Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 22
Question 210
A remote sensor requires physical access prevention and tamper evidence. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify the sensor still reports readings but not whether forced access generated an alert
Inspect tamper events against physical access attempts
Read installation diagrams without correlating an actual physical intrusion with tamper events
Inspect a camera recording without testing enclosure-open or cable-tamper detection
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Environmental placement changes the feasible control set. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect tamper events against physical access attempts.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Environmental placement changes the feasible control set. The proposed check, “Verify the sensor still reports readings but not whether forced access generated an alert”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect tamper events against physical access attempts” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
C:
Environmental placement changes the feasible control set. The proposed check, “Read installation diagrams without correlating an actual physical intrusion with tamper events”, misses the relevant outcome; “Inspect tamper events against physical access attempts” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
D:
“Inspect a camera recording without testing enclosure-open or cable-tamper detection” does not show the required outcome: inspect tamper events against physical access attempts. That test matters because environmental placement changes the feasible control set.
Question 211
Encryption keys are stored in application configuration alongside ciphertext. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Rotate data encryption algorithms while leaving decryption key material alongside ciphertext
Encrypt the configuration file yet store its decryption key in the same repository directory
Move key material to a controlled key-management service or hardware-protected store
Move the application secrets to a shared spreadsheet accessible by all deployment maintainers
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect configuration and key access logs for separation.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data. “Rotate data encryption algorithms while leaving decryption key material alongside ciphertext” addresses neither the required “Move key material to a controlled key-management service or hardware-protected store” action nor its supporting evidence: “Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation”.
B:
Encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data. “Encrypt the configuration file yet store its decryption key in the same repository directory” does not supply that control; “Move key material to a controlled key-management service or hardware-protected store” addresses the identified gap, and “Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation” verifies the result.
D:
Encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data. “Move the application secrets to a shared spreadsheet accessible by all deployment maintainers” does not supply that control; “Move key material to a controlled key-management service or hardware-protected store” addresses the identified gap, and “Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation” verifies the result.
Question 212
Encryption keys are stored in application configuration alongside ciphertext. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm that ciphertext is unreadable without checking whether the accompanying key is accessible
Verify a vault exists but not that application configuration no longer contains usable keys
Inspect encryption settings while privileged key access remains unrecorded and unrestricted
Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm that ciphertext is unreadable without checking whether the accompanying key is accessible” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation”, reflecting the requirement that encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data.
B:
“Verify a vault exists but not that application configuration no longer contains usable keys” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Move key material to a controlled key-management service or hardware-protected store” works. Encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data. The decisive test is “Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation”.
C:
“Inspect encryption settings while privileged key access remains unrecorded and unrestricted” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Inspect configuration and key access logs for separation”, reflecting the requirement that encryption is undermined when attackers obtain the key with the data.
Question 213
A desktop memory exploit targets execution through writable buffers. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Enable hardware-supported non-executable memory protections and memory-safe design
Depend on antivirus signature scanning without enabling non-executable-memory controls
Increase stack allocation sizes while retaining the vulnerable writable-and-executable memory layout
Mark executable files as read-only but continue allowing execution of code in writable data pages
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Depend on antivirus signature scanning without enabling non-executable-memory controls” would not establish the protection described: memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. The necessary change is “Enable hardware-supported non-executable memory protections and memory-safe design” with the verification “Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked”.
C:
“Increase stack allocation sizes while retaining the vulnerable writable-and-executable memory layout” leaves the essential control missing: memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. The direct corrective action is “Enable hardware-supported non-executable memory protections and memory-safe design”, validated by the acceptance check “Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked”.
D:
“Mark executable files as read-only but continue allowing execution of code in writable data pages” would not establish the protection described: memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. The necessary change is “Enable hardware-supported non-executable memory protections and memory-safe design” with the verification “Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked”.
Question 214
A desktop memory exploit targets execution through writable buffers. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify the program compiles with debug symbols instead of testing executable-buffer injection
Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked
Confirm that a legitimate application still executes without probing data-page execution
Check antivirus alerts for known malware but not the memory permission boundary
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Verify the program compiles with debug symbols instead of testing executable-buffer injection” would not verify the relevant control. Memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked”.
C:
An observation of “Confirm that a legitimate application still executes without probing data-page execution” would not verify the relevant control. Memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Verify executable injection into writable memory is blocked” because memory execution permissions reduce exploitability but do not fix every bug. “Check antivirus alerts for known malware but not the memory permission boundary” cannot establish that result.
Question 215
A laptop's disk encryption unlocks without reliable device identity verification. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Use full-disk encryption with a shared unlock password but no measured-boot integrity assurance
Require a local login pin while permitting arbitrary unsigned changes to the boot environment
Use trusted boot measurements and device-bound cryptographic protection
Protect files with transport TLS but ignore whether a modified boot loader can release the disk key
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Use full-disk encryption with a shared unlock password but no measured-boot integrity assurance” does not meet the relevant requirement because TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. The matching remediation is “Use trusted boot measurements and device-bound cryptographic protection”.
B:
“Require a local login pin while permitting arbitrary unsigned changes to the boot environment” is not the relevant mitigation. TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. The scenario calls for “Use trusted boot measurements and device-bound cryptographic protection”; the acceptance check is “Check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes”.
D:
“Protect files with transport TLS but ignore whether a modified boot loader can release the disk key” is not the relevant mitigation. TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. The scenario calls for “Use trusted boot measurements and device-bound cryptographic protection”; the acceptance check is “Check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes”.
Question 216
A laptop's disk encryption unlocks without reliable device identity verification. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Check a successful normal boot while never validating tampered measured-boot state
Review login-policy compliance instead of verifying TPM-backed attestation behavior
Confirm the disk is encrypted without attempting unauthorized boot-component changes
Check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes.
Incorrect Answers
A:
TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. The proposed check, “Check a successful normal boot while never validating tampered measured-boot state”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Review login-policy compliance instead of verifying TPM-backed attestation behavior” does not show the required outcome: check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes. That test matters because TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords.
C:
TPM-backed attestation protects platform trust signals beyond simple passwords. The proposed check, “Confirm the disk is encrypted without attempting unauthorized boot-component changes”, misses the relevant outcome; “Check measured boot or attestation fails after unauthorized boot changes” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 217
A hypervisor host mixes trusted and untrusted tenant machines. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Enforce supported hypervisor isolation and timely firmware and host updates
Use host firewall rules only while permitting direct cross-guest memory access through vulnerable devices
Permit untrusted tenants to share privileged host devices without guest-isolation enforcement
Patch each virtual guest but leave the hypervisor and host firmware outside the maintenance baseline
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity. “Use host firewall rules only while permitting direct cross-guest memory access through vulnerable devices” does not supply that control; “Enforce supported hypervisor isolation and timely firmware and host updates” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity. “Permit untrusted tenants to share privileged host devices without guest-isolation enforcement” addresses neither the required “Enforce supported hypervisor isolation and timely firmware and host updates” action nor its supporting evidence: “Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing”.
D:
Guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity. “Patch each virtual guest but leave the hypervisor and host firmware outside the maintenance baseline” does not supply that control; “Enforce supported hypervisor isolation and timely firmware and host updates” addresses the identified gap, and “Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing” verifies the result.
Question 218
A hypervisor host mixes trusted and untrusted tenant machines. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm one guest can access its own files without testing cross-tenant isolation
Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing
Review guest OS update reports but not host firmware and hypervisor patch status
Inspect virtual network segmentation without attempting prohibited guest-to-guest memory access
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Confirm one guest can access its own files without testing cross-tenant isolation” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing”, reflecting the requirement that guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity.
C:
“Review guest OS update reports but not host firmware and hypervisor patch status” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing”, reflecting the requirement that guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity.
D:
“Inspect virtual network segmentation without attempting prohibited guest-to-guest memory access” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Enforce supported hypervisor isolation and timely firmware and host updates” works. Guest isolation depends on virtualization boundaries and host integrity. The decisive test is “Attempt prohibited guest-to-guest memory access in controlled testing”.
Question 219
A manufacturing controller is business-critical but cannot tolerate intrusive scans. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Apply standard IT reboot and patch windows to safety-critical controllers without process-owner review
Monitor only office network logs while OT segments remain reachable and unmanaged
Segment operational technology and use passive assessment coordinated with process owners
Run unauthorised aggressive network scans against active controllers because the plant is isolated
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Apply standard IT reboot and patch windows to safety-critical controllers without process-owner review” leaves the essential control missing: OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. The direct corrective action is “Segment operational technology and use passive assessment coordinated with process owners”, validated by the acceptance check “Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals”.
B:
“Monitor only office network logs while OT segments remain reachable and unmanaged” would not establish the protection described: OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. The necessary change is “Segment operational technology and use passive assessment coordinated with process owners” with the verification “Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals”.
D:
“Run unauthorised aggressive network scans against active controllers because the plant is isolated” would not establish the protection described: OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. The necessary change is “Segment operational technology and use passive assessment coordinated with process owners” with the verification “Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals”.
Question 220
A manufacturing controller is business-critical but cannot tolerate intrusive scans. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify segmentation on a diagram without testing allowed traffic between plant and corporate networks
Confirm a scan completes without reviewing whether process stability and safety were affected
Check IT vulnerability scores but ignore passive OT telemetry and approved test boundaries
Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Verify segmentation on a diagram without testing allowed traffic between plant and corporate networks” would not verify the relevant control. OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals” because OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. “Confirm a scan completes without reviewing whether process stability and safety were affected” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Check IT vulnerability scores but ignore passive OT telemetry and approved test boundaries” would not verify the relevant control. OT safety and availability constraints can prohibit standard active tests. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Review passive telemetry and scheduled safe test approvals”.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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