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Question 81:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 audit log?
A) Recording user and admin activities for compliance and investigation
B) Editing photos
C) Playing games
D) Streaming music
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations must track activities within their systems for compliance requirements, security investigations, and understanding what actions occurred during incidents or policy violations.
Option A is correct as Microsoft 365 audit log records user and administrator activities across Microsoft 365 services for compliance and investigation purposes. The audit log captures activities including file access, sharing changes, mailbox access, user account modifications, security setting changes, Teams activities, SharePoint operations, and administrative actions. Administrators can search audit logs for specific users, activities, date ranges, or services to investigate security incidents, demonstrate compliance, understand what happened during breaches, track privileged operations, and provide evidence for legal matters. Audit logs retain data based on license types, with some plans retaining logs for 90 days and others for up to one year or longer. Organizations use audit logs to meet regulatory requirements, support eDiscovery investigations, and maintain accountability for system access.
Option B is incorrect as editing photos requires image manipulation applications. The audit log records activities rather than providing content creation or editing capabilities. Security logging and photo editing represent entirely different technical functions.
Option C is incorrect because playing games requires gaming applications or platforms. The audit log is a security and compliance feature rather than an entertainment platform. These represent fundamentally different software categories.
Option D is incorrect as streaming music requires media player applications or music streaming services. The audit log records system activities for compliance rather than providing media consumption capabilities. Security logging and entertainment represent completely different purposes.
Question 82:
Which Microsoft 365 plan includes unlimited cloud storage?
A) Microsoft 365 Business Basic
B) Microsoft 365 E3 with qualifying conditions
C) Microsoft 365 F3
D) Office 365 E1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage allocations vary significantly across Microsoft 365 plans, and understanding storage limits helps organizations budget for storage needs and select appropriate licensing for users with extensive storage requirements.
Option A is incorrect as Microsoft 365 Business Basic provides 1 TB of OneDrive storage per user, which is generous but not unlimited. Business plans offer defined storage allocations rather than unlimited capacity. Organizations requiring more storage must purchase additional capacity or use different licensing.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 E3 can provide unlimited cloud storage under specific conditions. Organizations with five or more E3 licenses receive unlimited OneDrive storage per user, though Microsoft may require requests for allocations exceeding initial limits. Previously, Microsoft offered truly unlimited storage but implemented practical limits due to abuse. Current E3 subscribers receive substantial storage allocations with ability to request increases as needed. Organizations with fewer than five E3 users receive 1 TB per user plus additional shared storage. The unlimited storage capability makes E3 attractive for organizations with users managing extensive file collections.
Option C is incorrect as Microsoft 365 F3 provides 2 GB of OneDrive storage per user, which is minimal reflecting the frontline worker focus on mobile access rather than extensive file storage. F3 users typically access rather than store large amounts of content.
Option D is incorrect because Office 365 E1 provides 1 TB of OneDrive storage per user, not unlimited storage. While 1 TB is substantial, it represents a defined limit rather than unlimited capacity. Organizations requiring more storage would need to consider E3 or E5 plans.
Question 83:
What is Microsoft Defender for Endpoint primarily used for?
A) Email encryption
B) Endpoint protection and threat detection on devices
C) Creating spreadsheets
D) Video conferencing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Endpoints including laptops, desktops, and servers represent major security risks as they connect to networks and access sensitive data, requiring comprehensive protection beyond basic antivirus to detect and respond to sophisticated threats.
Option A is incorrect as email encryption is provided by Exchange Online, Azure Information Protection, and message encryption features. While Defender for Endpoint protects devices that access email, it does not specifically provide email encryption. Encryption and endpoint protection serve complementary but distinct security purposes.
Option B is correct as Microsoft Defender for Endpoint provides comprehensive endpoint protection and threat detection for Windows, macOS, Linux, iOS, and Android devices. Defender for Endpoint includes next-generation antivirus and anti-malware protection, attack surface reduction limiting exposure to threats, endpoint detection and response identifying suspicious behaviors and post-breach activities, automated investigation and remediation responding to threats automatically, and threat and vulnerability management identifying security weaknesses. The service uses behavioral analysis and cloud intelligence to detect sophisticated attacks including fileless malware and living-off-the-land techniques. Security teams use central dashboards to investigate threats, respond to incidents, and hunt for advanced threats across their device fleet.
Option C is incorrect because creating spreadsheets is accomplished through Microsoft Excel. Defender for Endpoint protects devices rather than providing productivity applications. Security protection and content creation represent different software categories.
Option D is incorrect as video conferencing is provided by Microsoft Teams. While Defender for Endpoint protects devices where Teams runs, it does not provide communication capabilities. Endpoint security and collaboration tools serve different purposes.
Question 84:
Which Microsoft 365 feature allows automatic classification and protection of documents containing sensitive information?
A) Manual classification only
B) Sensitivity labels with auto-labeling policies
C) File extensions
D) Folder permissions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations with large document volumes cannot rely solely on manual classification, requiring automated methods that detect sensitive content and apply appropriate protection consistently without user intervention.
Option A suggesting manual classification only is incorrect and represents a limitation rather than an automatic feature. While manual classification is important, relying solely on users to classify documents results in inconsistent protection and missed classifications. Automation improves consistency and reduces reliance on user diligence.
Option B is correct as sensitivity labels with auto-labeling policies provide automatic classification and protection of documents containing sensitive information. Auto-labeling uses machine learning and sensitive information types to detect content like credit card numbers, social security numbers, health records, financial data, or custom-defined sensitive patterns. When detected, auto-labeling automatically applies appropriate sensitivity labels which trigger protection actions including encryption, access restrictions, watermarks, and headers. Auto-labeling works across SharePoint, OneDrive, Exchange, and Office applications, providing consistent protection regardless of where sensitive content appears. Organizations configure auto-labeling policies defining what triggers automatic labeling and what labels to apply, ensuring sensitive information receives appropriate protection without requiring users to remember classification requirements.
Option C refers to file extensions identifying file types like PDF or DOCX but not classifying content based on sensitivity. File extensions indicate format rather than content sensitivity and cannot determine whether documents contain confidential information requiring protection.
Option D represents folder permissions controlling access based on file location. While useful for basic security, folder permissions do not classify content based on what documents contain and do not follow content when files move between locations. Permission-based protection is less sophisticated than content-based classification.
Question 85:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 privileged access management?
A) Managing parking spaces
B) Controlling and monitoring administrative access to sensitive operations
C) Scheduling vacations
D) Ordering office supplies
Answer: B
Explanation:
Administrative accounts represent extreme security risks as they can access sensitive data, change configurations, and cause widespread damage if compromised or misused, requiring additional controls beyond standard access management.
Option A is incorrect and absurd as managing parking spaces involves facilities management systems. Privileged access management focuses on controlling high-risk administrative operations rather than physical space allocation. These represent completely unrelated organizational functions.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 privileged access management provides granular controls over administrative tasks requiring elevated permissions. Instead of granting administrators persistent elevated access, privileged access management requires admins to request temporary access for specific sensitive operations like modifying security settings, accessing customer data, or changing retention policies. Requests follow approval workflows where designated approvers evaluate justifications before granting time-limited access. All privileged operations are logged for auditing. This just-in-time access model reduces risk windows, prevents standing administrative privileges that might be compromised, requires justification for sensitive operations, and creates accountability through approval processes and comprehensive logging. Organizations use privileged access management to meet compliance requirements, reduce insider threat risks, and implement least-privilege principles for administrative operations.
Option C is incorrect as scheduling vacations involves human resources or time-off management systems. Privileged access management controls high-risk administrative operations rather than employee leave management. These serve different organizational purposes.
Option D is incorrect because ordering office supplies involves procurement and inventory management systems. Privileged access management protects sensitive IT operations rather than managing supply chain activities. These represent unrelated business functions.
Question 86:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides intelligent email filtering and protection?
A) OneDrive for Business
B) Exchange Online Protection
C) SharePoint Online
D) Microsoft Planner
Answer: B
Explanation:
Email remains the primary attack vector for phishing, malware, and business email compromise, requiring sophisticated filtering that goes beyond simple spam blocking to detect advanced threats.
Option A refers to OneDrive for Business providing personal cloud storage. While OneDrive scans stored files for malware, it does not provide email filtering or protection. OneDrive and email protection serve different security purposes within Microsoft 365.
Option B is correct as Exchange Online Protection provides intelligent email filtering and protection for Exchange Online mailboxes. EOP uses multiple detection engines and techniques including connection filtering blocking suspicious IP addresses, anti-spam filtering using reputation-based and content-based detection with machine learning, anti-malware scanning using multiple engines for comprehensive detection, policy filtering enforcing organizational rules, and spoof intelligence detecting impersonation attempts. EOP updates continuously based on Microsoft’s global threat intelligence tracking emerging threats across millions of mailboxes. Administrators configure protection policies, manage quarantined messages, review protection reports, and customize allowed or blocked senders. EOP provides baseline protection automatically for all Exchange Online customers without requiring configuration.
Option C represents SharePoint Online for content management and collaboration. While SharePoint protects documents through permissions and malware scanning, it does not provide email filtering. SharePoint and Exchange serve different collaboration purposes with separate protection mechanisms.
Option D refers to Microsoft Planner for task management. Planner organizes work and projects but does not provide any email or security capabilities. Task management and email protection represent entirely different application categories.
Question 87:
What is the maximum number of private channels that can be created in a Microsoft Teams team?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
Answer: C
Explanation:
Private channels provide secure spaces within teams for confidential discussions and content, and understanding limits helps organizations structure teams appropriately when privacy requirements exist.
Option A suggesting 10 private channels is too restrictive and below the actual limit. While organizations should use private channels judiciously for truly confidential matters, Microsoft provides higher limits to accommodate legitimate privacy needs within larger teams.
Option B indicating 20 private channels is closer but still below the actual maximum. Microsoft has established limits that balance flexibility for privacy requirements against performance and usability considerations.
Option C is correct as Microsoft Teams supports up to 30 private channels per team. Private channels restrict access to subsets of team members, creating secure spaces for confidential projects, sensitive discussions, or restricted information within the broader team structure. Each private channel includes its own SharePoint site collection for storing files separately from the main team site. While private channels provide necessary privacy, excessive private channels fragment team communication and reduce collaboration benefits. Organizations should use private channels selectively for genuinely confidential matters while keeping most collaboration in standard channels accessible to all team members.
Option D suggesting 50 private channels exceeds the actual limit. While this would provide more flexibility, such large numbers of private channels within a single team would indicate structural problems suggesting the need for separate teams rather than extensive privacy segregation within one team.
Question 88:
Which Microsoft 365 feature helps prevent accidental data loss through policy-based controls?
A) Data Loss Prevention
B) Recycle Bin
C) Version history
D) Audit logging
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations must prevent sensitive information from leaving their control through accidental or intentional sharing, requiring automated policies that detect and block inappropriate data transfers across communication channels.
Option A is correct as Data Loss Prevention provides policy-based controls preventing accidental or intentional data loss by detecting sensitive information in content and blocking or restricting sharing. DLP policies scan emails, documents, Teams messages, and other content for sensitive information like credit card numbers, social security numbers, health records, or custom-defined sensitive data. When policy violations are detected, DLP can block sending, encrypt content, require business justification, show policy tips educating users, or alert administrators. DLP policies apply across Exchange, SharePoint, OneDrive, Teams, and Endpoint, providing consistent protection regardless of how users attempt to share information. Organizations configure DLP policies matching regulatory requirements like GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS and customize policies for specific business needs preventing intellectual property theft and data breaches.
Option B refers to Recycle Bin which temporarily stores deleted files allowing recovery before permanent deletion. While Recycle Bin prevents data loss from accidental deletion, it does not prevent data loss through inappropriate sharing or transmission. Recycle Bin addresses deletion rather than leakage.
Option C represents version history tracking changes to documents over time. While version history prevents data loss from unwanted modifications allowing restoration of previous versions, it does not prevent sensitive information from being shared inappropriately with unauthorized parties.
Option D refers to audit logging which records activities for investigation and compliance. While audit logs help understand what happened after data loss incidents, they do not prevent data loss. Audit logs provide visibility after events rather than blocking inappropriate actions proactively.
Question 89:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 sensitivity labels?
A) Organizing files by color
B) Classifying and protecting content based on sensitivity
C) Scheduling meetings
D) Managing printer settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations handle content with varying sensitivity levels requiring different protection levels, and consistent classification enables appropriate protection, access controls, and handling procedures.
Option A is incorrect as organizing files by color involves visual management that might be implemented in file systems but is not the purpose of sensitivity labels. While labels might display with different colors visually, their purpose is classification and protection rather than color-based organization.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 sensitivity labels classify and protect content based on sensitivity levels like Public, Internal, Confidential, or Highly Confidential. When users apply sensitivity labels to documents or emails, labels enforce protection actions including encryption restricting access to authorized users, access restrictions preventing copying or forwarding, watermarks indicating sensitivity, content marking adding headers or footers, and protection that follows content as it moves. Labels are consistent across Office applications, Outlook, Teams, SharePoint, and OneDrive providing uniform classification. Organizations configure labels matching their classification taxonomy and protection requirements. Users can apply labels manually, or auto-labeling can apply labels automatically based on sensitive content detection. Sensitivity labels support compliance requirements, protect intellectual property, prevent data leakage, and ensure appropriate content handling.
Option C is incorrect because scheduling meetings involves Outlook calendar and Teams scheduling features. Sensitivity labels classify content rather than managing calendars or schedules. These serve completely different purposes within Microsoft 365.
Option D is incorrect as managing printer settings involves device management and print management systems. Sensitivity labels protect digital content rather than configuring physical printing devices. Content protection and printer management represent different IT functions.
Question 90:
Which Microsoft 365 tool helps organizations analyze and visualize data from multiple sources?
A) Microsoft Word
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Power BI
D) Microsoft Outlook
Answer: C
Explanation:
Organizations accumulate data across multiple systems requiring tools that can connect to diverse data sources, transform data, and create interactive visualizations enabling data-driven decision making.
Option A refers to Microsoft Word, which is a word processing application for creating documents. While Word can display simple tables and charts, it is not designed for data analysis or connecting to multiple data sources. Word focuses on document creation rather than business intelligence.
Option B represents Microsoft Excel, which provides spreadsheet capabilities including calculations, charts, and PivotTables for data analysis. While Excel is powerful for data analysis and many organizations use it extensively for reporting, Power BI provides more sophisticated data integration, transformation, and visualization capabilities designed specifically for business intelligence scenarios.
Option C is correct as Power BI is specifically designed to analyze and visualize data from multiple sources creating interactive reports and dashboards. Power BI connects to hundreds of data sources including Microsoft 365 services, SQL databases, cloud services, files, and web services. Users transform and model data, create relationships between data sources, and build visualizations including charts, graphs, maps, and tables. Reports update automatically as underlying data changes, support drill-down for detailed analysis, and enable natural language queries. Power BI includes Power BI Desktop for report authoring, Power BI Service for sharing and collaboration, and Power BI Mobile for accessing reports on devices. Organizations use Power BI for executive dashboards, operational reporting, sales analytics, financial analysis, and data exploration.
Option D refers to Microsoft Outlook for email and calendar management. Outlook does not provide data analysis or visualization capabilities. While Outlook data might be analyzed through Power BI, Outlook itself is a communication tool rather than an analytics platform.
Question 91:
What is Microsoft 365 Advanced Audit primarily used for?
A) Editing videos
B) Providing extended audit log retention and additional audit events
C) Playing music
D) Creating websites
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations with stringent compliance requirements or facing sophisticated threats need extended audit capabilities beyond standard logging including longer retention and additional events for comprehensive security monitoring.
Option A is incorrect as editing videos requires video editing applications. Advanced Audit provides enhanced logging and compliance capabilities rather than content creation or editing tools. Security auditing and video production represent completely different technical domains.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 Advanced Audit provides extended audit log retention and captures additional audit events beyond standard auditing. Advanced Audit includes longer retention periods up to one year or ten years with add-ons compared to 90 days for standard audit, additional crucial events like mailbox items accessed, searches performed, and mail send operations, intelligent insights highlighting important events, higher bandwidth for faster audit log access through APIs, and access to audit events earlier. Organizations use Advanced Audit to meet regulatory requirements demanding extended log retention, investigate sophisticated security incidents requiring detailed historical data, comply with legal holds requiring long-term evidence preservation, and gain visibility into additional activities not captured by standard auditing.
Option C is incorrect because playing music requires media player applications or streaming services. Advanced Audit provides compliance and security capabilities rather than entertainment functions. These represent fundamentally different software categories.
Option D is incorrect as creating websites involves web development tools, content management systems like SharePoint, or website builders. Advanced Audit enhances logging and compliance rather than providing website creation capabilities. Security auditing and web development serve entirely different purposes.
Question 92:
Which Microsoft 365 service allows organizations to create automated incident response workflows?
A) Power Automate
B) Microsoft Word
C) Microsoft Excel
D) Microsoft Outlook
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security incidents require rapid response with consistent procedures, and automation ensures immediate action, reduces response times, and eliminates manual steps that might be forgotten during high-pressure incidents.
Option A is correct as Power Automate enables organizations to create automated incident response workflows that trigger actions based on security events or alerts. Organizations can build flows that automatically respond to threats detected by Microsoft Defender, create tickets in IT service management systems, notify security teams through Teams or email, collect additional information from affected systems, isolate compromised devices, disable user accounts showing suspicious behavior, and document incident details. Power Automate connects Microsoft 365 security services with other systems enabling end-to-end incident response automation. Security teams use Power Automate to reduce response times, ensure consistent incident handling, scale security operations, and free analysts from repetitive tasks allowing focus on complex investigations.
Option B refers to Microsoft Word for creating documents. While incident response procedures might be documented in Word, the application does not automate workflows or trigger actions based on security events. Word is a content creation tool rather than an automation platform.
Option C represents Microsoft Excel for spreadsheet calculations and data analysis. While security teams might track incidents in Excel, the application does not automate incident response workflows or integrate with security tools for triggered actions. Excel provides analysis rather than workflow automation.
Option D refers to Microsoft Outlook for email and calendar management. While incident notifications might be sent through Outlook, the application itself does not create automated incident response workflows or orchestrate security actions. Outlook handles communication rather than security orchestration.
Question 93:
What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps?
A) Weather forecasting
B) Discovering, monitoring, and protecting cloud application usage
C) Photo editing
D) Music production
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations use hundreds of cloud applications creating shadow IT risks, data leakage concerns, and compliance challenges requiring visibility and control over cloud application ecosystem beyond Microsoft 365.
Option A is incorrect and nonsensical as weather forecasting requires meteorological systems. The name Defender for Cloud Apps refers to protecting cloud applications, not weather clouds. This represents a fundamental misunderstanding of cloud computing terminology.
Option B is correct as Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps provides comprehensive visibility and control over cloud application usage through Cloud Access Security Broker capabilities. The service discovers shadow IT by identifying which cloud applications employees use including unsanctioned apps, assesses cloud application risk scores evaluating security and compliance, monitors user activities across cloud applications detecting anomalous behaviors, enforces session policies controlling real-time access and actions within cloud apps, protects sensitive data through data loss prevention policies spanning multiple cloud services, detects threats including compromised accounts and insider risks, and integrates with Conditional Access for enforcing access policies. Organizations use Defender for Cloud Apps to gain visibility into cloud usage, prevent data leakage to unauthorized applications, detect security threats, and enforce security policies across sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud applications.
Option C is incorrect as photo editing requires image manipulation applications. Defender for Cloud Apps monitors and secures cloud application usage rather than editing visual content. Security monitoring and photo editing represent completely unrelated capabilities.
Option D is incorrect because music production requires audio editing and production software. Defender for Cloud Apps focuses on security and compliance for cloud applications rather than creative media production. These serve entirely different purposes.
Question 94:
Which Microsoft 365 feature provides recommendations for improving collaboration and productivity?
A) Microsoft Viva Insights
B) Microsoft Paint
C) Microsoft Notepad
D) Windows Media Player
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations need data-driven insights into work patterns to identify productivity barriers, prevent burnout, improve collaboration effectiveness, and help employees maintain work-life balance in digital work environments.
Option A is correct as Microsoft Viva Insights provides personalized and organizational insights for improving collaboration and productivity based on work patterns derived from Microsoft 365 usage. Viva Insights analyzes email, calendar, Teams activities, and documents to provide recommendations like protecting focus time by blocking calendar periods for concentrated work, reducing meeting time by identifying excessive or ineffective meetings, maintaining work-life balance by highlighting after-hours work patterns, improving manager effectiveness through one-on-one coaching metrics, and enhancing collaboration by identifying network gaps or collaboration overload. Insights protect privacy through aggregation and de-identification showing patterns without individual monitoring. Organizations use Viva Insights to improve meeting culture, prevent burnout, enhance manager effectiveness, and optimize collaboration patterns supporting both productivity and wellbeing.
Option B refers to Microsoft Paint, which is a basic image editing application. Paint creates and edits graphics but provides no collaboration or productivity insights. These applications serve completely different purposes.
Option C represents Microsoft Notepad, which is a simple text editor. Notepad creates plain text files but does not analyze work patterns or provide productivity recommendations. Text editing and workplace analytics are unrelated capabilities.
Option D refers to Windows Media Player for playing audio and video files. Media Player provides entertainment functionality rather than workplace analytics or productivity insights. These represent fundamentally different software categories.
Question 95:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 Customer Lockbox?
A) Physical building security
B) Requiring customer approval before Microsoft engineers access content
C) Password management
D) File encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations with sensitive data require assurance that even Microsoft engineers cannot access their content without explicit approval, providing additional control over data access even during support incidents.
Option A is incorrect as physical building security involves access control systems, security personnel, and physical barriers. Customer Lockbox controls access to digital content within Microsoft 365 rather than physical premises. These represent different security domains.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 Customer Lockbox requires customer approval before Microsoft engineers can access content during support incidents. In rare situations where Microsoft support engineers need access to customer content to resolve service issues, Customer Lockbox requires customers to explicitly approve or deny access requests. Customers receive notifications describing why access is needed, what content Microsoft needs to access, and who is requesting access. Customers control the approval decision and can set time limits for access. All access is logged for auditing. Customer Lockbox provides additional data sovereignty assurance that customer content remains under customer control even during support operations. Organizations with regulatory requirements or highly sensitive data use Customer Lockbox to maintain access control and demonstrate compliance with data protection obligations.
Option C is incorrect because password management involves storing and managing credentials securely. While related to security, Customer Lockbox specifically controls Microsoft engineer access to customer content rather than managing user passwords. These serve different security purposes.
Option D is incorrect as file encryption protects content through cryptographic mechanisms making data unreadable without decryption keys. While encryption is important, Customer Lockbox specifically controls access approval rather than encrypting content. Encryption and access approval serve complementary but distinct security purposes.
Question 96:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides protection against identity theft and account compromise?
A) Azure AD Identity Protection
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Microsoft Word
D) Microsoft PowerPoint
Answer: A
Explanation:
User accounts represent primary targets for attackers, and compromised accounts enable data theft, lateral movement, and privilege escalation requiring automated detection and response to identity-based threats.
Option A is correct as Azure AD Identity Protection provides comprehensive protection against identity theft and account compromise by detecting and responding to identity-based risks. Identity Protection uses machine learning and Microsoft’s threat intelligence to identify risky sign-ins and compromised users based on patterns including impossible travel where users sign in from distant locations within impossible timeframes, anonymous IP addresses indicating VPN or Tor usage, unfamiliar sign-in properties like new devices or locations, malware-linked IP addresses, and leaked credentials found in breach databases. When risks are detected, Identity Protection can automatically require multi-factor authentication, require password changes, block access, or alert administrators. Security teams receive risk reports identifying users and sign-ins requiring investigation. Organizations use Identity Protection to prevent account takeover, detect credential theft, respond automatically to threats, and reduce identity-related breaches.
Option B refers to Microsoft Excel for spreadsheet calculations. Excel is a productivity application that does not provide security or identity protection capabilities. Spreadsheet creation and identity security represent entirely different application categories.
Option C represents Microsoft Word for document creation. Word is a word processing application without security or identity protection features. Document editing and identity protection serve completely different purposes.
Option D refers to Microsoft PowerPoint for creating presentations. PowerPoint is a productivity tool that does not offer identity protection or security monitoring capabilities. Presentation creation and identity security are unrelated functions.
Question 97:
What is the maximum file size that can be uploaded to SharePoint Online?
A) 100 MB
B) 250 MB
C) 15 GB
D) 100 GB
Answer: D
Explanation:
SharePoint serves as the primary document repository for organizations, and understanding file size limits helps users know when alternative approaches are needed for extremely large files like videos or design files.
Option A suggesting 100 MB is far too restrictive for modern business needs. Organizations frequently work with videos, large presentations, engineering files, and datasets exceeding this size. SharePoint provides much more generous limits to accommodate contemporary file sizes.
Option B indicating 250 MB matches the Teams upload limit but understates SharePoint’s actual capacity. SharePoint supports significantly larger files than can be uploaded through Teams interface, as SharePoint is designed as an enterprise content management platform handling diverse file types and sizes.
Option C suggesting 15 GB was a previous SharePoint file size limit. Microsoft has increased this limit substantially to accommodate modern files including high-resolution videos, large datasets, and complex design files that businesses routinely handle.
Option D is correct as SharePoint Online currently supports uploading files up to 100 GB. This substantial limit accommodates nearly all business file types including large videos, extensive datasets, CAD files, and high-resolution media. The 100 GB limit applies to individual files, not overall storage capacity. For optimal performance with very large files, Microsoft recommends using OneDrive sync client rather than web browser uploads. The generous file size support makes SharePoint suitable for engineering firms, media companies, and other organizations handling exceptionally large files. Organizations working with files approaching this limit should consider whether file sizes are optimized and whether cloud storage is the appropriate solution.
Question 98:
Which Microsoft 365 feature helps prevent users from accidentally deleting important emails?
A) Litigation Hold
B) Spam filter
C) Mail flow rules
D) Calendar sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations need mechanisms to preserve important emails against accidental or intentional deletion particularly during legal matters, regulatory investigations, or when preserving evidence is necessary.
Option A is correct as Litigation Hold preserves mailbox content preventing users from permanently deleting important emails. When Litigation Hold is enabled on a mailbox, all content including emails, calendar items, tasks, and notes is preserved even if users delete items from their Deleted Items folder or Recoverable Items. Preserved content remains accessible through eDiscovery searches while remaining invisible to users. Litigation Hold supports legal matters where organizations must preserve all communications, regulatory investigations requiring evidence preservation, and employee departures when organizations need to preserve work-related communications. Administrators enable Litigation Hold through the Exchange admin center or PowerShell, and held content is retained until holds are removed. The feature ensures critical evidence cannot be destroyed intentionally or accidentally during investigations.
Option B refers to spam filters which block unwanted emails based on content analysis and sender reputation. While spam filters prevent users from receiving junk email, they do not preserve emails against deletion. Spam filtering and email preservation serve different purposes.
Option C represents mail flow rules which process emails based on conditions like sender, recipient, or content patterns, potentially blocking, redirecting, or modifying messages. While mail flow rules can protect against specific email threats, they do not preserve existing mailbox content against deletion. Mail flow rules process new messages rather than protecting historical content.
Option D refers to calendar sharing which allows users to view each other’s calendars. Calendar sharing facilitates scheduling but does not preserve any content against deletion. Sharing and preservation serve entirely different purposes within email systems.
Question 99:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 App Governance?
A) Governing physical office space
B) Managing and securing OAuth apps accessing Microsoft 365 data
C) Traffic management
D) Weather monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizations authorize numerous third-party applications to access Microsoft 365 data through OAuth, creating security risks if malicious apps gain excessive permissions or legitimate apps are compromised requiring governance and monitoring.
Option A is incorrect as governing physical office space involves facilities management systems. App Governance manages digital applications and permissions rather than physical spaces. These represent completely different governance domains.
Option B is correct as Microsoft 365 App Governance provides visibility and control over OAuth applications accessing Microsoft 365 data. App Governance discovers all OAuth apps with access to tenant data, assesses app behavior and permissions identifying apps with excessive privileges, detects anomalous app activities indicating compromise or misuse, enforces policies restricting app capabilities or access, provides insights into data access patterns by applications, and enables rapid response to suspicious apps by disabling or revoking permissions. Organizations use App Governance to prevent data exfiltration through malicious apps, ensure apps request only necessary permissions, detect compromised applications, and maintain visibility into the application ecosystem accessing organizational data. The service addresses growing security risks from application integration ecosystems.
Option C is incorrect because traffic management involves network infrastructure and routing systems. App Governance manages application permissions and behavior rather than network traffic flow. These serve different IT infrastructure purposes.
Option D is incorrect as weather monitoring requires meteorological systems. App Governance manages security and permissions for business applications rather than environmental monitoring. These represent completely unrelated domains.
Question 100:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides secure external file sharing with tracking and expiration?
A) OneDrive for Business and SharePoint Online
B) Microsoft Teams only
C) Exchange Online only
D) Microsoft Planner
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organizations need secure methods for sharing files with external parties that provide control over access duration, visibility into who accessed content, and ability to revoke access protecting sensitive information.
Option A is correct as OneDrive for Business and SharePoint Online provide secure external file sharing with comprehensive tracking and control capabilities. Users can create sharing links for external recipients with configurable permissions including view-only or edit access, set expiration dates automatically revoking access after specified periods, require passwords for additional security, receive notifications when recipients access shared content, view analytics showing who accessed files and when, and revoke access at any time by disabling sharing links. Administrators can configure organizational policies controlling external sharing capabilities, restricting sharing by domain, requiring expiration dates, and disabling anonymous sharing. The tracking and control features enable secure collaboration with external partners, clients, and contractors while maintaining visibility and control over shared content.
Option B suggesting Teams only is incorrect as Teams file sharing actually uses SharePoint in the background for storage and sharing. While users can share files through Teams, the underlying sharing capabilities and controls come from SharePoint. Teams is not the exclusive sharing mechanism.
Option C indicating Exchange only is incorrect because while users can send file attachments through email, Exchange alone does not provide the tracking, expiration, and access control capabilities that OneDrive and SharePoint offer. Email attachments lose organizational control once sent, whereas OneDrive and SharePoint maintain ongoing control.
Option D refers to Microsoft Planner for task management. Planner does not provide file sharing capabilities. While tasks can include file attachments, these are stored in SharePoint, and Planner itself is not a file sharing service.
