Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 60
Question 590
An emergency firewall exception remains active for months. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Keep the emergency firewall rule indefinitely because it was needed during one incident
Apply expiry, postimplementation review and automatic removal
Remove the exception's owner and expiry fields so it cannot generate overdue alerts
Require change notes but disable automatic cleanup or postimplementation review of the broad rule
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect exception logs for timely closure.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Keep the emergency firewall rule indefinitely because it was needed during one incident” is not the relevant mitigation. Emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. The scenario calls for “Apply expiry, postimplementation review and automatic removal”; the acceptance check is “Inspect exception logs for timely closure”.
C:
“Remove the exception's owner and expiry fields so it cannot generate overdue alerts” is not the relevant mitigation. Emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. The scenario calls for “Apply expiry, postimplementation review and automatic removal”; the acceptance check is “Inspect exception logs for timely closure”.
D:
The proposal “Require change notes but disable automatic cleanup or postimplementation review of the broad rule” does not meet the relevant requirement because emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. The matching remediation is “Apply expiry, postimplementation review and automatic removal”.
Question 591
An emergency firewall exception remains active for months. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Review the initial exception approval without checking retained ACL entries months later
Count all active rules without correlating emergency exceptions to their authorized close dates
Inspect exception logs for timely closure
Confirm the emergency connection works but never test whether access ends after the window
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect exception logs for timely closure.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Review the initial exception approval without checking retained ACL entries months later” does not show the required outcome: inspect exception logs for timely closure. That test matters because emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access.
B:
Emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. The proposed check, “Count all active rules without correlating emergency exceptions to their authorized close dates”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect exception logs for timely closure” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
Emergency changes cannot become unreviewed permanent access. The proposed check, “Confirm the emergency connection works but never test whether access ends after the window”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect exception logs for timely closure” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 592
Developers merge a critical change without checking security policy impact. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Publish directly from an unreviewed feature branch without linking the release to approved commits
Allow the developer who merged the urgent change to approve and deploy it alone
Treat passing unit tests as proof that the new code preserves every security policy
Include security review and segregation of deployment approvals
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Version control does not by itself establish approval policy. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Version control does not by itself establish approval policy. “Publish directly from an unreviewed feature branch without linking the release to approved commits” does not supply that control; “Include security review and segregation of deployment approvals” addresses the identified gap, and “Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers” verifies the result.
B:
The security distinction is that version control does not by itself establish approval policy. “Allow the developer who merged the urgent change to approve and deploy it alone” addresses neither the required “Include security review and segregation of deployment approvals” action nor its supporting evidence: “Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers”.
C:
Version control does not by itself establish approval policy. “Treat passing unit tests as proof that the new code preserves every security policy” does not supply that control; “Include security review and segregation of deployment approvals” addresses the identified gap, and “Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers” verifies the result.
Question 593
Developers merge a critical change without checking security policy impact. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers
Confirm production runs the new feature without comparing its commit to approvals
Check the CI build status but not whether separation of deployment duties was enforced
Review developer notes without auditing the actual production diff and security review
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Version control does not by itself establish approval policy. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Confirm production runs the new feature without comparing its commit to approvals” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers”, reflecting the requirement that version control does not by itself establish approval policy.
C:
“Check the CI build status but not whether separation of deployment duties was enforced” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Include security review and segregation of deployment approvals” works. Version control does not by itself establish approval policy. The decisive test is “Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers”.
D:
“Review developer notes without auditing the actual production diff and security review” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare production changes with authorized commits and reviewers”, reflecting the requirement that version control does not by itself establish approval policy.
Question 594
A disaster plan relies solely on local backups in the same flood zone. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Replicate to another server on the same local power and network dependencies
Use geographically separated recoverable copies and tested restoration
Trust backup encryption to protect against a regional disaster that destroys all local copies
Store extra backups in a second rack inside the same flood-prone facility
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Replicate to another server on the same local power and network dependencies” would not establish the protection described: backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. The necessary change is “Use geographically separated recoverable copies and tested restoration” with the verification “Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability”.
C:
“Trust backup encryption to protect against a regional disaster that destroys all local copies” would not establish the protection described: backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. The necessary change is “Use geographically separated recoverable copies and tested restoration” with the verification “Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability”.
D:
“Store extra backups in a second rack inside the same flood-prone facility” leaves the essential control missing: backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. The direct corrective action is “Use geographically separated recoverable copies and tested restoration”, validated by the acceptance check “Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability”.
Question 595
A disaster plan relies solely on local backups in the same flood zone. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check storage redundancy inside one data center but not alternate-location restore capability
Confirm local backups are readable while the site is available only
Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability
Review backup job counts without simulating loss of the entire primary flood zone
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability” because backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. “Check storage redundancy inside one data center but not alternate-location restore capability” cannot establish that result.
B:
An observation of “Confirm local backups are readable while the site is available only” would not verify the relevant control. Backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability”.
D:
An observation of “Review backup job counts without simulating loss of the entire primary flood zone” would not verify the relevant control. Backups co-located with production share site-disaster risk. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Isolate the primary site and verify alternate copy usability”.
Question 596
A business needs near-immediate recovery but contracts only for an empty room. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rent an empty alternate room with no installed systems and claim it meets a near-zero RTO
Keep cold backups offsite but no preconfigured compute or network to resume quickly
Select the cheapest recovery location regardless of measured startup and application dependency times
Select hot or warm recovery capacity consistent with the RTO
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Rent an empty alternate room with no installed systems and claim it meets a near-zero RTO” is not the relevant mitigation. A cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. The scenario calls for “Select hot or warm recovery capacity consistent with the RTO”; the acceptance check is “Measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment”.
B:
The proposal “Keep cold backups offsite but no preconfigured compute or network to resume quickly” does not meet the relevant requirement because a cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. The matching remediation is “Select hot or warm recovery capacity consistent with the RTO”.
C:
“Select the cheapest recovery location regardless of measured startup and application dependency times” is not the relevant mitigation. A cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. The scenario calls for “Select hot or warm recovery capacity consistent with the RTO”; the acceptance check is “Measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment”.
Question 597
A business needs near-immediate recovery but contracts only for an empty room. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment
Review recovery site photographs instead of executing a timed startup
Check backup integrity alone while required runtime capacity cannot meet the recovery objective
Confirm the contract reserves space but never measure time to usable application service
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
A cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment.
Incorrect Answers
B:
A cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. The proposed check, “Review recovery site photographs instead of executing a timed startup”, misses the relevant outcome; “Measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
“Check backup integrity alone while required runtime capacity cannot meet the recovery objective” does not show the required outcome: measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment. That test matters because a cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby.
D:
A cold site generally needs more deployment time than a ready standby. The proposed check, “Confirm the contract reserves space but never measure time to usable application service”, misses the relevant outcome; “Measure service startup in the contracted recovery environment” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 598
A redundant web tier still depends on one database instance. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Depend on automated app restarts without a database-level failover and data-consistency plan
Eliminate single points of failure across all critical tiers
Add more web servers while leaving the database as the single unprotected point of failure
Configure redundant load balancers but route all transactions to one nonreplicated database
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Redundancy must cover the full dependency path. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to fail the database node and verify transaction continuity.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Redundancy must cover the full dependency path. “Depend on automated app restarts without a database-level failover and data-consistency plan” does not supply that control; “Eliminate single points of failure across all critical tiers” addresses the identified gap, and “Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity” verifies the result.
C:
Redundancy must cover the full dependency path. “Add more web servers while leaving the database as the single unprotected point of failure” does not supply that control; “Eliminate single points of failure across all critical tiers” addresses the identified gap, and “Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity” verifies the result.
D:
The security distinction is that redundancy must cover the full dependency path. “Configure redundant load balancers but route all transactions to one nonreplicated database” addresses neither the required “Eliminate single points of failure across all critical tiers” action nor its supporting evidence: “Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity”.
Question 599
A redundant web tier still depends on one database instance. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm web nodes fail over but never interrupt the only database instance
Review database backup frequency without measuring live transaction continuity
Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity
Check the load balancer health while all business operations stop when the data tier fails
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Redundancy must cover the full dependency path. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm web nodes fail over but never interrupt the only database instance” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Eliminate single points of failure across all critical tiers” works. Redundancy must cover the full dependency path. The decisive test is “Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity”.
B:
“Review database backup frequency without measuring live transaction continuity” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity”, reflecting the requirement that redundancy must cover the full dependency path.
D:
“Check the load balancer health while all business operations stop when the data tier fails” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Fail the database node and verify transaction continuity”, reflecting the requirement that redundancy must cover the full dependency path.
Question 600
A disaster is declared but alternate staff do not know their roles. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Maintain a recovery runbook with no assigned substitutes, communication contacts or activation process
Broadcast a generic emergency message but never assign which staff will perform service recovery
Assume alternate staff will learn disaster roles when the emergency call finally arrives
Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Maintain a recovery runbook with no assigned substitutes, communication contacts or activation process” would not establish the protection described: a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The necessary change is “Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities” with the verification “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
B:
“Broadcast a generic emergency message but never assign which staff will perform service recovery” leaves the essential control missing: a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The direct corrective action is “Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities”, validated by the acceptance check “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
C:
“Assume alternate staff will learn disaster roles when the emergency call finally arrives” would not establish the protection described: a recovery design fails without trained personnel and communications. The necessary change is “Define role-based DR response and communications responsibilities” with the verification “Run a call-tree and staffing activation exercise”.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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