and System State from a server directly to an Azure Recovery Services vault without needing any on-premises backup server infrastructure.
Option B is incorrect. MABS is a full, on-premises server installation. You install MABS on a server, and it then backs up other servers (D2D2C). You do not install a “MABS agent” for direct-to-cloud backup.
Option C is incorrect. The ASR mobility service is a replication agent used for disaster recovery (replicating the entire server). It is not a backup agent.
Option D is incorrect. The Azure Monitor Agent (AMA) is a monitoring agent used for collecting logs and performance metrics. It is not a backup agent.
Q54. You have a 4-node Hyper-V failover cluster on-premises. You need to automate the process of applying Windows updates to all nodes in the cluster. The solution must ensure that there is no downtime for the virtual machines. It should patch one node at a time, drain the roles (VMs) from it, apply the updates, reboot, and then move to the next node. Which Windows Server feature is designed for this?
A) Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU)
B) Azure Automation Update Management
C) Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
D) A GPO with scheduled update times
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) is a feature built into Windows Server Failover Clustering. It is designed to do exactly what the question describes: orchestrate the patching of cluster nodes, one at a time. It automatically places a node into “maintenance mode,” drains the cluster roles (like VMs) off it to other nodes, installs the updates, reboots the node, brings it back into the cluster, and then repeats the process for the next node. This ensures the clustered services remain highly available during the entire patching cycle.
Option B is incorrect. Azure Update Management can deploy updates to the cluster nodes, but it is not “cluster-aware” by default. It would patch all nodes at once (or in a non-orchestrated way) unless you manually configured complex pre/post scripts. CAU is the native, cluster-aware solution.
Option C is incorrect. WSUS is a repository and approval system for updates. It does not orchestrate the installation on a cluster in a high-availability-aware manner.
Option D is incorrect. A GPO would schedule updates to apply at the same time on all servers, which would cause an outage as all cluster nodes rebooted simultaneously.
Q55. You have 50 on-premises servers that are all onboarded as Azure Arc-enabled servers. You need to run a one-time PowerShell script on all 50 servers to configure a specific registry key. How can you execute this script on all servers from the Azure portal?
A) Use the Custom Script Extension
B) Create an Azure Automation runbook
C) Deploy an Azure Policy guest configuration
D) Use the “Run command” feature in Windows Admin Center
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer. One of the key benefits of Azure Arc is the ability to use Azure VM extensions. The Custom Script Extension is designed for this exact purpose. You can upload your PowerShell (or bash) script to Azure Storage or provide it inline, then deploy the extension to your Arc-enabled servers (either individually or as a group). Azure Arc will then execute the script on each machine with local system privileges. This is ideal for one-time configuration tasks.
Option B is incorrect. An Azure Automation runbook (using a Hybrid Runbook Worker) is another way to run scripts, but it’s generally better for recurring, scheduled, or complex automation. For a one-time script execution, the Custom Script Extension is the more direct and simpler tool.
Option C is incorrect. An Azure Policy guest configuration is for auditing or enforcing a state. While you could enforce the registry key’s state, it’s not the right tool for just running a script one time.
Option D is incorrect. Windows Admin Center is a server-by-server (or cluster) management tool. You cannot use it to run a command against 50 disparate servers at once from the Azure portal.
Q56. You are designing a new four-node Storage Spaces Direct (S2D) cluster. You need to provision a new volume for a workload that has mixed I/O (both frequent, small, random writes and large, sequential reads/writes). You want to balance write performance with storage efficiency. Which S2D resiliency type provides the best balance by using both a “fast” tier and a “capacity” tier?
A) Three-way mirror
B) Dual parity
C) Mirror-accelerated parity
D) Simple (no resiliency)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option C is the correct answer. Mirror-accelerated parity is the resiliency type designed for this “best of both worlds” scenario. It creates a single volume that is internally divided into two tiers. A smaller “mirror” tier (e.g., 20% of the volume) services all incoming writes at high speed (as mirrors are fast for writes). Then, in the background, S2D intelligently rotates data from the mirror tier to the more space-efficient “parity” tier. This gives you the fast write performance of a mirror with the high storage efficiency of parity, all in one volume.
Option A is incorrect. A three-way mirror provides excellent performance but is very inefficient in terms of storage (33% efficiency).
Option B is incorrect. Dual parity is very efficient (e.g., 80% efficiency) but has poor performance for small, random writes.
Option D is incorrect. A simple volume has no resiliency and should not be used for production workloads, as any drive failure results in data loss.
Q57. You are configuring Azure Site Recovery (ASR) to replicate your on-premises Hyper-V VMs to Azure. Your Hyper-V hosts are not managed by System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM). What components must be installed on your on-premises Hyper-V hosts to enable replication?
A) The ASR Configuration Server and Process Server
B) The Azure Site Recovery provider and the Recovery Services agent
C) The Azure Monitor Agent (AMA)
D) The Microsoft Azure Backup Server (MABS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct answer. For a standalone (non-SCVMM) Hyper-V environment, the architecture is simpler than for VMware. You must install two pieces of software on each Hyper-V host you want to replicate from: 1) The Azure Site Recovery provider, which coordinates the replication, and 2) The Microsoft Azure Recovery Services agent (MARS agent), which handles the data movement to the Recovery Services vault.
Option A is incorrect. The Configuration Server and Process Server are components used for replicating VMware or physical servers. They are not required for a Hyper-V-to-Azure replication.
Option C is incorrect. The Azure Monitor Agent is for collecting monitoring data (logs/metrics) and is unrelated to ASR.
Option D is incorrect. MABS is a backup server and is not part of the ASR replication workflow.
Q58. You are in the Azure Log Analytics query editor. You need to write a Kusto Query Language (KQL) query that looks at the Event table, counts the number of occurrences for each EventID, and shows the top 10 most common events. Which query is correct?
A) SELECT TOP 10 EventID, COUNT(*) FROM Event GROUP BY EventID
B) Event | summarize count() by EventID | order by count_ desc | top 10
C) Get-Event -Table Event | Group EventID | Sort count | Select -First 10
D) Event | count by EventID | limit 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is the correct KQL syntax for identifying the ten most common event IDs in Azure Monitor logs using Kusto Query Language, which represents the native query language for Azure Monitor, Azure Sentinel, Application Insights, and other Azure data analytics services built on the Azure Data Explorer engine. The query begins with Event, which specifies the target table containing Windows event log data collected from monitored systems through Log Analytics agents or Azure Monitor data collection rules. The pipe operator (|) passes query results from one operation to the next in a sequential processing pipeline, enabling composition of complex analytical queries through chained transformations and aggregations applied progressively to datasets. The summarize count() by EventID operator performs aggregation equivalent to SQL’s GROUP BY functionality, creating a result set containing one row per unique EventID value along with a computed column (automatically named count_ by default) that contains the count of events matching each EventID, effectively calculating how many times each event identifier appears in the source data. The subsequent | order by count_ desc operation sorts the aggregated results in descending order based on the count column, positioning the most frequently occurring event IDs at the top of the result set and least common events toward the bottom. Finally, | top 10 limits the output to only the first ten rows from the sorted result set, effectively returning the ten event IDs that appear most frequently in the Event table, providing security analysts or system administrators with immediate visibility into the most common events occurring across monitored infrastructure.
Option A incorrectly presents T-SQL (Transact-SQL) syntax using SELECT, COUNT, FROM, GROUP BY, ORDER BY, and TOP keywords that characterize Microsoft SQL Server’s relational database query language, but Azure Monitor Log Analytics and Azure Sentinel specifically require KQL rather than T-SQL for querying telemetry data, making this syntactically invalid for the target platform despite expressing conceptually equivalent logic that would work in SQL Server database contexts. Option C mistakenly provides PowerShell syntax using cmdlets like Get-Event with pipeline operators and Select-Object that represent Windows PowerShell’s object-oriented scripting approach for querying local event logs or manipulating objects within PowerShell sessions, but PowerShell commands cannot directly query Azure Monitor workspaces or Log Analytics tables, which require either KQL queries submitted through Azure portal interfaces, REST API calls, or PowerShell modules that ultimately construct and submit KQL queries rather than using native PowerShell cmdlet syntax. Option D presents partially correct KQL syntax with count by EventID performing valid aggregation, but the limit 10 operator without preceding sort operations would return an arbitrary ten rows from the aggregated results based on internal data ordering rather than specifically selecting the ten most common event IDs, failing to achieve the stated objective of identifying the highest-frequency events since limit applies to whatever row order exists at that point in the query pipeline without regard to count values unless explicit sorting precedes the limit operation. Therefore, Option B represents the correct, complete, and properly structured KQL query that accurately identifies the ten most frequently occurring event IDs through appropriate aggregation, sorting, and result limiting operations using KQL’s native syntax and operators.
Q59. You need to lock down a Windows Server 2022 that acts as a secure bastion host. You must implement a policy that blocks all executable files from running by default, and only allows executables that are on a pre-approved list (e.g., powershell.exe, mstsc.exe) and have been signed by a trusted publisher. Which Windows Server security feature is designed to enforce this application whitelisting policy?
A) Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC)
B) Windows Defender Exploit Guard
C) A Network Security Group (NSG)
D) BitLocker Drive Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer because Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) represents the modern, robust, kernel-level application whitelisting and code integrity enforcement mechanism built directly into Windows Server operating systems, specifically architected to provide the most secure method for restricting executable code to only explicitly trusted applications while blocking all unauthorized or unapproved software from executing. WDAC operates through XML-based policy files that administrators create to define comprehensive trust criteria including publisher-based rules that permit all executables digitally signed by specific trusted publishers like Microsoft, Adobe, or internal corporate code signing certificates; file hash-based rules that explicitly allow specific application versions identified by cryptographic hash values; path-based rules permitting applications installed in designated secure directories; and combining multiple rule types to create layered security policies balancing security strictness with operational flexibility. When WDAC policies are enforced at the kernel level, the Windows operating system continuously validates every executable, script, library, and driver attempting to load or execute against the defined policy, blocking any code that fails trust validation before it can run, creating a powerful defense-in-depth mechanism against malware, ransomware, unauthorized software installations, and advanced persistent threats that rely on executing malicious code on compromised systems. This application control approach fundamentally inverts traditional security models from reactive blacklisting that attempts to identify and block known malicious software to proactive whitelisting that permits only explicitly approved applications, dramatically reducing attack surface and preventing zero-day exploits from executing even when traditional signature-based antivirus solutions lack detection signatures.
Option B incorrectly identifies Windows Defender Exploit Guard as an application whitelisting solution, when Exploit Guard actually comprises a suite of exploit mitigation and attack surface reduction features including controlled folder access that protects sensitive directories from ransomware modifications, network protection that blocks connections to malicious domains and IP addresses, exploit protection that applies system-level and per-application mitigation techniques like Data Execution Prevention (DEP) and Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR), and attack surface reduction rules that block specific behaviors commonly associated with malware such as Office macros launching executables or JavaScript executing suspicious content, but Exploit Guard does not enforce comprehensive application whitelisting policies that strictly control which executables are permitted to run across the entire operating system. Option C fundamentally misunderstands Network Security Groups (NSGs), which function as stateful network firewalls operating at OSI layers 3 and 4 to control inbound and outbound network traffic based on source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, and protocols, providing network segmentation and perimeter security for virtual machines in cloud environments like Azure but possessing absolutely no visibility into or control over which applications, executables, scripts, or processes run within the operating system of protected servers, as NSGs operate exclusively at the network layer rather than the application or operating system layers. Option D incorrectly suggests BitLocker as an application control mechanism, when BitLocker actually implements full-volume encryption for protecting data at rest by encrypting entire hard drives or specific volumes using strong cryptographic algorithms, ensuring that if physical storage media is stolen, removed, or accessed outside the authorized system the encrypted data remains protected and inaccessible without proper decryption keys, but BitLocker provides no functionality whatsoever for controlling, restricting, or validating which applications are permitted to execute on the operating system since encryption and application execution control address entirely different security domains within defense-in-depth architectures. Therefore, Windows Defender Application Control represents the definitive, purpose-built, and most secure Windows Server feature specifically designed for implementing strict application whitelisting policies that ensure only approved, trusted code executes on protected systems.
Q60. You are using the Storage Migration Service (SMS) to migrate file servers. What is the recommended, modern management tool used to orchestrate the entire SMS workflow, including inventory, transfer, and cutover?
A) Windows Admin Center (WAC)
B) Failover Cluster Manager
C) The Azure Migrate portal
D) System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer because the Storage Migration Service is specifically designed to be orchestrated and managed through Windows Admin Center (WAC), which provides a comprehensive, intuitive graphical interface featuring a dedicated extension that systematically guides administrators through the complete three-phase migration process encompassing inventory discovery, data transfer, and cutover operations. WAC delivers a streamlined user experience where administrators connect to a designated WAC gateway appliance, register both source legacy file servers and destination target servers within the migration project, and leverage the graphical interface to inventory existing file shares, permissions, security settings, and data volumes on source systems, configure transfer jobs specifying which shares and data should migrate, monitor real-time transfer progress with detailed status updates and error notifications, validate data integrity after transfers complete, and ultimately perform the cutover operation that transitions client access from source to destination servers while preserving share names, permissions, and access patterns to ensure transparent migration from end-user perspectives. While PowerShell cmdlets exist for programmatic control and automation scenarios requiring scripting capabilities or integration with existing automation frameworks, WAC represents the recommended and officially supported GUI-based management tool specifically architected for Storage Migration Service operations, providing enhanced visualization, simplified workflow navigation, integrated troubleshooting capabilities, and reduced operational complexity compared to command-line alternatives.
Option B incorrectly identifies Failover Cluster Manager as the appropriate tool, when Failover Cluster Manager actually serves the entirely different purpose of configuring, monitoring, and managing Windows Server Failover Clusters including cluster nodes, shared storage resources, cluster roles, quorum configurations, and high availability settings for clustered applications and services, providing no functionality whatsoever for file server migration operations, data transfer orchestration, or share cutover processes that characterize Storage Migration Service workflows. Option C misunderstands the Azure Migrate portal’s scope, as Azure Migrate specifically focuses on assessing on-premises workloads for cloud migration readiness, orchestrating migrations of virtual machines, databases, and applications to Azure cloud services, and providing dependency mapping and cost estimation for cloud migration planning, whereas Storage Migration Service fundamentally operates as an on-premises or hybrid tool designed explicitly for migrating file server workloads between Windows Server instances regardless of whether those servers reside in on-premises datacenters, private clouds, hosted environments, or even Azure infrastructure-as-a-service deployments where the migration occurs between Windows Server VMs rather than to Azure native storage services. Option D incorrectly suggests System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM), which serves as Microsoft’s enterprise virtualization management platform for orchestrating Hyper-V and VMware infrastructure including host server provisioning, virtual machine lifecycle management, virtual network configuration, and storage fabric administration, but SCVMM provides no capabilities for file server migration, share-level data transfer, or cutover operations that preserve SMB share accessibility and security contexts during server consolidation or hardware refresh projects. Therefore, Windows Admin Center represents the definitive, purpose-built management interface for Storage Migration Service operations in Windows Server environments
