Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 61
Question 600
A disaster is declared but alternate staff do not know their roles. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Maintain a recovery runbook with no assigned substitutes, communication contacts or activation process
Broadcast a generic emergency message but never assign which staff will perform service recovery
Assume alternate staff will learn disaster roles when the emergency call finally arrives
Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Maintain a recovery runbook with no assigned substitutes, communication contacts or activation process” would not establish the protection described: a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The necessary change is “Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities” with the verification “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
B:
“Broadcast a generic emergency message but never assign which staff will perform service recovery” leaves the essential control missing: a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The direct corrective action is “Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities”, validated by the acceptance check “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
C:
“Assume alternate staff will learn disaster roles when the emergency call finally arrives” would not establish the protection described: a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The necessary change is “Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities” with the verification “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
Question 601
A disaster is declared but alternate staff do not know their roles. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise
Review primary operator availability while alternate team readiness is untested
Verify the disaster plan is signed without activating backup personnel or call trees
Count recipients on an emergency mailing list but not who accepted recovery duties
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise.
Incorrect Answers
B:
An observation of “Review primary operator availability while alternate team readiness is untested” would not verify the relevant control. A recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
C:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise” because a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. “Verify the disaster plan is signed without activating backup personnel or call trees” cannot establish that result.
D:
An observation of “Count recipients on an emergency mailing list but not who accepted recovery duties” would not verify the relevant control. A recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
Question 602
A restored system recovers files but cannot authenticate applications. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Restore application files before identity and secrets dependencies and declare the recovery complete
Include identity, secrets and network prerequisites in DR restoration order
Bring the web tier online without verifying it can authenticate to databases and upstream services
Focus on backup checksum integrity while omitting DNS, keys and dependent network restoration
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Restored data alone is not a usable business service. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Restore application files before identity and secrets dependencies and declare the recovery complete” is not the relevant mitigation. Restored data alone is not a usable business service. The scenario calls for “Include identity, secrets and network prerequisites in DR restoration order”; the acceptance check is “Run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration”.
C:
“Bring the web tier online without verifying it can authenticate to databases and upstream services” is not the relevant mitigation. Restored data alone is not a usable business service. The scenario calls for “Include identity, secrets and network prerequisites in DR restoration order”; the acceptance check is “Run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration”.
D:
The proposal “Focus on backup checksum integrity while omitting DNS, keys and dependent network restoration” does not meet the relevant requirement because restored data alone is not a usable business service. The matching remediation is “Include identity, secrets and network prerequisites in DR restoration order”.
Question 603
A restored system recovers files but cannot authenticate applications. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review system boot logs while application-to-database credentials are missing
Check recovery inventory while end users cannot sign in or perform the critical workflow
Run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration
Confirm disk contents were restored but never conduct an authenticated business transaction
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Restored data alone is not a usable business service. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review system boot logs while application-to-database credentials are missing” does not show the required outcome: run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration. That test matters because restored data alone is not a usable business service.
B:
Restored data alone is not a usable business service. The proposed check, “Check recovery inventory while end users cannot sign in or perform the critical workflow”, misses the relevant outcome; “Run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
Restored data alone is not a usable business service. The proposed check, “Confirm disk contents were restored but never conduct an authenticated business transaction”, misses the relevant outcome; “Run an end-to-end business transaction after restoration” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 604
A DR event closes without recording major procedural delays. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Reuse the old recovery runbook after major failed dependencies without updating procedures
Archive the DR event report without capturing the delays that prevented timely recovery
Record improvement ideas in meeting notes but assign no owners or dates
Capture lessons learned and update recovery runbooks and capabilities
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Recovery plans require operational feedback. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review exercise or event action items through closure.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Recovery plans require operational feedback. “Reuse the old recovery runbook after major failed dependencies without updating procedures” does not supply that control; “Capture lessons learned and update recovery runbooks and capabilities” addresses the identified gap, and “Review exercise or event action items through closure” verifies the result.
B:
The security distinction is that recovery plans require operational feedback. “Archive the DR event report without capturing the delays that prevented timely recovery” addresses neither the required “Capture lessons learned and update recovery runbooks and capabilities” action nor its supporting evidence: “Review exercise or event action items through closure”.
C:
Recovery plans require operational feedback. “Record improvement ideas in meeting notes but assign no owners or dates” does not supply that control; “Capture lessons learned and update recovery runbooks and capabilities” addresses the identified gap, and “Review exercise or event action items through closure” verifies the result.
Question 605
A DR event closes without recording major procedural delays. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review exercise or event action items through closure
Confirm the incident has a closure ticket without tracking recovery action items
Check that a lessons-learned meeting took place but not whether fixes were adopted
Review recovery timing alone while documented procedural weaknesses remain uncorrected
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Recovery plans require operational feedback. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review exercise or event action items through closure.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Confirm the incident has a closure ticket without tracking recovery action items” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review exercise or event action items through closure”, reflecting the requirement that recovery plans require operational feedback.
C:
“Check that a lessons-learned meeting took place but not whether fixes were adopted” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Capture lessons learned and update recovery runbooks and capabilities” works. Recovery plans require operational feedback. The decisive test is “Review exercise or event action items through closure”.
D:
“Review recovery timing alone while documented procedural weaknesses remain uncorrected” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review exercise or event action items through closure”, reflecting the requirement that recovery plans require operational feedback.
Question 606
A team wants to review a recovery plan without affecting systems. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Ask a consultant to present slides about generic disasters instead of challenging the actual recovery plan
Conduct a structured tabletop with dependency and role challenges
Declare tabletop success because attendance was high, without an issue log or follow-up actions
Conduct an unstructured discussion without testing plan dependencies or participant decision responsibilities
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Ask a consultant to present slides about generic disasters instead of challenging the actual recovery plan” would not establish the protection described: discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. The necessary change is “Conduct a structured tabletop with dependency and role challenges” with the verification “Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop”.
C:
“Declare tabletop success because attendance was high, without an issue log or follow-up actions” would not establish the protection described: discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. The necessary change is “Conduct a structured tabletop with dependency and role challenges” with the verification “Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop”.
D:
“Conduct an unstructured discussion without testing plan dependencies or participant decision responsibilities” leaves the essential control missing: discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. The direct corrective action is “Conduct a structured tabletop with dependency and role challenges”, validated by the acceptance check “Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop”.
Question 607
A team wants to review a recovery plan without affecting systems. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check the tabletop calendar invitation while no scenario decision evidence exists
Confirm participants attended but not that they resolved operational decisions during scenarios
Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop
Review slide content without examining identified plan gaps or action owners
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop” because discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. “Check the tabletop calendar invitation while no scenario decision evidence exists” cannot establish that result.
B:
An observation of “Confirm participants attended but not that they resolved operational decisions during scenarios” would not verify the relevant control. Discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop”.
D:
An observation of “Review slide content without examining identified plan gaps or action owners” would not verify the relevant control. Discussion exercises do not prove technical failover. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect issue log and decision outcomes from the tabletop”.
Question 608
A regulator requires proof a hot standby can serve live production traffic. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Review hot standby configuration documents but never exercise its ability to process live transactions
Run a tabletop only while the regulator requires actual standby-capacity evidence
Switch all critical systems unexpectedly without approved test scope or safety planning
Conduct an approved parallel or controlled full-interruption test as risk permits
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review hot standby configuration documents but never exercise its ability to process live transactions” is not the relevant mitigation. A document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. The scenario calls for “Conduct an approved parallel or controlled full-interruption test as risk permits”; the acceptance check is “Measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope”.
B:
The proposal “Run a tabletop only while the regulator requires actual standby-capacity evidence” does not meet the relevant requirement because a document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. The matching remediation is “Conduct an approved parallel or controlled full-interruption test as risk permits”.
C:
“Switch all critical systems unexpectedly without approved test scope or safety planning” is not the relevant mitigation. A document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. The scenario calls for “Conduct an approved parallel or controlled full-interruption test as risk permits”; the acceptance check is “Measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope”.
Question 609
A regulator requires proof a hot standby can serve live production traffic. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope
Review a failover design diagram without collecting transaction results
Count servers at the recovery site while approved parallel or interruption testing remains absent
Confirm the standby facility is powered on but not that customers can transact through it
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope.
Incorrect Answers
B:
A document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. The proposed check, “Review a failover design diagram without collecting transaction results”, misses the relevant outcome; “Measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
“Count servers at the recovery site while approved parallel or interruption testing remains absent” does not show the required outcome: measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope. That test matters because a document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery.
D:
A document walkthrough is insufficient evidence of full technical recovery. The proposed check, “Confirm the standby facility is powered on but not that customers can transact through it”, misses the relevant outcome; “Measure actual transaction results on standby under the agreed test scope” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 610
A disaster test recovers servers but misses customer notification timing. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Limit communications testing to internal engineers while legal and customer contacts are omitted
Include crisis communications in exercise objectives
Test only IT server restoration and exclude customer notification from exercise objectives
Send a generic update at any time without mapping messages to incident severity triggers
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Recovery exercises must test people and external reporting too. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check stakeholder notifications against time triggers.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Recovery exercises must test people and external reporting too. “Limit communications testing to internal engineers while legal and customer contacts are omitted” does not supply that control; “Include crisis communications in exercise objectives” addresses the identified gap, and “Check stakeholder notifications against time triggers” verifies the result.
C:
Recovery exercises must test people and external reporting too. “Test only IT server restoration and exclude customer notification from exercise objectives” does not supply that control; “Include crisis communications in exercise objectives” addresses the identified gap, and “Check stakeholder notifications against time triggers” verifies the result.
D:
The security distinction is that recovery exercises must test people and external reporting too. “Send a generic update at any time without mapping messages to incident severity triggers” addresses neither the required “Include crisis communications in exercise objectives” action nor its supporting evidence: “Check stakeholder notifications against time triggers”.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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