Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 69
Question 680
A managed service promises encryption but cannot document key custody. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review a generic encryption brochure without contractual key custody and exit evidence
Confirm a padlock appears in the browser without reviewing at-rest key ownership
Verify network TLS but not backup keys, rotation or restoration rights
Review verifiable key management and recovery procedures
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Marketing language does not specify shared responsibility. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review verifiable key management and recovery procedures.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review a generic encryption brochure without contractual key custody and exit evidence” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review verifiable key management and recovery procedures”, reflecting the requirement that marketing language does not specify shared responsibility.
B:
“Confirm a padlock appears in the browser without reviewing at-rest key ownership” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Assess encryption, key control and exit obligations in provider contracts” works. Marketing language does not specify shared responsibility. The decisive test is “Review verifiable key management and recovery procedures”.
C:
“Verify network TLS but not backup keys, rotation or restoration rights” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review verifiable key management and recovery procedures”, reflecting the requirement that marketing language does not specify shared responsibility.
Question 681
A hardware software bundle includes unsupported embedded firmware. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Perform life-cycle support and vulnerability response due diligence
Buy the bundled system because the host operating system is supported despite unsupported firmware
Assume network segmentation makes future embedded firmware flaws irrelevant
Accept a vendor's current price concession in place of a supported vulnerability response commitment
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Buy the bundled system because the host operating system is supported despite unsupported firmware” would not establish the protection described: supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. The necessary change is “Perform life-cycle support and vulnerability response due diligence” with the verification “Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments”.
C:
“Assume network segmentation makes future embedded firmware flaws irrelevant” leaves the essential control missing: supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. The direct corrective action is “Perform life-cycle support and vulnerability response due diligence”, validated by the acceptance check “Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments”.
D:
“Accept a vendor's current price concession in place of a supported vulnerability response commitment” would not establish the protection described: supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. The necessary change is “Perform life-cycle support and vulnerability response due diligence” with the verification “Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments”.
Question 682
A hardware software bundle includes unsupported embedded firmware. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the device is on a segmented VLAN but omit supplier advisory and patch support
Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments
Verify warranty cost while ignoring firmware end-of-support and remediation availability
Check only host OS patch status without examining embedded firmware lifecycle
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm the device is on a segmented VLAN but omit supplier advisory and patch support” would not verify the relevant control. Supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments”.
C:
An observation of “Verify warranty cost while ignoring firmware end-of-support and remediation availability” would not verify the relevant control. Supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Check vendor advisories, update cadence and end-of-support commitments” because supplier supportability is part of acquisition risk. “Check only host OS patch status without examining embedded firmware lifecycle” cannot establish that result.
Question 683
A subcontractor changes after a cloud procurement agreement is signed. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Accept any replacement subprocessor without evaluating contractual notification rights
Keep the original subprocessor approval indefinitely despite the provider's changed subcontractor
Reassess subprocessors, data locations and notification rights
Rely on a vendor announcement without checking new processing locations or customer consent duties
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Accept any replacement subprocessor without evaluating contractual notification rights” does not meet the relevant requirement because third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. The matching remediation is “Reassess subprocessors, data locations and notification rights”.
B:
“Keep the original subprocessor approval indefinitely despite the provider's changed subcontractor” is not the relevant mitigation. Third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. The scenario calls for “Reassess subprocessors, data locations and notification rights”; the acceptance check is “Compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms”.
D:
“Rely on a vendor announcement without checking new processing locations or customer consent duties” is not the relevant mitigation. Third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. The scenario calls for “Reassess subprocessors, data locations and notification rights”; the acceptance check is “Compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms”.
Question 684
A subcontractor changes after a cloud procurement agreement is signed. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm a replacement vendor name appears on a portal without comparing approved contractual terms
Review the initial supplier assessment only and ignore the newly added subprocessor
Check a notice was sent but not that data location and approval requirements were fulfilled
Compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. The proposed check, “Confirm a replacement vendor name appears on a portal without comparing approved contractual terms”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Review the initial supplier assessment only and ignore the newly added subprocessor” does not show the required outcome: compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms. That test matters because third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains.
C:
Third-party risk extends through subcontracted supply chains. The proposed check, “Check a notice was sent but not that data location and approval requirements were fulfilled”, misses the relevant outcome; “Compare current provider subcontractor list with approved terms” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 685
An enterprise wants to terminate a critical SaaS subscription without losing records. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Define exit, data portability, retention and deletion conditions up front
Rely on screenshots of important records instead of testing a complete machine-readable export
Trust deletion promises without contractual timing or independent confirmation
Terminate the SaaS agreement before proving that records can be exported in a usable format
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Software acquisition should include a practical exit plan. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Software acquisition should include a practical exit plan. “Rely on screenshots of important records instead of testing a complete machine-readable export” does not supply that control; “Define exit, data portability, retention and deletion conditions up front” addresses the identified gap, and “Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that software acquisition should include a practical exit plan. “Trust deletion promises without contractual timing or independent confirmation” addresses neither the required “Define exit, data portability, retention and deletion conditions up front” action nor its supporting evidence: “Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations”.
D:
Software acquisition should include a practical exit plan. “Terminate the SaaS agreement before proving that records can be exported in a usable format” does not supply that control; “Define exit, data portability, retention and deletion conditions up front” addresses the identified gap, and “Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations” verifies the result.
Question 686
An enterprise wants to terminate a critical SaaS subscription without losing records. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review vendor deletion marketing statements without verifying exit and retention obligations
Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations
Confirm the subscription was cancelled without proving full record recovery
Check a sample screenshot without validating integrity and usability of exported data
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Software acquisition should include a practical exit plan. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review vendor deletion marketing statements without verifying exit and retention obligations” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations”, reflecting the requirement that software acquisition should include a practical exit plan.
C:
“Confirm the subscription was cancelled without proving full record recovery” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations”, reflecting the requirement that software acquisition should include a practical exit plan.
D:
“Check a sample screenshot without validating integrity and usability of exported data” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Define exit, data portability, retention and deletion conditions up front” works. Software acquisition should include a practical exit plan. The decisive test is “Execute a test export and verify usable data plus verified deletion obligations”.
Question 687
An API accepts object identifiers without checking ownership. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Authorize the API session once but never check ownership of individual object identifiers
Treat an unpredictable object identifier as sufficient access control for another user's record
Enforce per-object authorization on every server-side request
Filter object IDs only in the client interface while leaving server-side authorization unchanged
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Authorize the API session once but never check ownership of individual object identifiers” leaves the essential control missing: authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. The direct corrective action is “Enforce per-object authorization on every server-side request”, validated by the acceptance check “Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials”.
B:
“Treat an unpredictable object identifier as sufficient access control for another user's record” would not establish the protection described: authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. The necessary change is “Enforce per-object authorization on every server-side request” with the verification “Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials”.
D:
“Filter object IDs only in the client interface while leaving server-side authorization unchanged” would not establish the protection described: authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. The necessary change is “Enforce per-object authorization on every server-side request” with the verification “Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials”.
Question 688
An API accepts object identifiers without checking ownership. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Test guessing difficulty of object IDs without requesting an unauthorized but known identifier
Verify the UI hides the second user's record while the underlying API still permits access
Confirm the requester successfully authenticates but skip attempts against another user's object
Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Test guessing difficulty of object IDs without requesting an unauthorized but known identifier” would not verify the relevant control. Authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials” because authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. “Verify the UI hides the second user's record while the underlying API still permits access” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Confirm the requester successfully authenticates but skip attempts against another user's object” would not verify the relevant control. Authentication does not prevent insecure direct object reference. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Try a second user's object ID with valid but unauthorized credentials”.
Question 689
A login handler concatenates user input into a database query. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Use parameterized statements and validated data types
Use a database account with limited permissions but retain injectable query construction
Escape quote characters in the input but continue constructing SQL through string concatenation
Block a small list of SQL keywords while leaving dynamic query structure controlled by input
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Query parameters separate data from executable query structure. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Use a database account with limited permissions but retain injectable query construction” is not the relevant mitigation. Query parameters separate data from executable query structure. The scenario calls for “Use parameterized statements and validated data types”; the acceptance check is “Test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes”.
C:
The proposal “Escape quote characters in the input but continue constructing SQL through string concatenation” does not meet the relevant requirement because query parameters separate data from executable query structure. The matching remediation is “Use parameterized statements and validated data types”.
D:
“Block a small list of SQL keywords while leaving dynamic query structure controlled by input” is not the relevant mitigation. Query parameters separate data from executable query structure. The scenario calls for “Use parameterized statements and validated data types”; the acceptance check is “Test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes”.
Question 690
A login handler concatenates user input into a database query. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm a legitimate password logs in without submitting crafted query input
Test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes
Test only a banned keyword while omitting encoded or syntactically different injection attempts
Review database permissions without checking whether crafted input can alter the SQL parse tree
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Query parameters separate data from executable query structure. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Query parameters separate data from executable query structure. The proposed check, “Confirm a legitimate password logs in without submitting crafted query input”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Query parameters separate data from executable query structure. The proposed check, “Test only a banned keyword while omitting encoded or syntactically different injection attempts”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Review database permissions without checking whether crafted input can alter the SQL parse tree” does not show the required outcome: test crafted input without allowing SQL control changes. That test matters because query parameters separate data from executable query structure.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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