CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Practice Test 23
Question 220
A project manager adopts: Apply the corporate removable-media policy and supported endpoint data protection controls. It addresses: A mobile field-team project permits personal removable drives to copy regulated customer documents. Why is the choice appropriate?
- Physical and endpoint security requirements extend to portable storage and mobile-device use.
- Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials.
- Operational security includes personnel trust checks alongside technical authentication.
- Privacy obligations depend on sensitive data type, jurisdiction and processing purpose.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The most relevant project management principle is: Physical and endpoint security requirements extend to portable storage and mobile-device use. That supports the selected response: Apply the corporate removable-media policy and supported endpoint data protection controls. The original condition was: A mobile field-team project permits personal removable drives to copy regulated customer documents. The associated exposure is: Uncontrolled devices can create loss, malware and confidential-data disclosure risks. An objective validation is: A controlled unauthorized media transfer is blocked and approved alternatives remain usable.
Incorrect Answers
B:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: An engineering repository includes unencrypted customer API keys and contractors are granted unrestricted download access. The related control is: Classify sensitive technical material and limit access on a need-to-know basis with appropriate controls. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Physical and endpoint security requirements extend to portable storage and mobile-device use.
C:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A regulated facility project sends high-trust operational credentials to personnel who have not completed required screening. The related control is: Verify applicable background and clearance prerequisites before granting sensitive operational access. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Physical and endpoint security requirements extend to portable storage and mobile-device use.
D:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A global customer portal gathers names and birthdates but the project plan treats them as ordinary unrestricted test data. The related control is: Identify applicable personally identifiable information handling and privacy requirements before processing. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Physical and endpoint security requirements extend to portable storage and mobile-device use.
Question 221
The recommended action is: Reassess both risks with separate probability and consequence scoring and prioritize the larger exposure. In this situation: A project assigns the same low-probability risk score to a minor cosmetic defect and a catastrophic data loss event. What would verify effectiveness?
- The risk matrix ranks the two events by evaluated impact and records appropriate response owners.
- The opportunity register shows the enhancement investment and measured benefit compared with baseline.
- The risk register contains an owner, trigger, response and reviewed exposure score.
- The dashboard reconciles defect leakage, accepted outcomes, cost variance and delivery trends.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The strongest confirmation is: The risk matrix ranks the two events by evaluated impact and records appropriate response owners. It directly validates: Reassess both risks with separate probability and consequence scoring and prioritize the larger exposure. The original business problem was: A project assigns the same low-probability risk score to a minor cosmetic defect and a catastrophic data loss event. The relevant principle is: Qualitative risk analysis combines likelihood and impact rather than ranking events on probability alone. Otherwise, a catastrophic loss could remain untreated while low-impact items consume the contingency budget.
Incorrect Answers
B:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Enhance the positive risk by investing in expertise that increases the opportunity's likelihood and impact. That measure addresses: A pilot reveals an opportunity to deploy a highly reusable API that would increase benefits if extra expertise is allocated. For this project, the required proof is: The risk matrix ranks the two events by evaluated impact and records appropriate response owners.
C:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Record the uncertain supplier outage as a risk with probability, impact, owner and planned response. That measure addresses: A supplier outage may delay a migration but no outage has yet occurred. For this project, the required proof is: The risk matrix ranks the two events by evaluated impact and records appropriate response owners.
D:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Define relevant KPIs and inspect them against approved objectives and performance thresholds. That measure addresses: A sprint team marks every output as complete without measuring quality, costs or target outcomes. For this project, the required proof is: The risk matrix ranks the two events by evaluated impact and records appropriate response owners.
Question 222
The project team selects: Classify sensitive technical material and limit access on a need-to-know basis with appropriate controls. The reason is: An engineering repository includes unencrypted customer API keys and contractors are granted unrestricted download access. What principle BEST supports the decision?
- Physical access control complements digital permissions for sensitive IT assets.
- Identity access controls should account for remote access risk and protect privileged sessions.
- Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials.
- Privacy controls may differ by country and contract, shaping architecture and vendor selection.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The most relevant project management principle is: Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials. That supports the selected response: Classify sensitive technical material and limit access on a need-to-know basis with appropriate controls. The original condition was: An engineering repository includes unencrypted customer API keys and contractors are granted unrestricted download access. The associated exposure is: Leaked keys can expose customer data or allow unauthorized service use. An objective validation is: Permission tests deny unnecessary contractors and secret scanning detects the seeded test credential.
Incorrect Answers
A:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A restricted network project grants building access cards to all temporary delivery staff without zone checks. The related control is: Scope physical facility entry to authorized zones and time periods with review. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials.
B:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A contractor accesses an internal administration portal from outside the company without additional sign-in verification. The related control is: Enforce appropriate remote-access policy and multifactor authentication for protected systems. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials.
D:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A multinational payroll migration stores employee records in a country not allowed by the relevant processing agreement. The related control is: Review jurisdiction-specific data residency and transfer rules before choosing storage geography. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials.
Question 223
During an IT project, the following safeguard is omitted: Use an approved restricted communication channel with access controls and retention appropriate to the information. The issue is: A project handles confidential vendor pricing in an unrestricted public team chat. Which exposure remains most direct?
- A technically sent notice may fail to reach the person authorized to approve a change.
- Unrecorded verbal decisions cause incompatible implementation choices and weak accountability.
- An undocumented exception can create untracked security exposure and invalidate release acceptance.
- Sensitive pricing and contract information can be disclosed to unauthorized collaborators.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The directly relevant exposure is: Sensitive pricing and contract information can be disclosed to unauthorized collaborators. The observed situation is: A project handles confidential vendor pricing in an unrestricted public team chat. The missing measure is: Use an approved restricted communication channel with access controls and retention appropriate to the information. Its management rationale is: Communication security requires protecting integrity, confidentiality and authorized distribution of records. A corrective verification would show: Channel access tests deny nonmembers and preserved approval records remain retrievable.
Incorrect Answers
A:This consequence is associated more closely with another project situation: A sponsor repeatedly misses schedule changes because the communication plan lists a mailbox no one monitors. That other situation calls for: Revise the communication plan and confirm delivery, acknowledgement and escalation for critical updates. The case being assessed has the more direct exposure: Sensitive pricing and contract information can be disclosed to unauthorized collaborators.
B:This consequence is associated more closely with another project situation: A globally distributed development team misses critical approvals because decisions are made only in informal voice calls. That other situation calls for: Establish a documented communication plan with accessible asynchronous decision records. The case being assessed has the more direct exposure: Sensitive pricing and contract information can be disclosed to unauthorized collaborators.
C:This consequence is associated more closely with another project situation: A project developer implements an unapproved security exception because a customer requested it verbally. That other situation calls for: Restore the controlled baseline and route the exception through authorized change approval and security review. The case being assessed has the more direct exposure: Sensitive pricing and contract information can be disclosed to unauthorized collaborators.
Question 224
A project manager adopts: Perform initial risk assessment and assign owners and contingencies during planning. It addresses: An application project identifies vendor dependence but no response strategy before the schedule is baselined. Why is the choice appropriate?
- Planning decomposes deliverable scope so cost, dependency and schedule estimates can be grounded.
- An integrated plan aligns governance assumptions across competing project constraints.
- Engagement planning should include all parties who influence or receive project outcomes.
- Risk planning is most useful before uncertainty becomes a critical delivery issue.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The most relevant project management principle is: Risk planning is most useful before uncertainty becomes a critical delivery issue. That supports the selected response: Perform initial risk assessment and assign owners and contingencies during planning. The original condition was: An application project identifies vendor dependence but no response strategy before the schedule is baselined. The associated exposure is: A known vendor delay may leave no alternative delivery route. An objective validation is: The risk register lists probable delays, fallback suppliers and escalation triggers.
Incorrect Answers
A:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: An IT deployment team has a list of high-level features but no decomposition into estimable units. The related control is: Build a work breakdown structure or appropriately refined backlog and assign ownership to manageable work items. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Risk planning is most useful before uncertainty becomes a critical delivery issue.
B:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: The board authorizes scope and budget but no plan addresses how the various management components fit together. The related control is: Consolidate scope, schedule, cost, risk, quality and communication plans into one coherent project management plan. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Risk planning is most useful before uncertainty becomes a critical delivery issue.
C:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A regulatory monitoring rollout begins with a single department's requests despite multiple business units having control responsibilities. The related control is: Perform structured stakeholder assessment and align acceptance criteria across impacted functions. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Risk planning is most useful before uncertainty becomes a critical delivery issue.
Question 225
A delivery team decides to: Document the intended multitier architecture and isolate presentation, application and data responsibilities. In the context: A three-tier enterprise application stores client pages, business logic and data in one exposed database server. Which principle explains why?
- A CMS organizes publishing and collaboration while records management addresses retention, evidentiary control and disposition.
- PaaS abstracts portions of infrastructure management while the customer remains responsible for application behavior.
- A multitier design separates functions and enables differentiated security and scaling boundaries.
- Project impacts on brand value are part of broader organizational governance considerations.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The most relevant project management principle is: A multitier design separates functions and enables differentiated security and scaling boundaries. That supports the selected response: Document the intended multitier architecture and isolate presentation, application and data responsibilities. The original condition was: A three-tier enterprise application stores client pages, business logic and data in one exposed database server. The associated exposure is: Direct client database exposure can expand attack surface and complicate maintenance. An objective validation is: An architecture test confirms clients use the approved application tier and cannot directly reach the database.
Incorrect Answers
A:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A document modernization plan treats a content management system and electronic records management as identical. The related control is: Select content collaboration and formal records-control functions according to the organization's lifecycle obligations. The principle relevant to the stated case is: A multitier design separates functions and enables differentiated security and scaling boundaries.
B:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A development team needs to deploy application code without managing underlying web-server operating systems. The related control is: Select a suitable platform-as-a-service model with supported runtime and deployment controls. The principle relevant to the stated case is: A multitier design separates functions and enables differentiated security and scaling boundaries.
D:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A consumer-facing product project uses brand imagery inconsistent with a newly issued corporate public commitment. The related control is: Review brand and reputational impacts with the authorized communications and governance owners. The principle relevant to the stated case is: A multitier design separates functions and enables differentiated security and scaling boundaries.
Question 226
A PM uses the control: Publish a decision-focused agenda, timebox discussion and document action items with owners. To address: A project meeting runs for two hours without decisions, an agenda or assigned follow-ups. Which acceptance evidence should be documented?
- The completed workshop record includes business-owner validation of each prioritized requirement.
- Minutes capture decisions, assigned actions, due dates and follow-up verification.
- The short daily check-in records blockers while a separate technical session resolves design questions.
- An approved skills matrix maps the required network tasks to available qualified people.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The strongest confirmation is: Minutes capture decisions, assigned actions, due dates and follow-up verification. It directly validates: Publish a decision-focused agenda, timebox discussion and document action items with owners. The original business problem was: A project meeting runs for two hours without decisions, an agenda or assigned follow-ups. The relevant principle is: Meeting discipline connects purpose, relevant attendees and accountable outputs to efficient coordination. Otherwise, repeated meetings can consume capacity while unresolved blockers are never assigned.
Incorrect Answers
A:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Invite the necessary business participants and facilitate a structured collaborative workshop. That measure addresses: A cross-functional requirements workshop includes engineers but omits the customer process owner. For this project, the required proof is: Minutes capture decisions, assigned actions, due dates and follow-up verification.
C:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Timebox the stand-up and move detailed problem solving to a separate focused session. That measure addresses: A daily Scrum stand-up becomes a lengthy architecture review and prevents the team from completing its check-in. For this project, the required proof is: Minutes capture decisions, assigned actions, due dates and follow-up verification.
D:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Perform a skills gap assessment and acquire suitable networking expertise or training. That measure addresses: A team repeatedly struggles with cloud networking tasks but plans to hire more general developers. For this project, the required proof is: Minutes capture decisions, assigned actions, due dates and follow-up verification.
Question 227
The project team selects: Verify applicable background and clearance prerequisites before granting sensitive operational access. The reason is: A regulated facility project sends high-trust operational credentials to personnel who have not completed required screening. What principle BEST supports the decision?
- Physical access control complements digital permissions for sensitive IT assets.
- Operational security includes personnel trust checks alongside technical authentication.
- Data classification and least privilege reduce disclosure of intellectual property and credentials.
- Privacy obligations depend on sensitive data type, jurisdiction and processing purpose.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The most relevant project management principle is: Operational security includes personnel trust checks alongside technical authentication. That supports the selected response: Verify applicable background and clearance prerequisites before granting sensitive operational access. The original condition was: A regulated facility project sends high-trust operational credentials to personnel who have not completed required screening. The associated exposure is: Unscreened personnel may gain privileged access contrary to organizational security rules. An objective validation is: Access records show required screening approvals before privileges were activated.
Incorrect Answers
A:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A restricted network project grants building access cards to all temporary delivery staff without zone checks. The related control is: Scope physical facility entry to authorized zones and time periods with review. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Operational security includes personnel trust checks alongside technical authentication.
C:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: An engineering repository includes unencrypted customer API keys and contractors are granted unrestricted download access. The related control is: Classify sensitive technical material and limit access on a need-to-know basis with appropriate controls. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Operational security includes personnel trust checks alongside technical authentication.
D:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A global customer portal gathers names and birthdates but the project plan treats them as ordinary unrestricted test data. The related control is: Identify applicable personally identifiable information handling and privacy requirements before processing. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Operational security includes personnel trust checks alongside technical authentication.
Question 228
Project governance recommends: Represent compatible overlapping tasks with a justified start-to-start dependency. The original problem is: An external circuit provider can begin provisioning while the team is preparing application servers. What technical or management rationale applies?
- Routine forecast maintenance differs from formally revising the committed schedule baseline.
- Start-to-start dependencies constrain task initiation while allowing compatible work to proceed concurrently.
- Finish-to-start relationships require predecessor completion before successor work can begin.
- A portfolio balances investments and strategic alignment across projects and programs without requiring shared deliverables.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The most relevant project management principle is: Start-to-start dependencies constrain task initiation while allowing compatible work to proceed concurrently. That supports the selected response: Represent compatible overlapping tasks with a justified start-to-start dependency. The original condition was: An external circuit provider can begin provisioning while the team is preparing application servers. The associated exposure is: Forcing all work into finish-to-start order can add unnecessary idle time and distort the critical path. An objective validation is: The scheduling tool shows provisioning and server preparation begin under the documented dependency rule.
Incorrect Answers
A:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A release milestone slips but the PM proposes changing the approved schedule baseline without recording approval. The related control is: Preserve the original baseline for variance reporting and seek formal rebaseline authorization if justified. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Start-to-start dependencies constrain task initiation while allowing compatible work to proceed concurrently.
C:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: A development team assumes integration testing can start before any API implementation has finished. The related control is: Model the mandatory finish-to-start dependency and calculate the resulting schedule effect. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Start-to-start dependencies constrain task initiation while allowing compatible work to proceed concurrently.
D:This rationale is more closely linked to a different project issue: An executive asks a technical project manager to prioritize unrelated cloud, network and analytics initiatives across the enterprise. The related control is: Use portfolio-level selection and prioritization rather than treating all unrelated initiatives as one delivery project. The principle relevant to the stated case is: Start-to-start dependencies constrain task initiation while allowing compatible work to proceed concurrently.
Question 229
During an IT project, the following safeguard is omitted: Store controlled documentation in a version-control system with reviewed changes. The issue is: A team uses personal file names to manage multiple versions of the release specification and repeatedly merges the wrong draft. Which exposure remains most direct?
- Known failed tests could remain open because staff treat them as uncertain future conditions.
- An obsolete specification can silently replace the approved release document.
- A critical compliance requirement could remain untested while all known tests appear green.
- A manager may claim causation from unmatched data and fund ineffective changes.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The directly relevant exposure is: An obsolete specification can silently replace the approved release document. The observed situation is: A team uses personal file names to manage multiple versions of the release specification and repeatedly merges the wrong draft. The missing measure is: Store controlled documentation in a version-control system with reviewed changes. Its management rationale is: Version control records changes and supports reproducibility, review and rollback of approved artifacts. A corrective verification would show: A reviewer can identify the approved revision, authorship history and content diff.
Incorrect Answers
A:This consequence is associated more closely with another project situation: A release has active defects in testing but the project risk register contains only hypothetical future events. That other situation calls for: Track observed product defects in a defect log with reproduction and resolution evidence. The case being assessed has the more direct exposure: An obsolete specification can silently replace the approved release document.
C:This consequence is associated more closely with another project situation: A team sees many requirements and test cases but cannot determine which requirement lacks verification. That other situation calls for: Maintain a requirements traceability matrix linking requirements, implementations and test results. The case being assessed has the more direct exposure: An obsolete specification can silently replace the approved release document.
D:This consequence is associated more closely with another project situation: A delivery manager wants to understand whether increasing test coverage is associated with fewer escaped defects. That other situation calls for: Use a scatter diagram of paired coverage and escaped-defect observations. The case being assessed has the more direct exposure: An obsolete specification can silently replace the approved release document.
Question 230
For a Project+ initiative: A three-tier enterprise application stores client pages, business logic and data in one exposed database server. The selected action is: Document the intended multitier architecture and isolate presentation, application and data responsibilities. Which observable result is BEST evidence?
- The selected SaaS pilot meets core requirements while documenting remaining configuration responsibilities.
- A pilot deploys code through the managed platform while application security tests still run.
- The compliance review names the applicable threshold, reporting owner and supporting evidence.
- An architecture test confirms clients use the approved application tier and cannot directly reach the database.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The strongest confirmation is: An architecture test confirms clients use the approved application tier and cannot directly reach the database. It directly validates: Document the intended multitier architecture and isolate presentation, application and data responsibilities. The original business problem was: A three-tier enterprise application stores client pages, business logic and data in one exposed database server. The relevant principle is: A multitier design separates functions and enables differentiated security and scaling boundaries. Otherwise, direct client database exposure can expand attack surface and complicate maintenance.
Incorrect Answers
A:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Assess an appropriate software-as-a-service option against the required features and controls. That measure addresses: A business team wants a ready-to-use collaboration application but developers propose building and hosting a custom messaging service. For this project, the required proof is: An architecture test confirms clients use the approved application tier and cannot directly reach the database.
B:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Select a suitable platform-as-a-service model with supported runtime and deployment controls. That measure addresses: A development team needs to deploy application code without managing underlying web-server operating systems. For this project, the required proof is: An architecture test confirms clients use the approved application tier and cannot directly reach the database.
C:The proposed evidence would validate a separate management measure: Identify relevant environmental standards and notify compliance stakeholders before authorization. That measure addresses: A platform consolidation plan crosses a local environmental reporting threshold that the team has not reviewed. For this project, the required proof is: An architecture test confirms clients use the approved application tier and cannot directly reach the database.