Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 25
Question 240
A legacy password database stores unsalted fast hashes. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify application logins work without measuring offline guessing cost or work factors
Confirm database encryption is enabled while password hashing remains unsalted and fast
Check that password hashes have the expected length without comparing identical inputs across users
Test identical passwords generate distinct stored hashes and benchmark cost
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Fast general hashing and salts alone do not resist offline guessing adequately. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test identical passwords generate distinct stored hashes and benchmark cost.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Fast general hashing and salts alone do not resist offline guessing adequately. The proposed check, “Verify application logins work without measuring offline guessing cost or work factors”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test identical passwords generate distinct stored hashes and benchmark cost” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Confirm database encryption is enabled while password hashing remains unsalted and fast” does not show the required outcome: test identical passwords generate distinct stored hashes and benchmark cost. That test matters because fast general hashing and salts alone do not resist offline guessing adequately.
C:
Fast general hashing and salts alone do not resist offline guessing adequately. The proposed check, “Check that password hashes have the expected length without comparing identical inputs across users”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test identical passwords generate distinct stored hashes and benchmark cost” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 241
A cryptographic device leaks information through request timing. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Apply constant-time or side-channel-resistant implementation techniques
Encrypt all test requests while retaining key-dependent comparisons with early exit behavior
Obscure API response contents but keep secret-dependent branches with different execution times
Add random network delay only to one response path without addressing the underlying timing leak
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math. “Encrypt all test requests while retaining key-dependent comparisons with early exit behavior” does not supply that control; “Apply constant-time or side-channel-resistant implementation techniques” addresses the identified gap, and “Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math. “Obscure API response contents but keep secret-dependent branches with different execution times” addresses neither the required “Apply constant-time or side-channel-resistant implementation techniques” action nor its supporting evidence: “Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs”.
D:
Implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math. “Add random network delay only to one response path without addressing the underlying timing leak” does not supply that control; “Apply constant-time or side-channel-resistant implementation techniques” addresses the identified gap, and “Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs” verifies the result.
Question 242
A cryptographic device leaks information through request timing. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Test only whether cryptographic outputs are mathematically correct rather than timing-invariant
Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs
Measure average latency for a single secret input without comparing input-dependent distributions
Check CPU utilization while withholding any timing analysis of sensitive operations
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Test only whether cryptographic outputs are mathematically correct rather than timing-invariant” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs”, reflecting the requirement that implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math.
C:
“Measure average latency for a single secret input without comparing input-dependent distributions” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs”, reflecting the requirement that implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math.
D:
“Check CPU utilization while withholding any timing analysis of sensitive operations” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Apply constant-time or side-channel-resistant implementation techniques” works. Implementation side channels can reveal information without breaking the cipher math. The decisive test is “Compare timing distributions for secret-dependent inputs”.
Question 243
A client accepts any certificate during TLS establishment. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Trust certificates that have expired if the connection is over a private network
Disable certificate-chain validation and rely on a client display of a padlock icon
Require proper hostname, certificate-chain and validity checks
Accept TLS connections whenever payload encryption succeeds, even with a mismatched hostname
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Trust certificates that have expired if the connection is over a private network” leaves the essential control missing: encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. The direct corrective action is “Require proper hostname, certificate-chain and validity checks”, validated by the acceptance check “Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection”.
B:
“Disable certificate-chain validation and rely on a client display of a padlock icon” would not establish the protection described: encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. The necessary change is “Require proper hostname, certificate-chain and validity checks” with the verification “Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection”.
D:
“Accept TLS connections whenever payload encryption succeeds, even with a mismatched hostname” would not establish the protection described: encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. The necessary change is “Require proper hostname, certificate-chain and validity checks” with the verification “Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection”.
Question 244
A client accepts any certificate during TLS establishment. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check a certificate file is installed rather than the TLS client's actual trust decision
Confirm a genuine certificate works but never attempt an untrusted intermediary certificate
Inspect cipher-suite strength without validating certificate-chain and hostname rejection
Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Check a certificate file is installed rather than the TLS client's actual trust decision” would not verify the relevant control. Encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection” because encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. “Confirm a genuine certificate works but never attempt an untrusted intermediary certificate” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Inspect cipher-suite strength without validating certificate-chain and hostname rejection” would not verify the relevant control. Encrypted traffic to an attacker is still a man-in-the-middle failure. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Insert an untrusted intermediary certificate and verify connection rejection”.
Question 245
An attacker can repeatedly submit chosen ciphertexts and observe decryption errors. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Adopt authenticated encryption and avoid distinguishable decryption error oracles
Return distinct parsing errors for malformed ciphertext and trust callers not to probe repeatedly
Use unauthenticated encryption and expose padding-check success to unauthenticated clients
Rate-limit requests while retaining secret-dependent decryption error categories
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Return distinct parsing errors for malformed ciphertext and trust callers not to probe repeatedly” is not the relevant mitigation. Chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. The scenario calls for “Adopt authenticated encryption and avoid distinguishable decryption error oracles”; the acceptance check is “Run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection”.
C:
The proposal “Use unauthenticated encryption and expose padding-check success to unauthenticated clients” does not meet the relevant requirement because chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. The matching remediation is “Adopt authenticated encryption and avoid distinguishable decryption error oracles”.
D:
“Rate-limit requests while retaining secret-dependent decryption error categories” is not the relevant mitigation. Chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. The scenario calls for “Adopt authenticated encryption and avoid distinguishable decryption error oracles”; the acceptance check is “Run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection”.
Question 246
An attacker can repeatedly submit chosen ciphertexts and observe decryption errors. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check request throttling without comparing messages for different decryption failures
Run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection
Review the cipher's published strength without probing the application's error oracle
Confirm valid ciphertext decrypts but never submit malformed values to test rejection consistency
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. The proposed check, “Check request throttling without comparing messages for different decryption failures”, misses the relevant outcome; “Run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior. The proposed check, “Review the cipher's published strength without probing the application's error oracle”, misses the relevant outcome; “Run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Confirm valid ciphertext decrypts but never submit malformed values to test rejection consistency” does not show the required outcome: run malformed-ciphertext probes and check uniform rejection. That test matters because chosen-ciphertext attacks exploit unsafe decryption behavior.
Question 247
A data center is planned beside a floodplain with recurring severe storms. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Increase firewall redundancy while ignoring correlated flooding risk to the facility
Select the floodplain data-center site solely on lower electricity pricing without evaluating storm exposure
Assess environmental hazards before selecting the site and recovery design
Buy additional cyber insurance but leave the physical site and recovery geography unchanged
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
A strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that a strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk. “Increase firewall redundancy while ignoring correlated flooding risk to the facility” addresses neither the required “Assess environmental hazards before selecting the site and recovery design” action nor its supporting evidence: “Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls”.
B:
A strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk. “Select the floodplain data-center site solely on lower electricity pricing without evaluating storm exposure” does not supply that control; “Assess environmental hazards before selecting the site and recovery design” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls” verifies the result.
D:
A strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk. “Buy additional cyber insurance but leave the physical site and recovery geography unchanged” does not supply that control; “Assess environmental hazards before selecting the site and recovery design” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls” verifies the result.
Question 248
A data center is planned beside a floodplain with recurring severe storms. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify land ownership and network links without reviewing flood hazard maps and siting approval
Inspect disaster insurance coverage without evaluating geographic recovery dependencies
Confirm racks are installed securely while the selected area remains vulnerable to severe storms
Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
A strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify land ownership and network links without reviewing flood hazard maps and siting approval” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls”, reflecting the requirement that a strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk.
B:
“Inspect disaster insurance coverage without evaluating geographic recovery dependencies” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Assess environmental hazards before selecting the site and recovery design” works. A strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk. The decisive test is “Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls”.
C:
“Confirm racks are installed securely while the selected area remains vulnerable to severe storms” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify hazard mapping and approved site selection controls”, reflecting the requirement that a strong firewall does not mitigate physical-site geographic risk.
Question 249
A secure room shares wall space with an uncontrolled public storage area. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Design a defensible physical boundary and monitored entry controls
Depend on employee training rather than hardening the public storage area's adjoining boundary
Install motion sensors inside the room while unauthorized access through the uncontrolled wall remains possible
Put a badge reader on the secure room door but leave an accessible opening through the shared wall
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Depend on employee training rather than hardening the public storage area's adjoining boundary” would not establish the protection described: trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The necessary change is “Design a defensible physical boundary and monitored entry controls” with the verification “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
C:
“Install motion sensors inside the room while unauthorized access through the uncontrolled wall remains possible” leaves the essential control missing: trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The direct corrective action is “Design a defensible physical boundary and monitored entry controls”, validated by the acceptance check “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
D:
“Put a badge reader on the secure room door but leave an accessible opening through the shared wall” would not establish the protection described: trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The necessary change is “Design a defensible physical boundary and monitored entry controls” with the verification “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
Question 250
A secure room shares wall space with an uncontrolled public storage area. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect an architectural drawing without an attempted boundary penetration test
Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing
Verify authorized staff can enter through the secure door but never attempt access from the public area
Review badge logs only, ignoring breaches through the shared wall and ceiling
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Inspect an architectural drawing without an attempted boundary penetration test” would not verify the relevant control. Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
C:
An observation of “Verify authorized staff can enter through the secure door but never attempt access from the public area” would not verify the relevant control. Trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Inspect boundary plans and conduct attempted unauthorized entry testing” because trust boundaries apply to buildings as well as network segments. “Review badge logs only, ignoring breaches through the shared wall and ceiling” cannot establish that result.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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