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Question 81:
What is a known error?
A) An incident for which the root cause is known
B) A problem for which the root cause is documented
C) An event that indicates a problem
D) A change that failed during implementation
Answer: B) A problem for which the root cause is documented
Explanation:
A known error is a problem that has been analyzed and for which the root cause has been identified and documented. Once problem management determines the underlying cause, the problem is formally recorded as a known error in the known error database, along with any workarounds that can mitigate its impact until a permanent solution is implemented.
The designation of a known error indicates that sufficient analysis has been conducted to understand the cause, even if a complete fix is pending. By documenting known errors, organizations can significantly accelerate incident resolution. When incidents arise that relate to a known error, support staff can apply pre-defined workarounds instead of performing new investigations, reducing downtime and improving service continuity.
Option A is incorrect because a known error is a problem, not an incident. While incidents may be linked to a known error, individual incidents themselves are not classified as known errors. Option C is incorrect because an event is simply a change of state with significance for management, not a problem with a documented root cause. Option D is incorrect because a change that fails during implementation constitutes an incident or failed change, not a known error.
The known error database serves as a critical knowledge repository bridging problem management and incident management. It ensures that insights from problem investigations are reused effectively, enabling quicker resolution of recurring incidents. Known errors remain documented until permanent solutions are implemented and validated, at which point the record can be closed or updated to reflect the resolution. Regular maintenance and review of the database are essential to ensure its continued relevance, accuracy, and utility for support teams across the organization.
Question 82:
Which guiding principle says that the method used should vary based on circumstances?
A) Progress iteratively with feedback
B) Think and work holistically
C) There is no such principle stated this way
D) Keep it simple and practical
Answer: C) There is no such principle stated this way
Explanation:
There is no ITIL guiding principle that explicitly states that the method used should vary based on circumstances in those exact words. However, this concept is deeply embedded within the overall philosophy of ITIL 4. The guiding principles are intended to provide direction and recommendations, not prescriptive rules. This means they are meant to be interpreted and applied based on the specific context, needs, culture, and circumstances of each organization or situation. ITIL emphasizes flexibility, encouraging organizations to adapt guidance in ways that make sense for their environment rather than following instructions rigidly.
The seven ITIL guiding principles—focus on value, start where you are, progress iteratively with feedback, collaborate and promote visibility, think and work holistically, keep it simple and practical, and optimize and automate—each provide broad guidance for behavior and decision-making. For example, “focus on value” reminds organizations to consider the benefits and outcomes for stakeholders, but exactly how value is defined and achieved will vary depending on organizational priorities and context. Similarly, “start where you are” encourages leveraging existing capabilities and assessing current situations before making changes. The principle does not prescribe a single method, but instead emphasizes the need to tailor actions based on existing strengths, weaknesses, and circumstances.
Another example is “progress iteratively with feedback,” which promotes breaking work into manageable sections and learning from each iteration. While the principle describes the approach, how iterations are defined, how feedback is collected, and how quickly adjustments are made will depend on the specific operational context, stakeholder expectations, and risk appetite. In this way, the guiding principles inherently support flexible methods that adapt to real-world circumstances.
Organizations that rigidly apply ITIL guidance without considering context may fail to achieve desired outcomes. Conversely, applying the principles with situational awareness enables more effective decision-making, improves alignment with business needs, and fosters innovation and continual improvement. The emphasis on adapting to circumstances also supports resilience: it allows organizations to respond appropriately to unexpected challenges, emerging technologies, and changes in stakeholder expectations.
Option A is incorrect because “progress iteratively with feedback” is about managing work in stages and learning from results, not about varying methods. Option B is incorrect because “think and work holistically” focuses on considering all components and dimensions of the organization and their interrelationships. Option D is incorrect because “keep it simple and practical” focuses on reducing unnecessary complexity, not method flexibility.
Ultimately, the flexibility to adapt methods based on circumstances is an implicit but essential part of ITIL 4. The framework assumes no one-size-fits-all approach; instead, it encourages organizations to interpret guidance in a way that suits their unique environment, objectives, and stakeholders. By embracing this principle of adaptability, organizations can better navigate change, optimize resources, and co-create value in ways that are relevant and sustainable.
Question 83:
What is the purpose of the service configuration management practice?
A) To plan and manage the full lifecycle of IT assets
B) To ensure accurate configuration information is available
C) To set targets for service levels
D) To ensure suppliers are managed appropriately
Answer: B) To ensure accurate configuration information is available
Explanation:
The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services and the configuration items (CIs) that support them is available when and where it is needed. This practice maintains detailed records of configuration items, their attributes, relationships, and changes over time in a configuration management system (CMS) or configuration management database (CMDB). By providing a single source of truth, configuration management enables other practices to operate effectively and ensures that decisions are based on accurate information.
Service configuration management supports a wide range of activities across the service value system. For example, it enables effective impact analysis for changes by showing dependencies between configuration items, supports incident and problem management by helping diagnose issues quickly, aids capacity and availability planning by providing insight into current configurations, and helps verify compliance with internal policies or external regulations. The practice ensures that all configuration information is controlled, up-to-date, and accessible to the appropriate stakeholders, which reduces risk, improves service quality, and facilitates more efficient service delivery.
Option A is incorrect because IT asset management focuses on the full lifecycle of IT assets, including financial and contractual aspects, whereas configuration management emphasizes technical details and relationships between components. Option C is incorrect because service level management is responsible for defining, agreeing, and monitoring service level targets rather than managing configuration information. Option D is incorrect because supplier management focuses on managing suppliers to support service delivery, not maintaining detailed records of configuration items.
Effective configuration management requires clearly defining which configuration items to track, the level of detail required for each, and appropriate control measures. It involves maintaining accurate records of changes as they occur, ensuring that information is updated in real time or near-real time, and making configuration data easily accessible to those who need it. Organizations must strike a balance between capturing enough detail to be useful and keeping the process manageable, avoiding unnecessary complexity that could make configuration data difficult to maintain or use. Regular audits, process reviews, and integration with change and release management practices help ensure the configuration management system remains accurate, relevant, and reliable.
Question 84:
Which practice provides a formal process for obtaining approval before proceeding?
A) Service request management
B) Change enablement
C) Deployment management
D) Release management
Answer: B) Change enablement
Explanation:
The change enablement practice, also referred to as change management in previous ITIL versions, plays a critical role in ensuring that changes to services, systems, or infrastructure are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner. The core purpose of change enablement is to balance the need for change with the need to minimize risk to existing services. Every change introduces some level of risk, and uncontrolled or poorly executed changes can result in service disruptions, security vulnerabilities, or operational inefficiencies. By formalizing the authorization process, organizations can ensure that changes are properly assessed, reviewed, and approved before implementation, protecting service stability while enabling innovation and improvement.
The practice categorizes changes based on risk, impact, and frequency. Standard changes, which are low-risk, repetitive, and well-understood, are pre-authorized based on established procedures. Normal changes are assessed individually, requiring review and approval from the appropriate change authority. Emergency changes, introduced in response to incidents, vulnerabilities, or urgent business needs, follow expedited authorization procedures but still require some form of formal approval, even if streamlined. This tiered approach ensures that change control is proportionate to the potential impact, allowing organizations to manage risk without introducing unnecessary bureaucracy.
Change enablement also involves thorough assessment and planning prior to implementation. This includes impact analysis, risk assessment, testing plans, resource allocation, and scheduling considerations. Change authorities review the proposed change in the context of existing services, dependencies, and organizational priorities. They ensure that appropriate stakeholders are consulted and that any potential conflicts with other planned changes are identified and managed. In addition to authorization, the practice emphasizes communication with relevant teams and stakeholders, providing visibility into what changes are occurring, when, and how they might affect services.
Option A is incorrect because service request management focuses on handling predefined requests, such as password resets or access provisioning, which follow established procedures and do not require formal risk-based authorization. Option C is incorrect because deployment management is concerned with the technical execution of moving components into the live environment, not with approving the change itself. Option D is incorrect because release management coordinates the deployment of multiple changes as part of a release but relies on change enablement for formal authorization.
To be effective, change enablement should align authorization requirements with organizational risk tolerance and the criticality of services. Clear criteria should be established for who can authorize different types of changes, and processes should be streamlined to avoid unnecessary delays while maintaining control. Post-implementation review is also a key part of the practice, ensuring lessons learned from successful and failed changes inform future decision-making. By combining risk assessment, stakeholder engagement, and formal authorization, change enablement supports a stable, reliable service environment while enabling continuous improvement and business agility.
Question 85:
What is the definition of a problem?
A) An unplanned interruption to a service
B) A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents
C) A change of state that has significance
D) A request from a user for information
Answer: B) A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents
Explanation:
Problem management is a proactive and reactive practice within ITIL that focuses on identifying, analyzing, and resolving the root causes of incidents to prevent recurrence and minimize the impact of issues on business operations. While incident management is concerned with immediate restoration of service, problem management digs deeper into the underlying issues that give rise to incidents, providing long-term stability and improving service reliability. By addressing problems systematically, organizations reduce the likelihood of recurring incidents and can also identify opportunities for improving processes, technology, and service design.
Problems can be identified through multiple sources. Reactive problem management responds to incidents that have already occurred, analyzing patterns, trends, and the history of recurring issues. Major incidents often trigger problem investigations because of their high impact, prompting a focused effort to determine root causes. Proactive problem management seeks to detect potential issues before they manifest as incidents. This can involve monitoring system metrics, analyzing event data, reviewing known errors, and applying risk assessments to anticipate failures. By addressing problems early, organizations can reduce downtime, improve user experience, and optimize operational efficiency.
Once a problem is identified, problem management involves a thorough investigation and root cause analysis. Techniques such as the “Five Whys,” Ishikawa diagrams (fishbone diagrams), or fault tree analysis are commonly used to understand why the problem occurs. Once the root cause is determined, the problem is documented as a known error in the known error database, along with any workarounds that can temporarily mitigate the impact on users. Workarounds are particularly valuable for recurring incidents, allowing faster resolution while a permanent solution is developed. The final step is implementing a permanent resolution through changes that address the root cause, followed by validation and monitoring to ensure the issue is fully resolved.
Option A is incorrect because an incident is a single event of service disruption, not the underlying cause. Option C is incorrect because an event is a change of state that may have significance but does not represent a root cause. Option D is incorrect because service requests are user-initiated requests for information, access, or standard services, which are unrelated to the identification of problems.
Effective problem management requires collaboration across multiple teams, access to accurate configuration and service information, and strong analytical skills. It contributes to continual improvement by identifying weaknesses in systems, processes, and technologies. By systematically addressing root causes, organizations not only reduce incident volume but also enhance service quality, reliability, and customer satisfaction. Furthermore, integrating problem management with change enablement ensures that permanent solutions are implemented safely and efficiently. This holistic approach ensures that problem management supports long-term value creation rather than merely reacting to operational issues.
Question 86:
Which value chain activity includes updating service catalogue information?
A) Design and transition
B) Engage
C) Deliver and support
D) Plan
Answer: A) Design and transition
Explanation:
The design and transition value chain activity includes updating service catalogue information as part of ensuring that services are properly documented and that information about services is accurate and current. As services are designed and transitioned into operation, the service catalogue must be updated to reflect what services are available, what they provide, and how to access them.
Service catalogue information is essential for users and customers to understand what services are available and for service providers to manage their service offerings effectively. Maintaining accurate catalogue information is part of ensuring services are ready for use and that stakeholders have the information they need.
Option B is incorrect because while engage involves communicating about services, the actual updating of service catalogue information occurs as part of design and transition activities. Option C is incorrect because deliver and support focuses on operational delivery rather than updating service definitions. Option D is incorrect because plan focuses on strategic and tactical planning rather than maintaining detailed service information.
The service catalogue should be maintained as a living document that reflects the current state of services. Updates should occur as services are introduced, modified, or retired. The catalogue should be accessible to those who need it and should provide clear, useful information about services.
Question 87:
What should be the PRIMARY consideration when prioritizing incidents?
A) The seniority of the person reporting the incident
B) The business impact and urgency of the incident
C) The technical complexity of resolution
D) The order in which incidents were reported
Answer: B) The business impact and urgency of the incident
Explanation:
The primary consideration when prioritizing incidents should be the business impact and urgency. Impact refers to the effect the incident has on business operations, including how many users are affected and whether critical business functions are disrupted. Urgency refers to how quickly resolution is needed. Together these factors determine the priority that should be assigned to incidents.
High-impact incidents affecting many users or critical services should receive higher priority than low-impact incidents. Similarly, urgent incidents that will cause increasing damage or disruption if not resolved quickly should be prioritized over less urgent issues. This approach ensures resources are focused where they can minimize business impact most effectively.
Option A is incorrect because priority should not be based on the seniority of the person reporting the incident but rather on objective business impact. All users should receive appropriate service based on business needs. Option C is incorrect because while technical complexity affects how incidents are resolved, it should not be the primary factor in prioritization. Simple-to-fix incidents that have high business impact should still be prioritized. Option D is incorrect because first-in-first-out processing does not account for different levels of business impact and can result in low-priority incidents delaying critical ones.
Organizations should establish clear criteria for assessing impact and urgency and should train staff to apply these criteria consistently. Prioritization should be reviewed and adjusted as circumstances change. The goal is to minimize overall business impact through effective resource allocation.
Question 88:
Which is a key activity of the continual improvement practice?
A) Negotiating service level agreements
B) Encouraging improvement at all levels
C) Authorizing changes to services
D) Responding to security incidents
Answer: B) Encouraging improvement at all levels
Explanation:
Encouraging improvement at all levels is a key activity of the continual improvement practice. This practice works to create and maintain a culture where everyone in the organization looks for opportunities to improve and contributes to improvement efforts. Improvement should not be limited to specialists or management but should be part of how everyone works.
The continual improvement practice provides methods, tools, and frameworks that enable improvement throughout the organization. It ensures improvement efforts are coordinated and aligned with organizational objectives. The practice also maintains the improvement register where improvement ideas are captured and managed through their lifecycle from identification to implementation.
Option A is incorrect because negotiating service level agreements is an activity of service level management, not continual improvement. Option C is incorrect because authorizing changes to services is an activity of change enablement. Option D is incorrect because responding to security incidents is an activity of information security management and incident management.
Making continual improvement work requires leadership support, allocation of time and resources for improvement activities, recognition of improvement contributions, and systematic approaches to identifying and implementing improvements. The practice should ensure improvements are based on data and analysis rather than assumptions.
Question 89:
What is the purpose of the knowledge management practice?
A) To maintain information about configuration items
B) To maintain and improve the effective use of knowledge across the organization
C) To ensure accurate information about IT assets
D) To protect information from security threats
Answer: B) To maintain and improve the effective use of knowledge across the organization
Explanation:
The purpose of the knowledge management practice is to maintain and improve the effective, efficient, and convenient use of knowledge across the organization. This practice ensures that valuable knowledge is captured, organized, maintained, and made available to those who need it. Knowledge management recognizes that organizational knowledge is a valuable asset that should be actively managed.
Knowledge management addresses both explicit knowledge that can be documented and tacit knowledge that resides in people’s experience. The practice works to capture knowledge from various sources, organize it in accessible ways, maintain its accuracy and relevance, and facilitate knowledge sharing. It supports better decision-making and more efficient work by ensuring people can access relevant knowledge.
Option A is incorrect because maintaining information about configuration items is the purpose of configuration management, not knowledge management. Configuration information is one type of knowledge but knowledge management has a broader scope. Option C is incorrect because ensuring accurate information about IT assets is the purpose of IT asset management. Option D is incorrect because protecting information from security threats is the purpose of information security management.
Effective knowledge management requires appropriate technologies to capture and share knowledge, processes to keep knowledge current, and a culture that encourages knowledge sharing. The practice should make it easy for people to find and use knowledge while also contributing their own knowledge back to the organization.
Question 90:
Which practice includes the use of diagnostic scripts?
A) Incident management
B) Problem management
C) Service desk
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation:
Diagnostic scripts can be used across multiple practices including incident management, problem management, and service desk operations. Diagnostic scripts are structured procedures that guide staff through investigation and diagnosis activities. They help ensure consistent approaches, capture knowledge about how to diagnose issues, and enable less experienced staff to handle situations effectively.
In incident management, diagnostic scripts help identify incident causes and determine appropriate resolutions. In problem management, scripts support root cause analysis and problem investigation. At the service desk, scripts help with initial diagnosis and may enable first-line resolution of issues. The scripts should be based on accumulated knowledge and best practices.
Option A would be incorrect on its own because diagnostic scripts are not limited to incident management. Option B would be incorrect because scripts are used beyond just problem management. Option C would be incorrect because the service desk is not the only practice using diagnostic scripts. Only option D correctly recognizes that multiple practices use diagnostic scripts.
Diagnostic scripts should be developed based on experience with recurring issues and should be kept current as services and technologies evolve. They are most effective when they incorporate knowledge from previous incidents and problems. Scripts should guide thinking without being so rigid that they prevent staff from adapting to unique circumstances.
Question 91:
What is the purpose of the service catalogue management practice?
A) To provide information about available services
B) To negotiate service level agreements
C) To restore service after disruptions
D) To manage relationships with stakeholders
Answer: A) To provide information about available services
Explanation:
The purpose of the service catalogue management practice is to provide a single source of consistent information on all services and service offerings and to ensure that it is available to the relevant audience. The service catalogue makes it easy for customers, users, and service provider staff to understand what services are available, what they deliver, and how to access them.
Service catalogue management maintains information about current services and may also include information about services in development or being retired. The catalogue should be presented in ways appropriate for different audiences. Customer-facing catalogues emphasize services from the customer perspective while technical catalogues may include more detailed information about service components.
Option B is incorrect because negotiating service level agreements is an activity of service level management, not service catalogue management. The catalogue may reference SLAs but does not negotiate them. Option C is incorrect because restoring service after disruptions is the purpose of incident management. Option D is incorrect because managing relationships with stakeholders is the purpose of relationship management.
An effective service catalogue is easy to access, clearly written, kept current, and integrated with request and ordering processes. It helps customers understand service options, supports consistent communication about services, and provides a foundation for service level management and other practices.
Question 92:
Which practice would typically use a balanced scorecard for measuring performance?
A) Continual improvement
B) Service level management
C) Monitoring and event management
D) Change enablement
Answer: A) Continual improvement
Explanation:
The continual improvement practice would typically use tools like balanced scorecards for measuring organizational performance across multiple dimensions. A balanced scorecard looks at performance from multiple perspectives such as financial, customer, internal process, and learning/growth. This multi-dimensional view helps ensure improvement efforts consider all aspects of organizational performance.
Balanced scorecards align well with continual improvement because they provide a holistic view of performance, connect operational activities to strategic objectives, and help identify where improvement efforts should be focused. They support balanced decision-making that considers multiple stakeholder perspectives rather than optimizing for single metrics.
Option B is incorrect because while service level management measures service performance, it typically focuses on specific service level metrics rather than the broad organizational view provided by balanced scorecards. Option C is incorrect because monitoring and event management focuses on technical monitoring of services and components. Option D is incorrect because change enablement focuses on change success rates and other change-specific metrics.
Continual improvement benefits from balanced scorecards because they prevent over-emphasis on any single aspect of performance. For example, focusing only on cost reduction might harm quality or customer satisfaction. Balanced approaches ensure improvements consider multiple important factors and create sustainable value.
Question 93:
What is the starting point for continual improvement?
A) Identifying problems that need to be fixed
B) Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization
C) Implementing new technologies
D) Hiring specialized improvement staff
Answer: B) Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization
Explanation:
The starting point for continual improvement is understanding the vision and objectives of the organization. The ITIL continual improvement model begins with this step because improvement efforts must be aligned with what the organization is trying to achieve. Without understanding organizational direction, improvement initiatives may deliver changes that do not support strategic goals.
Understanding vision and objectives provides the context for all subsequent improvement steps. It helps determine what should be improved, how to prioritize improvement opportunities, what success looks like, and how to measure progress. This alignment ensures improvement efforts contribute to organizational strategy rather than pursuing improvements for their own sake.
Option A is incorrect because while identifying problems is part of improvement, it should not be the starting point. Problems should be evaluated in the context of organizational objectives. Not all problems are worth fixing. Option C is incorrect because implementing new technologies is a potential improvement action, not the starting point. Technology should support objectives rather than drive them. Option D is incorrect because hiring staff is a resource decision, not the starting point for improvement.
By starting with vision and objectives improvement efforts are strategic rather than tactical. This approach ensures resources are invested where they can deliver the most value and that improvements are judged by their contribution to organizational success rather than by technical criteria alone.
Question 94:
Which practice includes conducting post-implementation reviews?
A) Change enablement
B) Continual improvement
C) Release management
D) Service validation and testing
Answer: A) Change enablement
Explanation:
The change enablement practice includes conducting post-implementation reviews to evaluate whether changes achieved their objectives, whether the change process was effective, and whether any issues occurred that should be addressed. These reviews provide valuable learning that improves future change success rates and helps refine change procedures.
Post-implementation reviews examine whether the change delivered expected benefits, whether it caused any unexpected problems, whether the implementation went smoothly, and what lessons can be learned. The reviews should occur after sufficient time has passed to assess real results but soon enough that details are still fresh. Findings should be used to improve change processes and practices.
Option B is incorrect because while continual improvement certainly benefits from post-implementation reviews and may use them as input, the specific responsibility for conducting these reviews as part of change management sits with change enablement. Option C is incorrect because release management focuses on coordinating releases rather than reviewing individual changes. Option D is incorrect because service validation and testing occurs before implementation to verify readiness, not after implementation.
Effective post-implementation reviews require honest assessment rather than just validation that changes worked. They should identify what went well and what could be improved. The reviews provide opportunities to recognize good work and to learn from both successes and challenges. Organizations should ensure findings lead to actual improvements in practices.
Question 95:
What is the purpose of the deployment management practice?
A) To authorize changes to services
B) To move new or changed components to live environments
C) To ensure services meet agreed availability levels
D) To coordinate multiple changes into releases
Answer: B) To move new or changed components to live environments
Explanation:
The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other components to live environments. Deployment management ensures these components are transferred from development or staging environments into production where they can be used to deliver value. The practice focuses on the actual movement and installation activities.
Deployment management plans and executes deployments, ensuring they occur smoothly with minimal disruption. The practice considers deployment methods, timing, dependencies, and rollback procedures. It works to ensure that deployed components function correctly in the live environment and that any issues are detected and addressed quickly.
Option A is incorrect because authorizing changes to services is the responsibility of change enablement, not deployment management. Deployment occurs after authorization has been obtained. Option C is incorrect because ensuring services meet agreed availability levels is the purpose of availability management. Option D is incorrect because coordinating multiple changes into releases is the purpose of release management, which works closely with but is distinct from deployment management.
Effective deployment management uses appropriate automation to ensure deployments are reliable and repeatable. It includes verification steps to confirm deployments completed successfully and monitoring to detect any issues. The practice should have clear procedures for rolling back deployments if serious problems occur.
Question 96:
Which dimension of service management considers ethics and compliance?
A) Organizations and people
B) Information and technology
C) Partners and suppliers
D) All four dimensions
Answer: D) All four dimensions
Explanation:
Ethics and compliance considerations apply across all four dimensions of service management, not just to a single dimension. Each dimension must consider relevant ethical standards, regulations, and compliance requirements. The four dimensions provide different perspectives on service management, and ethics and compliance are relevant from each perspective.
The organizations and people dimension considers ethical treatment of employees and ethical culture. The information and technology dimension addresses data privacy and ethical use of technology. The partners and suppliers dimension considers ethical sourcing and compliance with contract terms. The value streams and processes dimension ensures processes meet regulatory requirements and ethical standards.
Option A would be incorrect on its own because while organizations and people certainly involves ethics and compliance, these considerations extend beyond this dimension. Option B would be incorrect because information and technology is not the only dimension concerned with ethics and compliance. Option C would be incorrect because partners and suppliers alone does not encompass all ethical and compliance considerations.
Organizations must consider ethics and compliance holistically across all aspects of service management. Regulations like GDPR, industry standards, and ethical principles apply across organizational boundaries and technical domains. Taking a holistic view ensures compliance is embedded throughout service management rather than treated as an isolated concern.
Question 97:
What is a change schedule used for?
A) To record all incidents and their resolutions
B) To plan when changes will be implemented
C) To track configuration items and their relationships
D) To document service level agreements
Answer: B) To plan when changes will be implemented
Explanation:
A change schedule is used to plan when authorized changes will be implemented. It provides visibility into upcoming changes, helps coordinate changes to avoid conflicts, and enables communication with stakeholders about planned activities. The change schedule helps ensure that changes are implemented at appropriate times that minimize business disruption.
Change enablement maintains the change schedule, which typically shows authorized changes, their planned implementation dates and times, what services or components they affect, and other relevant information. The schedule helps identify potential conflicts where multiple changes might affect the same services or components. It also supports planning for resources needed to implement changes.
Option A is incorrect because recording all incidents and their resolutions is the function of an incident record or incident database, not a change schedule. Option C is incorrect because tracking configuration items and their relationships is the function of a configuration management system, not a change schedule. Option D is incorrect because documenting service level agreements is done through SLA documents, not a change schedule.
The change schedule should be accessible to those who need visibility into planned changes including technical teams, service desk staff, and sometimes customers. It helps coordinate work and ensures everyone has awareness of planned activities. The schedule should be kept current as change plans evolve.
Question 98:
Which practice ensures that services are designed to meet business outcomes?
A) Business analysis
B) Service design
C) Relationship management
D) Service level management
Answer: B) Service design
Explanation:
Service design is the practice that ensures services are designed to meet defined business outcomes and stakeholder requirements. This practice encompasses the design of services, architectures, processes, and policies to realize the organization’s strategy and facilitate value creation. Service design ensures services are fit for purpose and fit for use.
Service design involves understanding requirements, designing service solutions that meet those requirements, considering all four dimensions of service management, and ensuring services can be effectively transitioned and operated. The practice works to create services that enable the business outcomes stakeholders need to achieve.
Option A is incorrect because while business analysis capabilities support understanding requirements, it is not one of the named ITIL 4 practices. Service design incorporates analysis activities. Option C is incorrect because relationship management focuses on maintaining stakeholder relationships rather than designing services. Option D is incorrect because service level management focuses on setting and monitoring service level targets rather than designing services.
Effective service design requires understanding not just functional requirements but also warranty requirements for availability, capacity, security, and continuity. It must consider all aspects of services including technology, processes, people, and partners. Design should be holistic and should consider the entire service lifecycle from introduction through operation to retirement.
Question 99:
What should guide all decisions and activities according to the guiding principles?
A) Organizational policies
B) Technical specifications
C) Value for stakeholders
D) Cost reduction
Answer: C) Value for stakeholders
Explanation:
According to the focus on value guiding principle, value for stakeholders should guide all decisions and activities. This principle emphasizes that everything the organization does should be linked to value creation for the organization itself and its stakeholders including customers, users, employees, shareholders, and others. Value should be the primary consideration in decision-making.
The focus on value principle requires organizations to understand who their stakeholders are, what they value, and how activities contribute to creating that value. It means evaluating decisions based on whether they will create value rather than on other criteria. This stakeholder-centric approach ensures organizations remain focused on their purpose of enabling value creation.
Option A is incorrect because while organizational policies are important, they should themselves be guided by value creation rather than being the primary guide. Policies should support value, not drive decisions independently. Option B is incorrect because technical specifications are means to achieve value, not the guide for decisions. Technology should serve value creation. Option D is incorrect because cost reduction is only valuable if it does not harm value creation. Cutting costs that reduces value is counterproductive.
Applying the focus on value principle means regularly asking whether activities create value, involving stakeholders to understand what they value, and being willing to eliminate activities that do not contribute to value even if they seem important for other reasons. Value should be the lens through which all service management decisions are viewed.
Question 100:
Which value chain activity includes demand forecasting?
A) Plan
B) Engage
C) Obtain/build
D) Deliver and support
Answer: A) Plan
Explanation:
The plan value chain activity includes demand forecasting as part of ensuring the organization understands current and future demand for services and has appropriate plans to meet that demand. Forecasting helps organizations anticipate needs and ensure they have adequate capacity, resources, and capabilities to deliver services effectively.
Demand forecasting analyzes patterns and trends in service usage, considers factors that may increase or decrease demand, and projects future demand levels. This information informs capacity planning, workforce planning, financial planning, and other aspects of ensuring the organization is prepared to meet stakeholder needs.
Option B is incorrect because while engage involves understanding stakeholder needs, the analytical work of forecasting demand is part of planning activities. Option C is incorrect because obtain/build focuses on ensuring components are available based on plans rather than forecasting demand. Option D is incorrect because deliver and support focuses on operational delivery rather than demand forecasting.
Effective demand forecasting requires good data about historical patterns, understanding of business plans and changes that may affect demand, and analytical capabilities to project trends. Forecasts should be regularly updated as new information becomes available. The accuracy of forecasts improves with better data and experience.
