Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 26
Question 250
A secure room shares wall space with an uncontrolled public storage area. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect an architectural drawing without an attempted boundary penetration test
Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing
Verify authorized staff can enter through the secure door but never attempt access from the public area
Review badge logs only, ignoring breaches through the shared wall and ceiling
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Inspect an architectural drawing without an attempted boundary penetration test” would not verify the relevant control. Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
C:
An observation of “Verify authorized staff can enter through the secure door but never attempt access from the public area” would not verify the relevant control. Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing” because trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. “Review badge logs only, ignoring breaches through the shared wall and ceiling” cannot establish that result.
Question 251
A new server room has inadequate cooling during an expected power disruption. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Install backup electrical power but leave cooling systems without reserve capacity during transfer
Add a temperature dashboard without redundant cooling capacity or alarm escalation
Engineer environmental redundancy linked to failover and alarm requirements
Increase server-fan speed as a substitute for facility cooling redundancy during outage
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Install backup electrical power but leave cooling systems without reserve capacity during transfer” does not meet the relevant requirement because mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. The matching remediation is “Engineer environmental redundancy linked to failover and alarm requirements”.
B:
“Add a temperature dashboard without redundant cooling capacity or alarm escalation” is not the relevant mitigation. Mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. The scenario calls for “Engineer environmental redundancy linked to failover and alarm requirements”; the acceptance check is “Perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power”.
D:
“Increase server-fan speed as a substitute for facility cooling redundancy during outage” is not the relevant mitigation. Mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. The scenario calls for “Engineer environmental redundancy linked to failover and alarm requirements”; the acceptance check is “Perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power”.
Question 252
A new server room has inadequate cooling during an expected power disruption. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check room temperature on a normal day but not during a simulated utility interruption
Review HVAC maintenance receipts rather than measuring failover temperature and cooling loads
Confirm UPS output is stable without exercising cooling during generator switchover
Perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. The proposed check, “Check room temperature on a normal day but not during a simulated utility interruption”, misses the relevant outcome; “Perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Review HVAC maintenance receipts rather than measuring failover temperature and cooling loads” does not show the required outcome: perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power. That test matters because mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design.
C:
Mechanical availability depends on integrated facility design. The proposed check, “Confirm UPS output is stable without exercising cooling during generator switchover”, misses the relevant outcome; “Perform capacity and transfer tests for cooling and emergency power” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 253
An organization wants to place evidence storage in a general reception closet. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Choose controlled restricted storage with access records and environmental protection
Lock evidence boxes while leaving keys openly available at the front desk
Keep evidence in the public reception closet and label its shelves confidential
Depend on security cameras without restricting visitor access to evidence storage
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to audit evidence room access against case custody records.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance. “Lock evidence boxes while leaving keys openly available at the front desk” does not supply that control; “Choose controlled restricted storage with access records and environmental protection” addresses the identified gap, and “Audit evidence room access against case custody records” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance. “Keep evidence in the public reception closet and label its shelves confidential” addresses neither the required “Choose controlled restricted storage with access records and environmental protection” action nor its supporting evidence: “Audit evidence room access against case custody records”.
D:
Evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance. “Depend on security cameras without restricting visitor access to evidence storage” does not supply that control; “Choose controlled restricted storage with access records and environmental protection” addresses the identified gap, and “Audit evidence room access against case custody records” verifies the result.
Question 254
An organization wants to place evidence storage in a general reception closet. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm evidence boxes are present but not whether entries reconcile to custody records
Audit evidence room access against case custody records
Check reception cameras operate without reviewing restricted access controls and humidity conditions
Verify storage inventory totals while unauthorized visitors still can handle case materials
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Audit evidence room access against case custody records.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm evidence boxes are present but not whether entries reconcile to custody records” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Audit evidence room access against case custody records”, reflecting the requirement that evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance.
C:
“Check reception cameras operate without reviewing restricted access controls and humidity conditions” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Audit evidence room access against case custody records”, reflecting the requirement that evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance.
D:
“Verify storage inventory totals while unauthorized visitors still can handle case materials” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Choose controlled restricted storage with access records and environmental protection” works. Evidence facility design must preserve integrity as well as theft resistance. The decisive test is “Audit evidence room access against case custody records”.
Question 255
A core network closet has no protected alternate power source. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Use surge-protected power strips without sizing backup power to actual switch load
Depend on monthly backups of router configuration instead of sustaining network power during outages
Implement sized UPS support and tested recovery power arrangements
Add redundant network interfaces but leave the closet's single unprotected power circuit intact
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Use surge-protected power strips without sizing backup power to actual switch load” leaves the essential control missing: redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. The direct corrective action is “Implement sized UPS support and tested recovery power arrangements”, validated by the acceptance check “Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages”.
B:
“Depend on monthly backups of router configuration instead of sustaining network power during outages” would not establish the protection described: redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. The necessary change is “Implement sized UPS support and tested recovery power arrangements” with the verification “Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages”.
D:
“Add redundant network interfaces but leave the closet's single unprotected power circuit intact” would not establish the protection described: redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. The necessary change is “Implement sized UPS support and tested recovery power arrangements” with the verification “Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages”.
Question 256
A core network closet has no protected alternate power source. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check configuration backups while network connectivity immediately fails during a power interruption
Confirm the switch has two uplinks without simulating utility-power loss
Read UPS product capacity figures without measuring runtime under real closet load
Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Check configuration backups while network connectivity immediately fails during a power interruption” would not verify the relevant control. Redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages” because redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. “Confirm the switch has two uplinks without simulating utility-power loss” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Read UPS product capacity figures without measuring runtime under real closet load” would not verify the relevant control. Redundant switch ports do not compensate for a single power feed. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Simulate utility loss and measure sustained operation until backup engages”.
Question 257
A clean-agent suppression proposal ignores personnel evacuation safety. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Coordinate fire detection, agent release and life-safety design with specialists
Configure automatic agent discharge without any evacuation warnings or occupancy safeguards
Optimize extinguishing concentration before confirming life-safety and egress requirements
Rely on staff training while omitting integrated detection, warning and release controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to run approved warning and release-sequence tests.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Configure automatic agent discharge without any evacuation warnings or occupancy safeguards” is not the relevant mitigation. Fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. The scenario calls for “Coordinate fire detection, agent release and life-safety design with specialists”; the acceptance check is “Run approved warning and release-sequence tests”.
C:
The proposal “Optimize extinguishing concentration before confirming life-safety and egress requirements” does not meet the relevant requirement because fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. The matching remediation is “Coordinate fire detection, agent release and life-safety design with specialists”.
D:
“Rely on staff training while omitting integrated detection, warning and release controls” is not the relevant mitigation. Fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. The scenario calls for “Coordinate fire detection, agent release and life-safety design with specialists”; the acceptance check is “Run approved warning and release-sequence tests”.
Question 258
A clean-agent suppression proposal ignores personnel evacuation safety. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Test fire detection alarms only but never exercise the approved release interlocks
Run approved warning and release-sequence tests
Review equipment datasheets without verifying occupant-safety coordination during a simulated event
Confirm the clean agent is installed without checking warning and evacuation sequencing
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Run approved warning and release-sequence tests.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. The proposed check, “Test fire detection alarms only but never exercise the approved release interlocks”, misses the relevant outcome; “Run approved warning and release-sequence tests” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules. The proposed check, “Review equipment datasheets without verifying occupant-safety coordination during a simulated event”, misses the relevant outcome; “Run approved warning and release-sequence tests” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Confirm the clean agent is installed without checking warning and evacuation sequencing” does not show the required outcome: run approved warning and release-sequence tests. That test matters because fire suppression cannot override occupant safety rules.
Question 259
A tape vault is accessible to general staff who enter the main server room. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Encrypt backup contents but give ordinary server-room staff free access to the tape vault
Store backup tapes in the same unlocked room used by general server-room visitors
Establish separate authorization and custody controls for backup media
Require employees to sign a media-use policy while maintaining unrestricted physical tape access
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect vault access logs against media checkout records.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise. “Encrypt backup contents but give ordinary server-room staff free access to the tape vault” addresses neither the required “Establish separate authorization and custody controls for backup media” action nor its supporting evidence: “Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records”.
B:
Separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise. “Store backup tapes in the same unlocked room used by general server-room visitors” does not supply that control; “Establish separate authorization and custody controls for backup media” addresses the identified gap, and “Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records” verifies the result.
D:
Separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise. “Require employees to sign a media-use policy while maintaining unrestricted physical tape access” does not supply that control; “Establish separate authorization and custody controls for backup media” addresses the identified gap, and “Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records” verifies the result.
Question 260
A tape vault is accessible to general staff who enter the main server room. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm backup tapes are readable without reviewing who checked them out
Check main server-room access badges while separate vault custody remains uncontrolled
Count tapes in storage without reconciling removal against documented media authorization
Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm backup tapes are readable without reviewing who checked them out” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records”, reflecting the requirement that separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise.
B:
“Check main server-room access badges while separate vault custody remains uncontrolled” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Establish separate authorization and custody controls for backup media” works. Separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise. The decisive test is “Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records”.
C:
“Count tapes in storage without reconciling removal against documented media authorization” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect vault access logs against media checkout records”, reflecting the requirement that separate physical protection limits recovery-media compromise.
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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