Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) 200-301 Practice Test 8
Question 70
An IPv4 ACL should match only `192.0.2.64/27`. It instead uses `192.0.2.64 0.0.0.63`, allowing packets from .96 onward. Which change corrects the match?
Keep wildcard 0.0.0.63 because /27 has exactly 64 addresses.
Use wildcard `0.0.0.31` with network `192.0.2.64` for the intended /27.
Set wildcard 0.0.0.255, which restricts the ACL to 32 consecutive addresses.
Use subnet mask 255.255.255.224 as the wildcard on the ACL line.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
An ACL wildcard is the bitwise complement of the subnet mask. /27 is 255.255.255.224, so its final wildcard octet is 31. The current wildcard 63 matches a /26-sized range (.64–.127).
Incorrect Answers
A:
A /27 has 32 addresses, while a 63 wildcard permits 64 values in the low-order six bits.
C:
A 255 wildcard would ignore the full final octet, allowing 256 address values.
D:
ACL network matching uses an inverse/wildcard mask in this context; 255.255.255.224 is the regular subnet mask, not its wildcard complement.
Question 71
An engineer needs to advertise only the four /24 LANs `10.20.4.0/24` through `10.20.7.0/24`, but advertises `10.20.0.0/21`. Why is the summary too broad?
The /21 matches only the four LANs ending at .7.255.
The correct summary is 10.20.5.0/22 because .5 is the first active host range.
A /21 includes `10.20.0.0–10.20.7.255`; the aligned summary of just 10.20.4.0–7.255 is `10.20.4.0/22`.
A router must advertise a default route /0 instead of any 10.20.x.x summary.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
The eight-/24 /21 summary inadvertently covers 10.20.0.0–3.255, possibly drawing traffic for unrelated networks. The four adjacent /24 prefixes beginning at a multiple-of-four third octet aggregate to /22.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A /21 contains eight /24 networks, not four; the 10.20.0.0/21 prefix begins at third-octet 0.
B:
A /22 must align to a multiple of four in the third octet; the proper base here is 10.20.4.0.
D:
A default route would be substantially broader than the desired four networks and does not solve unintended traffic attraction.
Question 72
A technician verifies a host at 192.0.2.77/27. Which broadcast IP should appear for the LAN segment containing that host?
192.0.2.79.
192.0.2.63.
192.0.2.95.
192.0.2.127.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
The /27 containing .77 begins at .64 and ends at .95. The last address is the directed broadcast for that subnet.
Incorrect Answers
A:
This would be the end of a /28 range beginning at .64, not a /27 broadcast.
B:
This is the broadcast of the immediately preceding /27, which covers .32–.63.
D:
That broadcast belongs to the following /27 block .96–.127 and does not contain host .77.
Question 73
A LAN uses mask 255.255.255.240. The network needs 14 simultaneous hosts TOTAL including its default gateway. Is that mask sufficient under ordinary IPv4 subnet conventions?
No. /28 provides exactly 13 usable hosts even before reserving a gateway.
Yes. /28 provides 16 usable hosts because both the network and broadcast count as ordinary hosts.
Yes. /28 provides 16 addresses, of which 14 are conventionally usable; the gateway is one of those 14.
No. /28 is a two-host point-to-point-only block.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
A /28 has 4 host bits, yielding 16 addresses and 14 conventional usable values. Since the gateway is counted in the 14 required hosts, the prefix exactly fits.
Incorrect Answers
A:
This subtracts an additional host that is already included in the 14 usable addresses; a gateway is just one of those addresses.
B:
Conventional IPv4 LANs reserve the all-zero host address for network ID and all-ones for directed broadcast, so 16 total does not mean 16 usable.
D:
A two-host conventional subnet is /30, not /28.
Question 74
After correcting two adjacent /29 transit subnets, what acceptance check best establishes that each peer interface has a valid unique address in its designated block?
Confirm that both interfaces show the same `/28` connected route after the repair.
Verify only that both ports have MAC addresses.
Calculate each /29 network and broadcast boundary, verify each interface uses one of the six usable hosts in its own block, and check connected prefixes for overlap.
Inspect the default route and ignore the two locally connected prefixes.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
A /29 contains eight addresses with six conventional usable hosts. Validating the exact network/broadcast of both allocations and their connected routes detects /28-style accidental overreach as well as invalid interface values.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The design requires distinct /29 blocks; collapsing to a /28 may recreate the unwanted overlap.
B:
Ethernet MAC presence does not establish the validity or separation of configured IPv4 subnet ranges.
D:
Default-route state cannot prove that each local routed handoff uses a valid and disjoint /29 assignment.
Question 75
Two routers share Ethernet handoff 198.51.100.20/30. R1 uses 198.51.100.21/30 and R2 uses 198.51.100.22/30. Which statement accurately identifies the usable endpoints and reserved addresses?
198.51.100.20 and 198.51.100.21 are the two usable host addresses; .23 is an extra host.
198.51.100.20 and 198.51.100.23 are usable host addresses because this is point-to-point.
Only 198.51.100.22 is usable; the /30 prefix reserves three other addresses.
198.51.100.21 and 198.51.100.22 are the usable addresses; .20 is network and .23 is broadcast.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
The /30 mask is 255.255.255.252, so subnet boundaries advance by four in the last octet. The block beginning at .20 spans .20 through .23. Its network address is .20, its broadcast is .23, and .21 and .22 are the two conventional host addresses. That matches the stated router interfaces, so both peers can be configured on the same point-to-point IPv4 subnet. Validate with each router's interface prefix and a peer ping rather than altering routing protocols to compensate for address arithmetic. This is a conventional /30, not the special /31 model where both addresses are usable.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The first address in a conventional /30 subnet identifies the network, rather than an endpoint. The address 198.51.100.20 is therefore not assignable as an interface host on the specified /30. The proposed .23 additional host would also be the directed broadcast address. The configured /30 peers are .21 and .22, which fit the conventional subnet addressing rule.
B:
A point-to-point link may use /31 addressing under RFC 3021 if both peers support it, but this scenario explicitly uses /30 masks. A /30 has two host bits, and normal network and broadcast reservations apply. The endpoints cannot both be taken from .20 and .23 merely because the physical connection has exactly two devices. The given .21 and .22 interface values are correct.
C:
A four-address /30 network has two usable host addresses, not one. The binary host fields 01 and 10 identify .21 and .22 in this block, respectively. The host values 00 and 11 are the network and broadcast addresses. There is no evidence that .21 is invalid or that a different subnet is configured. Claiming only .22 remains usable confuses prefix reservations with interface allocation.
Question 76
Routers R1 and R2 have a /31 point-to-point link 192.0.2.10/31 using RFC 3021. Which pair of addresses can the two endpoints use?
192.0.2.10 and 192.0.2.11.
192.0.2.9 and 192.0.2.10.
192.0.2.10 and 192.0.2.12.
Only 192.0.2.11, because .10 must remain a subnet broadcast address.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
For a compliant /31 point-to-point link, both values in the aligned two-address block are usable endpoints; no ordinary network/broadcast addresses are reserved for the link.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Address .9 belongs to the preceding /31 block 192.0.2.8/31, so it is not a peer in .10/31.
C:
Address .12 begins the next /31 block, not the same two-address prefix.
D:
RFC 3021 permits the formerly network/broadcast bit patterns as the two endpoint addresses of a /31 point-to-point link.
Question 77
A repaired VLSM plan must fit a 100-host department and an already provisioned 30-host department inside one `/24`. Which evidence most directly demonstrates that their assigned IPv4 blocks no longer overlap?
Count the number of devices in each department without checking subnet network addresses.
Confirm that the default gateway replies from at least one host on one subnet only.
Calculate the complete address interval for each allocated prefix and confirm the /25 and /27 use disjoint aligned ranges.
Assign the /27 the same prefix base as the /25 so routers can summarize automatically.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
The /25 supports 126 hosts and the /27 supports 30; both can fit disjointly inside a /24 if the small network is outside the /25. Checking the actual network-to-broadcast intervals detects silent overlap.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Host counts alone cannot reveal two prefixes being assigned overlapping IPv4 ranges.
B:
A local ping can succeed despite an address plan that overlaps between independent LANs.
D:
A /27 nested inside the department /25 creates exactly the overlap the repair is supposed to remove.
Question 78
An extended IPv4 ACL should match source hosts in 192.0.2.64/27 and no addresses outside that subnet. What wildcard mask belongs with `192.0.2.64`?
0.0.0.63.
0.0.0.31.
0.0.0.15.
0.0.0.255.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
A /27 subnet mask is 255.255.255.224, whose bitwise inverse (wildcard) is 0.0.0.31. This covers exactly .64–.95.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A wildcard of 0.0.0.63 matches a 64-address range and includes addresses that are outside the intended /27.
C:
A 0.0.0.15 wildcard covers only 16 addresses and excludes part of the requested /27 block.
D:
A 0.0.0.255 wildcard covers the entire /24 and is far broader than requested.
Question 79
The intended advertisement is exactly `10.20.4.0/24` through `10.20.7.0/24`; an earlier `/21` incorrectly covered extra LANs. What routing-table evidence proves the new summary is constrained to those four /24s?
Accept `10.20.0.0/21` again because it is a shorter routing-table entry.
Verify the exported prefix is `10.20.4.0/22`, whose covered interval is .4.0–.7.255, and that no replacement /21 unintentionally attracts .0–.3.
Check only that a next-hop IP appears somewhere in the route table.
Validate a subnet mask for an unrelated point-to-point /31 link.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Four aligned contiguous /24 prefixes share a 22-bit network prefix. Checking the exact advertised CIDR and covered addresses demonstrates both inclusion of all required networks and exclusion of the extra lower networks.
Incorrect Answers
A:
A shorter table entry is not always correct; the /21 covers four additional /24s beyond the approved range.
C:
A route can have a next hop and still be advertised with the wrong overly broad destination mask.
D:
That check cannot establish the binary shared prefix of the four /24 LANs being summarized.
Question 80
A branch administrator proposes these source networks for hosts that must remain within RFC 1918 private IPv4 space. Which list contains only RFC 1918 private address blocks?
10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16
10.0.0.0/8, 172.32.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16
10.0.0.0/8, 169.254.0.0/16, and 192.168.0.0/16
100.64.0.0/10, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
RFC 1918 reserves exactly three IPv4 private ranges: 10/8, 172.16/12, and 192.168/16. The /12 range covers 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, not every 172.x address. These prefixes can be routed internally but are not intended to be advertised as ordinary publicly reachable Internet routes. When a private host reaches an external public IPv4 service, an appropriate translation or another legitimate upstream addressing design is generally required. The proposed three-prefix list correctly describes the private blocks. Operators can verify addresses by applying the mask to the binary prefix, not by memorizing that all addresses beginning with 172 are private.
Incorrect Answers
B:
172.32.0.0 falls outside the RFC 1918 172.16.0.0/12 interval, which ends at 172.31.255.255. The presence of the correct 10/8 and 192.168/16 blocks does not make 172.32/12 private. Using this as an internal private-only addressing plan can collide with legitimately allocated public space or create routing surprises. Always test the second octet boundary for 172 addresses.
C:
169.254.0.0/16 is IPv4 link-local addressing, often seen when a client cannot obtain a DHCP lease. It is not one of the three RFC 1918 private blocks and is not a substitute for a routed enterprise subnet. A host using 169.254/16 generally has only local-link communication and may lack a default gateway. Treating it as an RFC 1918 pool conceals the actual addressing failure.
D:
100.64.0.0/10 is shared address space specified for carrier-grade NAT and similar service-provider uses, not RFC 1918 private address space. The 172.16/12 and 192.168/16 members of this choice are valid private ranges, but all members must satisfy the condition. Deploying shared address space in an enterprise is a separate design decision with different interoperability concerns. It cannot replace 10/8 in an enumeration of the exact RFC 1918 blocks.
Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests
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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test Questions, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with Cisco CCNA 200-301 certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with Cisco 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with Cisco certification CCNA 200-301 exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1: Current Scope Before the 2027 Refresh
Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 is still the current CCNA exam in September 2026. Cisco has already published a future v2.0 blueprint, but the company states that v1.1 remains available through February 2, 2027 and that CCNA v2.0 begins testing on February 3, 2027. Candidates studying now therefore need to keep two facts separate: a refresh is coming, but the live exam today is still v1.1.
The current exam validates network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. That breadth is intentional. CCNA is not solely a routing exam and not solely a configuration exam; it asks candidates to understand how a modern enterprise network is built, how traffic moves through it, how common services support it, how it is secured, and how controllers and APIs are changing operations.
A 2026 CCNA article has to distinguish present scope from future scope. Cisco's current CCNA path still uses 200-301 v1.1, and Cisco's July 2026 transition guidance gives February 2, 2027 as the final day for that version. The refreshed v2.0 exam goes live the next day.
That means candidates should not silently replace the v1.1 blueprint with v2.0 material. Future topics can be useful for long-term learning, but the exam objective that controls a test taken before the changeover is v1.1. Cisco has described v2.0 as placing more practical assessment, security, AI, and troubleshooting throughout the blueprint, which makes it important context without making it the current exam yet.
Within Cisco, 200-301 remains the single core exam for the general CCNA credential. Cisco currently lists it as a 120-minute exam with no formal prerequisite.
Network fundamentals: models, media, addressing, and device roles
Everything else in CCNA depends on a clear model of how endpoints and infrastructure communicate. Candidates should understand routers, Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches, wireless access points, controllers, firewalls, servers, endpoints, and the media that connect them. They should be able to explain what changes as traffic moves from a local Ethernet segment to a remote IP network.
IPv4 subnetting and IPv6 addressing need to be operational skills rather than memorized vocabulary. Given an address and prefix, a candidate should determine the network, identify whether two hosts are local or remote, and understand when a default gateway is used. The same reasoning supports route interpretation later in the blueprint.
Physical fundamentals still matter. Interface state, duplex, speed, cable or optic choice, and device connectivity can create symptoms that resemble higher-layer problems. A good CCNA troubleshooter verifies the lower layers before rewriting routing or access-control configuration.
Network access: VLANs, trunks, STP, EtherChannel, and wireless
The network-access domain explains how devices share campus infrastructure. VLANs separate Layer 2 broadcast domains, access ports place endpoints into a VLAN, and trunks carry multiple VLANs between network devices. Candidates should understand not only the syntax of common configuration but the forwarding problem each feature solves.
Spanning Tree Protocol prevents Layer 2 loops in redundant switched networks by selecting a loop-free logical topology. EtherChannel combines multiple physical links into one logical bundle, increasing capacity and providing resiliency while requiring compatible configuration on the participating ports. These technologies interact with VLAN and trunk design, so they should be learned as a system rather than as isolated command sets.
Wireless adds another access method with different operational concerns: channels, RF behavior, SSIDs, security, access points, and controller-based architectures. CCNA does not require radio-engineering depth, but candidates should be able to recognize basic wireless components and the difference between wired switching and centrally managed wireless access.
IP connectivity: routing decisions and OSPF reasoning
Routing is where the candidate must move from address knowledge to forwarding decisions. A router compares a destination IP address against its routing table, selects the best matching route, and forwards toward the next hop or outgoing interface. Connected, static, default, and dynamically learned routes can all coexist, so candidates need to understand how the table is interpreted.
Single-area OSPF is the principal dynamic-routing protocol in the v1.1 blueprint. Learning OSPF fundamentals should focus on neighbor relationships, router IDs, link-state information, path calculation, network types, and the conditions that prevent adjacency. The exam can present outputs and ask what they imply, so conceptual troubleshooting matters as much as configuration recall.
First Hop Redundancy Protocol concepts also belong in the connectivity picture. End hosts typically know one default-gateway address, while network designers may need gateway redundancy. Understanding the purpose of a virtual gateway helps candidates see why end-host configuration can remain stable even when one physical router fails.
IP services: DHCP, NAT, DNS, NTP, SNMP, and QoS
Enterprise networks depend on services that make raw connectivity usable. DHCP automates host configuration and may require relay when clients and servers are separated by routers. NAT translates addresses at network boundaries. DNS converts names to addresses. NTP keeps time consistent, which becomes critical for logs, authentication, and troubleshooting.
Network management appears through technologies such as syslog and SNMP. Understanding SNMPv3 helps candidates connect monitoring concepts to stronger authentication and privacy than older SNMP versions provide. The exam does not reduce management to one protocol; it expects candidates to know what information these services provide and why operations teams rely on them.
QoS introduces the idea that not all traffic experiences congestion equally. Classification, marking, queuing, and policing or shaping concepts help explain how networks protect delay-sensitive applications. The objective is to understand behavior and purpose, not to become a service-provider QoS specialist.
Security fundamentals inside a networking certification
CCNA treats security as part of ordinary network administration. Candidates need to understand threats, vulnerabilities, authentication, authorization, accounting, secure device access, password policy, Layer 2 protections, wireless security, access-control lists, and the role of firewalls or intrusion-prevention systems.
The practical theme is reducing unnecessary trust. Management traffic should use secure protocols. Privilege should be limited. Access lists should be interpreted in order and with an understanding of implicit behavior. Layer 2 features such as DHCP snooping or port security exist because attacks can occur inside the access network, not only at the internet edge.
Security also changes troubleshooting. A ping failure may be a routing problem, but it may also be policy. An application may be reachable from one subnet and blocked from another by design. Candidates must therefore distinguish broken connectivity from intentionally restricted connectivity.
Automation and programmability in the v1.1 blueprint
CCNA now expects network engineers to understand controller-based architectures, APIs, data formats, and configuration-management ideas. The exam is not a software-development certification, but it does test whether candidates recognize the shift from device-by-device CLI work toward intent, centralized control, and programmable interfaces.
Software-defined networking provides the conceptual frame: control decisions can be logically centralized while devices continue forwarding data. REST APIs and JSON expose structured ways for software to interact with systems. Configuration-management tools and infrastructure-as-code approaches make repeatable changes possible at scale.
Terraform appears in current CCNA study discussions because infrastructure as code helps illustrate declarative automation. Candidates do not need professional-level Terraform expertise, but they should understand why repeatability, version control, validation, and machine-readable configuration are increasingly important to network operations.
Troubleshooting across the stack instead of memorizing commands
The broadest CCNA skill is diagnosis. A candidate should be able to start with a symptom and decide which evidence would meaningfully narrow the cause. If a switch port is down, routing is not the first question. If two hosts in the same VLAN communicate but remote traffic fails, the investigation shifts toward Layer 3. If IP reachability works but names fail, DNS becomes relevant.
CLI output is evidence. Interface status, MAC tables, VLAN information, Spanning Tree state, EtherChannel summaries, IP configuration, routing tables, OSPF neighbors, ACLs, and service configuration all answer different questions. Memorizing a command without understanding the question it answers creates brittle exam preparation.
Hands-on labs should therefore include intentional breakage. Put an access port in the wrong VLAN, misconfigure a trunk, remove a route, alter a default gateway, break a DHCP relay, or write an ACL with an unintended match order. Diagnose each problem from observations rather than from memory of what you changed.
Building a study plan around the live v1.1 exam. A learner entering from 100-150 CCST Networking already has useful foundations in devices, media, addressing, protocols, and basic troubleshooting. CCNA adds configuration depth and forces those fundamentals to work together. The progression should therefore move from packet path and addressing into switching, routing, services, security, and automation while keeping regular troubleshooting practice throughout.
Use the current v1.1 blueprint as the checklist for any exam scheduled before February 3, 2027. Future v2.0 material can be studied as an extension, especially if it improves hands-on skill, but it should be labeled as future scope so it does not displace current objectives.
After CCNA, candidates who want a deeper enterprise-networking path can progress toward professional-level work such as 350-401 ENCOR. CCNA is not simply a gate to that exam; it supplies the routing, switching, services, security, and automation vocabulary on which professional study builds.
What a 2026 CCNA candidate should be able to demonstrate
A strong candidate can explain why a network behaves the way it does. They can interpret an address and route, trace a VLAN path, reason about OSPF, distinguish service failure from raw connectivity failure, recognize security policy effects, and describe why controllers and APIs matter. They are not dependent on one memorized command sequence because they understand the system those commands expose.
They also keep certification timing straight. The live target today is 200-301 CCNA v1.1. Cisco has announced the February 2027 transition, but the future blueprint does not make v1.1 obsolete before its retirement date. Studying the version actually being tested is a basic part of factual exam preparation.
CCNA remains broad by design. The best preparation does not try to flatten that breadth into trivia. It builds a working network model, reinforces it through configuration and troubleshooting, and uses current Cisco objectives to decide how much depth each topic deserves.
Use Cisco CCNA 200-301 certification exam practice test questions, study guide and training course - the complete package at discounted price. Pass with 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) practice test questions and answers, study guide, complete training course especially formatted in VCE files. Latest Cisco certification CCNA 200-301 exam practice test questions and answers will guarantee your success without studying for endless hours.
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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Test Questions, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test Questions and Answers
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