Visit here for our full ITIL ITILFND V4 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 101:
What type of monitoring detects unauthorized changes?
A) Performance monitoring
B) Security monitoring
C) Availability monitoring
D) Capacity monitoring
Answer: B) Security monitoring
Explanation:
Security monitoring is a critical practice within information security management that enables organizations to detect, respond to, and mitigate risks arising from unauthorized or malicious activities. It focuses on identifying deviations from expected behavior in systems, applications, networks, and data that could indicate security incidents. Unlike preventive measures, which aim to stop unauthorized activity before it occurs, security monitoring serves as a detective control, providing visibility into ongoing operations and enabling rapid response when anomalies or threats are identified.
Unauthorized changes can occur in many forms, including modification of system configurations, installation of unapproved software, changes to security settings, alteration of sensitive data, or access by unauthorized users. These changes can compromise confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information. Security monitoring tools, such as intrusion detection systems (IDS), intrusion prevention systems (IPS), and security information and event management (SIEM) platforms, continuously collect, correlate, and analyze data from multiple sources to identify suspicious activity. File integrity monitoring solutions track modifications to critical files and configurations, providing alerts when unauthorized changes occur. Behavioral analytics and anomaly detection further enhance monitoring by identifying patterns that deviate from normal operational behavior, helping to detect insider threats or advanced persistent threats.
Effective security monitoring requires defining what constitutes normal and acceptable activity, as well as setting thresholds and rules for alerts. Alerts generated by monitoring systems should be prioritized based on risk, impact, and urgency. For example, a failed login attempt on a non-critical system may require investigation, but multiple failed attempts on an administrative account should trigger immediate response. Security monitoring must also integrate with incident response processes so that detected issues are acted upon promptly. This ensures that potential breaches are contained quickly, minimizing operational disruption, data loss, or reputational damage.
Option A is incorrect because performance monitoring is concerned with metrics like response times, throughput, and system efficiency, not detecting unauthorized changes. Option C is incorrect because availability monitoring ensures that services are accessible and functional but does not specifically detect changes that could compromise security. Option D is incorrect because capacity monitoring focuses on resource utilization and planning for future capacity needs, not on detecting malicious or unauthorized activity.
Organizations should regularly review and update their security monitoring strategy to address evolving threats, emerging technologies, and changes in business processes. This includes updating monitoring rules, expanding coverage to new systems, and ensuring that staff are trained to interpret alerts and respond appropriately. Security monitoring also supports compliance with regulatory requirements by providing evidence of oversight and control. When combined with preventive and corrective security measures, continuous security monitoring strengthens an organization’s overall security posture, reduces risk exposure, and helps ensure that information remains protected and trustworthy.
Question 102:
Which practice maintains a catalogue of reusable solution components?
A) Service catalogue management
B) Knowledge management
C) Service design
D) Configuration management
Answer: B) Knowledge management
Explanation:
The knowledge management practice is a core component of service management that ensures valuable information is captured, organized, maintained, and made available for effective use. Its primary purpose is to ensure that knowledge assets—such as known errors, workarounds, diagnostic procedures, and reusable solution components—are accessible to the right people at the right time. By centralizing this knowledge, organizations can improve efficiency, reduce repeated effort, and accelerate resolution of incidents and problems.
Reusable solution components maintained through knowledge management can take many forms, including configuration templates, standard scripts, code libraries, design patterns, test cases, or documented procedures for recurring issues. By cataloguing these assets systematically, organizations create a repository of practical solutions that can be applied to similar situations in the future. This not only saves time but also promotes consistency in service delivery and reduces the risk of errors.
Option A is incorrect because service catalogue management is concerned with maintaining information about the services available to customers, not the detailed knowledge of reusable solutions. Option C is incorrect because although service design may create reusable components, the ongoing collection, curation, and distribution of knowledge about these components is the responsibility of knowledge management. Option D is incorrect because configuration management focuses on tracking configuration items and their relationships, not on maintaining knowledge assets or solution catalogues.
Effective knowledge management requires processes to ensure that knowledge is accurate, complete, and up to date. Contributions to the knowledge base should be validated before being published, and outdated or incorrect entries should be reviewed and updated regularly. Accessibility is also critical: staff must be able to quickly search and retrieve relevant knowledge. The system should support collaboration so that knowledge can be shared, enriched, and refined over time.
In addition to operational benefits, knowledge management also supports continual improvement by capturing lessons learned from incidents, problems, and projects. By leveraging knowledge effectively, organizations can reduce resolution times, enhance service quality, support decision-making, and foster a culture of learning. This practice ensures that knowledge is not siloed or lost but is systematically used to create value across the organization.
Question 103:
What is the purpose of the architecture management practice?
A) To design individual services
B) To provide understanding of all elements that make up an organization
C) To manage configuration items
D) To plan and manage IT assets
Answer: B) To provide understanding of all elements that make up an organization
Explanation:
The purpose of the architecture management practice is to provide a comprehensive understanding of the components that make up an organization and how these components interact to achieve strategic and operational objectives. By maintaining a clear view of the organization’s architecture, this practice enables effective planning, decision-making, and alignment of services, technology, processes, and resources with business goals. Architecture management provides the overarching principles, models, and patterns that guide the evolution and design of all organizational elements, ensuring coherence and long-term sustainability.
Architecture management spans multiple domains. Business architecture focuses on organizational structure, capabilities, and processes; service architecture addresses how services are designed and delivered; information architecture governs how data and knowledge are structured and managed; technology architecture covers the IT infrastructure and platforms; and environmental architecture considers the external factors, regulations, and constraints that influence organizational design. By integrating these domains, architecture management ensures that decisions in one area do not conflict with others and that the organization can adapt effectively to changing business needs.
Option A is incorrect because designing individual services is primarily the responsibility of the service design practice. Architecture management provides the frameworks, principles, and patterns that inform service design but does not focus on designing specific services itself. Option C is incorrect because configuration management focuses on managing configuration items and their relationships, rather than providing holistic architectural insight. Option D is incorrect because IT asset management is concerned with managing the lifecycle of IT assets from financial, contractual, and operational perspectives, not with organizational architecture.
Effective architecture management requires a balance between standardization and flexibility. It provides clear guidance without being overly prescriptive, allowing teams to innovate while maintaining consistency. The practice should ensure that architectural information is accessible and understandable to decision-makers, enabling informed choices that align with strategic objectives. By maintaining an up-to-date understanding of the organization’s structure and interrelationships, architecture management supports continual improvement, risk management, and value creation across the enterprise.
Question 104:
Which is a purpose of service request management?
A) To restore service as quickly as possible
B) To reduce the likelihood of incidents
C) To provide quality experience for users
D) To identify root causes of problems
Answer: C) To provide quality experience for users
Explanation:
A key purpose of service request management is to support the agreed quality of service by handling all predefined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner, thereby providing a positive experience for users. These requests can range from requests for information, access, standard changes, or new services. By efficiently fulfilling these requests, the practice ensures that users can obtain what they need with minimal delay and effort, contributing to overall satisfaction and trust in the service provider.
Service request management focuses on standardization, predictability, and efficiency. Many requests can be fulfilled using automated workflows or self-service portals, which not only reduce the workload on support teams but also empower users by giving them immediate access to services. Requests that cannot be fully automated are routed to the appropriate resolver group following predefined procedures to ensure consistency and reliability. By maintaining a structured approach, the practice reduces errors, ensures compliance with policies, and provides measurable performance metrics.
Option A is incorrect because restoring service as quickly as possible is the purpose of incident management, which addresses service interruptions rather than user-initiated requests. Option B is incorrect because reducing the likelihood of incidents is the purpose of problem management, which focuses on underlying causes of issues rather than fulfilling requests. Option D is incorrect because identifying root causes of problems is also part of problem management, not service request management.
Effective service request management includes clearly communicating available request options to users, setting realistic expectations for fulfillment times, and keeping users informed of progress. It should provide multiple channels for submitting requests, such as self-service portals, chatbots, email, or service desk interactions. Additionally, continual monitoring, feedback, and analysis allow the practice to identify bottlenecks, improve processes, and enhance user satisfaction. By managing service requests effectively, organizations ensure that users receive timely and reliable access to services, thereby supporting operational efficiency and delivering value through high-quality service experiences.
Question 105:
What should be defined for each service in terms of performance and availability?
A) Configuration items
B) Service level targets
C) Known errors
D) Change schedules
Answer: B) Service level targets
Explanation:
Service level targets should be defined for each service in terms of performance, availability, and other relevant characteristics that matter to customers and stakeholders. These targets set clear expectations for what the service will deliver and provide measurable criteria for assessing whether the service is meeting agreed-upon levels. Typically, these targets are documented in service level agreements (SLAs) or similar formal agreements, ensuring both service providers and customers have a shared understanding of expectations.
Service level targets translate business requirements into concrete, measurable commitments. They may include metrics such as availability percentages, response times, incident resolution times, throughput, or capacity levels. By defining these targets, organizations can manage service delivery proactively, monitor performance, and take corrective actions when service falls below expected levels. Well-defined targets also facilitate transparency and accountability, helping build trust between the service provider and customers.
Option A is incorrect because configuration items are the components that make up services, but they are not targets for service performance. Option C is incorrect because known errors are problems that have been analyzed with identified root causes and are not performance targets. Option D is incorrect because change schedules plan when changes will occur but do not define service performance levels.
Service level targets should be realistic, achievable, and aligned with business priorities. They need to balance what the business requires, what is technically possible, and what is economically feasible. Regular review of targets is essential as business needs, technology capabilities, and service demands evolve. In addition, service level targets should focus on outcomes and aspects of service that directly impact customers, ensuring that resources are used effectively to deliver real value. Properly defined and managed service level targets are a cornerstone of effective service management, enabling organizations to meet expectations, demonstrate performance, and drive continual improvement in service delivery.
Question 106:
Which practice uses techniques such as SWOT analysis?
A) Risk management
B) Continual improvement
C) Strategy management
D) Business analysis
Answer: C) Strategy management
Explanation:
The strategy management practice uses techniques such as SWOT analysis to evaluate the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. This analysis provides a structured way to understand both the internal capabilities of the organization and the external factors affecting its market and environment. By systematically assessing these elements, strategy management helps leaders make informed decisions about where to invest, what services to develop or retire, and how to align resources to achieve strategic objectives.
Strategy management establishes the organization’s vision, mission, and strategic direction, ensuring that all service management activities support long-term goals. It involves analyzing market trends, competitor activity, regulatory changes, and technological developments, as well as assessing internal capabilities such as workforce skills, processes, technology, and financial resources. The insights gained from SWOT analysis and other strategic tools help prioritize initiatives, allocate resources effectively, and identify risks and opportunities that could impact service delivery or organizational success.
Option A is incorrect because risk management focuses on identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks rather than conducting broad strategic analyses like SWOT. Option B is incorrect because continual improvement uses techniques such as the PDCA cycle or value stream analysis, which are oriented toward incremental improvements rather than high-level strategic assessment. Option D is incorrect because business analysis, while useful for identifying requirements and supporting decisions, is not a formal ITIL practice.
Effective strategy management ensures that the organization has a clear, communicated strategy that guides decisions at all levels. It aligns service portfolios, investment decisions, and operational priorities with organizational goals. It also involves engaging appropriate stakeholders, including senior management and business leaders, to ensure that strategy reflects organizational needs and market realities. By linking strategic intent with service management capabilities, strategy management enables the organization to respond proactively to changing circumstances, drive innovation, and maintain a competitive edge while consistently delivering value to stakeholders. Regular review of strategy and alignment with evolving business and market conditions ensures the organization remains agile and resilient.
Question 107:
What is the purpose of information security management?
A) To ensure configuration information is accurate
B) To protect information needed by the organization
C) To manage access to IT assets
D) To monitor security events
Answer: B) To protect information needed by the organization
Explanation:
The purpose of information security management is to protect the information that an organization needs to operate effectively. This practice ensures that information is safeguarded in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability, addressing security comprehensively across all dimensions: people, processes, technology, and external partners. Protecting information is critical because information underpins decision-making, operational effectiveness, and compliance with legal or regulatory requirements. Any compromise can lead to financial loss, reputational damage, or operational disruption.
Information security management involves a series of coordinated activities. These include identifying and understanding information security requirements, assessing and managing risks, implementing appropriate technical and organizational controls, monitoring for security incidents, and responding effectively when breaches occur. The practice also ensures compliance with internal policies, industry standards, and relevant legislation, such as data protection regulations. Importantly, it takes a holistic approach, balancing strict security measures with the need for accessibility and usability, ensuring that business operations are not unduly hindered while protecting sensitive information.
Option A is incorrect because ensuring accurate configuration information falls under configuration management, not information security management. Option C is incorrect because managing access is a component of information security but does not encompass its overall purpose. Option D is incorrect because monitoring security events is an activity within the practice, not its core purpose.
Effective information security management requires continuous risk assessment to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities, determining the likelihood and impact of various scenarios, and implementing controls appropriate to the organization’s risk appetite. Security must be embedded throughout the service lifecycle—from design and development to deployment and operation—rather than treated as an afterthought. This integrated approach ensures that security considerations are proactive, consistently applied, and aligned with the organization’s strategic objectives. Continuous monitoring, training, audits, and improvement cycles help maintain a strong security posture and adapt to evolving threats, ensuring the organization can protect its information assets while supporting business goals.
Question 108:
Which dimension includes automation and artificial intelligence?
A) Organizations and people
B) Information and technology
C) Value streams and processes
D) Partners and suppliers
Answer: B) Information and technology
Explanation:
The information and technology dimension of service management focuses on the technologies and information that enable and support service delivery. This dimension addresses the tools, platforms, and systems used to create, store, process, and share information, as well as technologies that underpin service management activities themselves. It ensures that the organization uses technology effectively to support business objectives and deliver value to stakeholders.
Emerging technologies such as automation, artificial intelligence (AI), machine learning, analytics platforms, and cloud-based services are all part of this dimension. These technologies can improve efficiency, enhance decision-making, reduce errors, and enable new capabilities. For example, automation can streamline repetitive tasks, AI can provide predictive insights for proactive problem management, and cloud technologies can increase flexibility and scalability in service delivery. By considering these technologies, organizations can design and operate services that are more responsive, efficient, and aligned with business needs.
Option A is incorrect because the organizations and people dimension addresses roles, responsibilities, culture, and competencies rather than technology. Option C is incorrect because the value streams and processes dimension focuses on workflows, process integration, and coordination of activities. Option D is incorrect because the partners and suppliers dimension deals with relationships with external organizations rather than internal technology considerations.
Organizations should not adopt technology for its own sake but evaluate how new tools and platforms contribute to value creation. This involves assessing potential benefits, costs, risks, and alignment with organizational goals. Effective management of this dimension requires a strategic approach to technology selection, integration, and lifecycle management. It also requires ensuring that staff have the necessary skills and knowledge to leverage technology effectively. By focusing on the information and technology dimension, organizations can optimize service delivery, improve service management practices, and stay adaptable in a rapidly changing technological landscape.
Question 109:
What is the purpose of project management in service management?
A) To manage daily operational activities
B) To ensure successful delivery of projects
C) To maintain services in operational state
D) To respond to incidents
Answer: B) To ensure successful delivery of projects
Explanation:
The purpose of the project management practice is to ensure that all projects within an organization are planned, executed, and completed successfully, delivering the intended outcomes while adhering to agreed-upon timeframes, budgets, and quality standards. Projects are temporary endeavors with specific objectives, distinct from ongoing operational work, and the practice provides a structured framework to manage these temporary initiatives effectively.
In the context of service management, project management is applied to initiatives such as implementing new services, upgrading existing services, deploying new technologies, or undertaking improvement programs. The practice ensures that each project is properly scoped, resourced, scheduled, monitored, and controlled, with clear roles, responsibilities, and governance mechanisms. It provides a structured approach to identifying objectives, managing risks, controlling changes, and ensuring that deliverables meet stakeholder expectations.
Option A is incorrect because day-to-day operational activities are handled by practices like deliver and support, not project management. Project management is focused on temporary, unique initiatives rather than routine operations. Option C is incorrect because maintaining services in an operational state falls under operational service management, not project management. Option D is incorrect because responding to incidents is the responsibility of incident management, not projects.
Effective project management involves selecting appropriate methodologies, such as Agile, PRINCE2, or PMBOK-based approaches, depending on the project’s complexity, risk, and context. It requires proactive stakeholder engagement, continuous risk management, regular progress monitoring, and effective communication. Lessons learned and knowledge gained from completed projects should be captured and integrated into organizational practices to improve future initiatives.
The practice also ensures seamless integration with other service management practices so that project outcomes, such as new or changed services, are transitioned smoothly into operational use. This integration minimizes disruption, ensures service quality, and supports the organization’s strategic objectives. By applying project management principles rigorously, organizations can increase the likelihood of delivering successful outcomes, optimize resource utilization, and enhance overall value creation through their initiatives.
Question 110:
Which practice ensures that components can be restored or replaced quickly?
A) Availability management
B) Service continuity management
C) IT asset management
D) Configuration management
Answer: A) Availability management
Explanation:
Availability management ensures that components can be restored or replaced quickly as part of ensuring services deliver agreed levels of availability. This practice considers maintainability and serviceability, which include how quickly components can be repaired or replaced when they fail. Quick restoration minimizes service downtime.
Availability management addresses factors that affect availability including reliability of components, maintainability when problems occur, serviceability of suppliers and support arrangements, and security that prevents availability breaches. The practice designs services with appropriate redundancy, spare capacity, and support arrangements to ensure availability targets are met.
Option B is incorrect because service continuity management focuses on recovery from major disruptions rather than quick restoration of individual components. Option C is incorrect because while IT asset management tracks assets, it does not specifically ensure quick restoration or replacement. Option D is incorrect because configuration management maintains information about components but does not ensure they can be restored or replaced quickly.
Effective availability management balances investment in availability measures against the value of availability to the business. Not all services require the same availability levels. The practice should identify single points of failure, implement appropriate redundancy where justified, and ensure support arrangements enable quick restoration when failures occur.
Question 111:
What type of change is typically used when there is a critical security vulnerability?
A) Standard change
B) Normal change
C) Emergency change
D) Pre-authorized change
Answer: C) Emergency change
Explanation:
Emergency changes are typically used when there is a critical security vulnerability that must be addressed immediately to protect the organization. Emergency changes follow expedited procedures because the risk of not making the change quickly exceeds the risks associated with accelerated implementation. Critical security vulnerabilities represent situations where delay could result in significant harm.
Emergency changes still require appropriate authorization and assessment, but these processes are accelerated to enable rapid response. The change authority level may be higher for emergency changes, and there may be specific emergency change advisory board members who can be convened quickly. Documentation may be streamlined but should still capture essential information.
Option A is incorrect because standard changes are pre-authorized low-risk routine changes, which would not apply to critical security situations requiring immediate response. Option B is incorrect because normal changes follow regular change processes with standard timelines, which are too slow for critical security vulnerabilities. Option D is incorrect because while emergency changes are ultimately authorized, pre-authorized change is another term for standard changes rather than a separate category.
Organizations should have clear criteria for what constitutes an emergency change and should have expedited procedures ready to use when needed. After emergency changes are implemented, retrospective reviews should assess whether the emergency procedures were appropriate and what can be learned.
Question 112:
Which value chain activity includes service performance information?
A) Deliver and support
B) Plan
C) Engage
D) All value chain activities
Answer: D) All value chain activities
Explanation:
Service performance information is relevant to and used by all value chain activities, not just one specific activity. Each activity both produces and consumes performance information as part of enabling value creation. Performance information flows throughout the value chain to support decision-making and coordination.
Plan uses performance information to guide planning. Improve uses it to identify improvement opportunities. Engage uses it to communicate with stakeholders. Design and transition uses it to validate designs. Obtain/build uses it to ensure components meet requirements. Deliver and support produces performance information during operational activities. Performance information connects and informs all activities.
Options A, B, and C would each be incomplete because they identify single activities when performance information actually flows through all activities. Recognizing that all activities use performance information is important for ensuring information is captured, shared, and used effectively throughout the organization.
Effective use of performance information requires that it be accurate, timely, relevant, and accessible to those who need it. Organizations should consider what performance information different activities and practices need and should ensure appropriate collection, analysis, and distribution of that information.
Question 113:
What is the purpose of the workforce and talent management practice?
A) To manage relationships with employees
B) To ensure the organization has the right people with appropriate skills
C) To coordinate organizational change initiatives
D) To measure employee performance
Answer: B) To ensure the organization has the right people with appropriate skills
Explanation:
The purpose of the workforce and talent management practice is to ensure that the organization has the right people with the appropriate skills and knowledge and in the correct roles to support its business objectives. This practice addresses workforce planning, recruitment, development, retention, and succession planning to ensure adequate capabilities.
Workforce and talent management involves understanding what capabilities are needed, assessing current workforce capabilities, identifying gaps, and taking action to address those gaps through various means such as recruitment, training, reorganization, or use of external resources. The practice ensures the organization can execute its strategy and deliver services effectively.
Option A is incorrect because while managing employee relationships is important, the core purpose is ensuring the organization has needed capabilities. Option C is incorrect because coordinating organizational change initiatives is part of organizational change management, not workforce and talent management. Option D is incorrect because while measuring performance is part of performance management, the purpose of workforce and talent management is broader than just measurement.
Effective workforce and talent management requires understanding both current and future needs, developing talent pipelines, creating attractive work environments that retain good people, and building organizational capabilities strategically. The practice should consider various options for acquiring capabilities including developing existing staff, hiring, and partnering.
Question 114:
Which practice analyzes business activity patterns to predict future capacity requirements?
A) Availability management
B) Capacity and performance management
C) Monitoring and event management
D) Service level management
Answer: B) Capacity and performance management
Explanation:
Capacity and performance management analyzes business activity patterns and usage trends to predict future capacity requirements. This practice uses various techniques including trend analysis, modeling, and forecasting to anticipate when additional capacity will be needed. Proactive capacity planning helps avoid performance issues and service disruptions.
The practice examines patterns in how services are used, identifies trends indicating increasing or decreasing demand, and forecasts future capacity needs based on business plans and historical patterns. This enables the organization to plan capacity investments appropriately and to address capacity needs before they become problems.
Option A is incorrect because availability management focuses on ensuring services meet availability targets rather than on analyzing patterns to predict capacity needs. Option C is incorrect because monitoring and event management detects current states and events but does not specifically analyze patterns to predict future capacity. Option D is incorrect because service level management sets and monitors service level targets rather than predicting future capacity requirements.
Effective capacity management balances having sufficient capacity to meet demand with avoiding excessive unused capacity that wastes resources. The practice should provide enough lead time to procure and implement additional capacity when needed while also identifying opportunities to reduce capacity when demand decreases.
Question 115:
What is the definition of an incident?
A) A cause of one or more potential problems
B) An unplanned interruption or reduction in quality of service
C) A change of state that has significance
D) A request from a user for information
Answer: B) An unplanned interruption or reduction in quality of service
Explanation:
An incident is defined as an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service. Incidents represent disruptions to normal service operation that require response to restore service. They are unplanned events that negatively impact users or business operations.
Incidents can range from complete service outages affecting all users to degraded performance affecting some users to individual user issues. What qualifies as an incident depends on what is considered normal service operation. Any deviation from expected service levels that requires intervention to restore service constitutes an incident.
Option A is incorrect because a cause of one or more potential problems is the definition of a problem, not an incident. Problems are underlying causes while incidents are symptoms or disruptions. Option C is incorrect because a change of state that has significance is the definition of an event. Events may trigger incident management but are not themselves incidents. Option D is incorrect because a request from a user for information is a service request, not an incident.
Understanding the definition of incidents helps organizations properly categorize and respond to service disruptions. Incidents require urgent restoration to minimize business impact while problems require thorough analysis to prevent future incidents. The distinction is important for applying appropriate management approaches.
Question 116:
Which guiding principle emphasizes working together across boundaries?
A) Collaborate and promote visibility
B) Think and work holistically
C) Focus on value
D) Keep it simple and practical
Answer: A) Collaborate and promote visibility
Explanation:
The collaborate and promote visibility guiding principle emphasizes working together across organizational boundaries and making work visible to enable effective collaboration. This principle recognizes that complex services require input from multiple parties and that collaboration is most effective when work is transparent.
Collaboration means involving the right people at the right time, working together toward shared objectives, breaking down silos, and leveraging diverse perspectives and expertise. Visibility means making information about work, decisions, and results accessible to those who need it, which builds trust and enables better coordination and decision-making.
Option B is incorrect because while think and work holistically involves considering all four dimensions and their interactions, it is not specifically about collaboration across boundaries. Option C is incorrect because focus on value emphasizes creating stakeholder value but does not specifically address collaboration. Option D is incorrect because keep it simple and practical is about eliminating unnecessary complexity.
Applying this principle requires creating environments where collaboration is encouraged, using tools that enable visibility, ensuring information flows across boundaries, and valuing diverse contributions. Organizations should address barriers to collaboration and should recognize that collaboration takes time and effort but delivers better outcomes.
Question 117:
What is the purpose of the supplier management practice?
A) To manage relationships with all stakeholders
B) To ensure suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
C) To set targets for supplier service levels
D) To negotiate contracts with vendors
Answer: B) To ensure suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
Explanation:
The purpose of the supplier management practice is to ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and services. This practice addresses the entire supplier lifecycle from identification and selection through ongoing management and eventual contract termination or renewal.
Supplier management activities include defining requirements for suppliers, evaluating and selecting suppliers, negotiating contracts and agreements, managing supplier relationships, monitoring and reviewing supplier performance, and addressing any supplier issues. The practice ensures suppliers deliver according to agreements and that risks associated with supplier dependencies are managed.
Option A is incorrect because managing relationships with all stakeholders is the broader purpose of relationship management. Supplier management is specifically focused on supplier relationships. Option C is incorrect because while service level management may set targets, supplier management ensures overall supplier performance including but not limited to service levels. Option D is incorrect because negotiating contracts is one activity within supplier management, not its overall purpose.
Effective supplier management categorizes suppliers based on their importance and risk, applying more intensive management to strategic suppliers while using more transactional approaches for commodity suppliers. The practice should foster partnerships with critical suppliers while maintaining appropriate oversight and governance for all supplier relationships.
Question 118:
Which practice maintains a prioritized list of improvement ideas?
A) Continual improvement
B) Service level management
C) Change enablement
D) Strategy management
Answer: A) Continual improvement
Explanation:
The continual improvement practice maintains a prioritized list of improvement ideas in the continual improvement register. This register captures all improvement opportunities that are identified from various sources, evaluates them based on potential value and alignment with objectives, and tracks them through their lifecycle from idea to implementation and review.
The improvement register ensures that improvement ideas are not lost and provides a systematic way to manage improvement opportunities. Ideas in the register are assessed and prioritized based on factors such as expected benefits, required resources, risks, and strategic alignment. The register provides visibility into the portfolio of potential improvements.
Option B is incorrect because service level management focuses on setting and monitoring service level targets rather than maintaining improvement ideas. Option C is incorrect because change enablement manages the change schedule and change records, not improvement ideas. Option D is incorrect because strategy management establishes organizational strategy rather than maintaining a list of improvement ideas.
Using an improvement register helps organizations take a portfolio approach to improvement, ensuring improvements are prioritized based on value and strategic fit. The register should be regularly reviewed to reassess priorities as circumstances change. It provides a transparent view of improvement activities and enables informed decisions about where to invest improvement resources.
Question 119:
What is the definition of a problem?
A) An unplanned interruption to service
B) A change that requires authorization
C) A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents
D) A service request from a user
Answer: C) A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents
Explanation:
A problem is defined as a cause or potential cause of one or more incidents. Problems represent the underlying issues that lead to incidents occurring. While incidents are disruptions that require quick restoration, problems are the root causes that need to be understood and addressed to prevent incidents or reduce their impact.
Problems can be identified in various ways including reactive analysis after incidents occur, proactive detection of vulnerabilities or potential failure points, or recognition of patterns indicating underlying issues. Not all problems can be resolved immediately, which is why problem management maintains records of known errors with workarounds until permanent solutions are implemented.
Option A is incorrect because an unplanned interruption to service is the definition of an incident, not a problem. Incidents are symptoms while problems are causes. Option B is incorrect because a change that requires authorization is part of change management, not the definition of a problem. Option D is incorrect because a service request from a user is a service request, which is different from a problem.
Understanding the distinction between incidents and problems is fundamental to ITIL. Incident management provides tactical response to restore service while problem management provides strategic analysis to prevent recurrence. Both are necessary and work together but require different skills, approaches, and priorities.
Question 120:
Which dimension of service management includes consideration of automation?
A) Organizations and people
B) Information and technology
C) Partners and suppliers
D) Value streams and processes
Answer: B) Information and technology
Explanation:
The information and technology dimension of service management includes consideration of automation as well as other technologies that support and enable services.
This dimension addresses how technology can be used to improve efficiency, enhance capabilities, and enable new ways of delivering value. Automation is a key technology consideration within this dimension.
Automation can streamline processes, reduce manual effort, improve consistency, accelerate service delivery, and free staff to focus on higher-value activities. The information and technology dimension considers where and how automation can be effectively applied, what technologies are available, and how to implement automation successfully while managing associated risks.
Option A is incorrect because the organizations and people dimension focuses on organizational structures, roles, competencies, and culture rather than on technology and automation. Option C is incorrect because the partners and suppliers dimension focuses on external organizational relationships. Option D is incorrect because the value streams and processes dimension focuses on workflows and how activities are organized, though automation may be applied within processes.
When considering automation, organizations should focus on automating activities that are repetitive, high-volume, or prone to human error. However, automation should not be pursued blindly. The keep it simple and practical and optimize and automate guiding principles remind organizations to eliminate unnecessary activities first and then automate what remains where it provides value.
