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QUESTION 61:
Which disaster recovery site provides fully operational hardware, up-to-date data, and all necessary infrastructure, allowing immediate failover with minimal downtime?
A) Hot Site
B) Warm Site
C) Cold Site
D) Mobile Site
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it refers to the disaster recovery site type designed to fully replicate production capabilities, maintain real-time data synchronization, and allow immediate continuation of business operations when the primary site becomes unavailable. SSCP candidates must understand this site type because organizations with extremely low recovery time objectives rely on it to avoid operational disruption during disasters such as power failures, cyberattacks, natural events, or major system outages.
Understanding why A is correct begins with defining what this site provides. It includes fully equipped servers, network components, storage systems, software installations, and often complete system images identical to the primary environment. Data at this site is continuously replicated or mirrored so that it remains current. When a primary site goes offline, systems can switch seamlessly to this location, maintaining almost uninterrupted service. This capability is essential for industries requiring high availability such as healthcare, banking, emergency services, and critical infrastructure.
Comparing A with the alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe a warm site, which has hardware available but not fully configured, leading to slower recovery. Another may reference a cold site—a facility with power and space but no preinstalled hardware or data—resulting in long delays. Another alternative could describe mobile recovery units, which cannot match the readiness level of a fully operational site. Only answer A delivers immediate failover and the minimal downtime implied in the question.
However, SSCP candidates must also understand the associated challenges. This site type is the most expensive to implement due to infrastructure duplication, continuous network connectivity requirements, licensing, and maintenance costs. Organizations must plan, test, and update these sites regularly to ensure seamless failover functionality. Despite the expense, many organizations justify the cost by analyzing the financial and operational impact of downtime.
Testing is essential. Failover procedures must be executed periodically to validate synchronization, compatibility, and functionality. During these tests, administrators verify that applications, databases, user access, and network routing operate normally at the alternate site. Without testing, organizations risk discovering failures only during real emergencies.
Security considerations play a major role. A fully operational site must implement identical or even enhanced security controls as the primary environment. This includes patching, access management, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, data encryption, and monitoring. Attackers may target the recovery site, knowing that compromised backups undermine disaster recovery.
Because answer A is the only option describing a fully equipped, always-ready disaster recovery site capable of immediate failover, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 62:
Which process ensures that software, operating systems, and applications remain protected against known vulnerabilities by applying updates, fixes, and enhancements?
A) System Hardening
B) Configuration Management
C) Patch Management
D) Change Control
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the structured and continuous process of updating systems to address security weaknesses, improve functionality, and correct defects. SSCP candidates must understand this process because failing to apply updates exposes systems to attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities. Patch management is a foundational component of system maintenance and a major defense against malware, system compromise, and unauthorized access.
Understanding why C is correct begins by examining what the process includes. It involves identifying available updates, evaluating their relevance, testing them in controlled environments, scheduling deployment, applying them to production systems, and documenting all actions. This ensures systems remain secure, stable, and compliant with organizational and regulatory requirements. Without an effective patch process, systems quickly become outdated and vulnerable.
Comparing C with alternative answers shows why the others are incorrect. One option may describe configuration management, which focuses on system settings but does not apply updates. Another may define vulnerability scanning, which identifies weaknesses but does not remediate them. Another may describe system hardening, which removes unnecessary functions but does not address discovered flaws. Only answer C directly involves applying updates to correct vulnerabilities.
Patch management addresses several types of updates: security patches, firmware updates, application patches, service packs, and emergency fixes. Organizations prioritize patches based on severity, exposure, and potential impact. Critical patches addressing active exploits require immediate action, while lower-risk patches can follow routine schedules. SSCP candidates must understand that timely patching greatly reduces the attack surface and limits exploitability.
Testing is an essential component of this process. Unverified patches can create compatibility issues, break system functions, or cause service outages. By testing in controlled environments, organizations reduce the risk of unintended consequences. Documentation ensures traceability and helps maintain compliance with regulations requiring evidence of patching.
Patch management also applies to virtual environments, cloud services, mobile devices, IoT systems, and network appliances. Automated patch tools help organizations maintain consistent coverage, but even with automation, oversight and verification remain necessary.
Because answer C is the only choice that encompasses updating systems with fixes and enhancements to address vulnerabilities, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 63:
Which attack technique involves intercepting and altering communications between two parties without their knowledge, making both believe they are communicating directly with each other?
A) Replay Attack
B) Phishing Attack
C) Brute-Force Attack
D) Man-in-the-Middle Attack
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it identifies the attack in which an adversary secretly positions themselves between two communicating parties in order to observe, modify, or inject data. SSCP candidates must understand this attack because it threatens confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and trust in network communication. When successful, it enables attackers to harvest credentials, alter transactions, inject malicious payloads, or impersonate users.
Understanding why D is correct begins with examining how the attack operates. Two systems believe they are communicating directly, but an attacker intercepts and relays messages between them. The attacker can decrypt or manipulate data if encryption is absent or improperly implemented. Even in encrypted communication, attackers may exploit certificate weaknesses or trick users into trusting malicious certificates. This attack is sophisticated because it exploits trust relationships, weak authentication, or network vulnerabilities.
Comparing D with alternative answers clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe replay attacks, which resend captured data without altering communication flow. Another may describe session hijacking, which involves taking over a valid session rather than intercepting both sides simultaneously. Another may describe eavesdropping, which only monitors traffic without modifying it. Only answer D accurately reflects simultaneous interception and alteration.
This attack can occur on unsecured Wi-Fi networks, compromised routers, proxies, DNS poisoning scenarios, or through malicious access points. SSCP candidates must recognize that this attack often pairs with phishing, ARP spoofing, or SSL stripping to bypass encryption. In many cases, attackers deploy fake certificates or downgrade encryption protocols.
Defense strategies include using end-to-end encryption, certificate pinning, strong DNSSEC configurations, network segmentation, and secure wireless authentication. Users must be trained to detect certificate warnings, suspicious redirects, and untrusted connections. Security tools such as intrusion detection systems may detect anomalies indicative of this attack.
Because answer D accurately identifies the attack technique in which attackers intercept and alter communications between two unaware parties, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 64:
Which physical security control uses authentication, authorization, and monitoring to regulate and track entry into secured areas within a facility?
A) CCTV
B) Access Control System
C) Motion Sensors
D) Security Lighting
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it describes the comprehensive physical access control system that combines identity verification, permission validation, and real-time monitoring to ensure only authorized individuals enter restricted zones. SSCP candidates must understand this control because physical security plays a crucial role in protecting information systems, hardware, personnel, and sensitive data. Without strong physical access controls, even the most advanced cybersecurity protections can be bypassed.
Understanding why B is correct requires examining how such systems function. These controls include badge readers, biometric scanners, PIN pads, turnstiles, locks, surveillance systems, and centralized control software. When an individual attempts to enter a secured area, the system first verifies identity (authentication). It then determines whether the person has the appropriate clearance (authorization). Finally, the system logs and monitors the entry attempt for auditing and response purposes. This ensures accountability and prevents unauthorized access.
Comparing B with alternative choices clarifies the differences. One option may describe environmental controls, which protect against temperature or humidity issues. Another may describe perimeter fencing, which protects outer boundaries but does not authenticate individuals. Another may describe emergency controls that support evacuation but not daily access restriction. Only answer B aligns with controlled and monitored access to restricted indoor areas.
Physical access systems also provide surveillance capabilities. Cameras and logs document who entered, when they entered, and which routes they took. This is crucial for investigations and compliance. Unauthorized attempts generate alerts, enabling security staff to respond quickly. SSCP candidates must also understand integration with intrusion detection, alarm systems, and facility monitoring centers.
These systems enforce least privilege in physical environments. Only employees who need access to server rooms, storage areas, or sensitive offices receive the appropriate permissions. Lost or stolen access cards can be deactivated immediately, preventing unauthorized entry.
Because answer B is the only option describing authentication, authorization, and monitored entry into secure facility areas, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 65:
Which form of malware encrypts a victim’s data and demands payment for the decryption key, often spreading through phishing or exploit kits?
A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Ransomware
D) Rootkit
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the type of malware specifically designed to lock users out of their files or systems by encrypting critical data and demanding payment for its release. SSCP candidates must understand this threat because it is one of the most damaging and widespread cyberattacks affecting individuals, businesses, and government agencies. It disrupts operations, causes financial loss, and often leads to data breaches or permanent data loss.
Understanding why C is correct begins by examining how this malware functions. Initial infection often occurs through phishing emails, malicious attachments, drive-by downloads, or exploitation of unpatched vulnerabilities. Once inside the system, the malware encrypts documents, databases, images, configurations, and sometimes entire disks. Attackers then deliver a ransom note that demands payment—typically in cryptocurrency—in exchange for the decryption key.
Comparing C with alternative answers clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe spyware, which monitors users without encrypting data. Another may classify trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate programs but may not encrypt files. Another may describe worms, which replicate but do not demand ransom. Only answer C fits the definition of encrypting data and demanding payment.
This malware often spreads laterally across networks, seeking additional systems to infect. Some variants exfiltrate data before encrypting it, giving attackers additional leverage. Others target backup systems to prevent recovery. SSCP candidates must understand that paying the ransom does not guarantee recovery, and it encourages further attacks.
Defense strategies include maintaining offline backups, implementing strong email filtering, patching systems, using endpoint security tools, and enforcing least privilege. Network segmentation helps contain outbreaks. Responders must isolate infected systems, preserve evidence, and initiate recovery procedures using clean backups.
Because answer C accurately identifies malware that encrypts data and demands payment, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 66:
Which identity verification method uses measurable biological characteristics such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial features to authenticate individuals?
A) Token-Based Authentication
B) Password Authentication
C) Certificate-Based Authentication
D) Biometric Authentication
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the authentication method that relies on unique physiological or behavioral characteristics to verify a user’s identity. SSCP candidates must understand this method because it represents one of the strongest forms of authentication due to its reliance on characteristics that are extremely difficult to steal, forge, or replicate. Biometric authentication plays a significant role in modern security systems by providing high assurance that the person accessing a resource is truly who they claim to be.
Understanding why D is correct requires examining how biometric authentication works. It compares a user’s live physical trait—such as a fingerprint, iris scan, hand geometry, voice pattern, or facial recognition—with previously enrolled biometric templates stored securely in a system. When a user attempts access, the system captures the biological characteristic, converts it into a digital format, and matches it against the stored template. A successful match grants access. This method offers strong protection against impersonation.
Comparing D with alternative options clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe knowledge-based authentication such as passwords or PINs, which rely on something the user knows but are susceptible to guessing, theft, and reuse attacks. Another may describe token-based authentication, which uses physical devices such as smart cards or key fobs—stronger than passwords but still subject to loss or theft. Another alternative may involve multifactor approaches without specifying biological traits. Only answer D directly involves the use of measurable biological features.
Biometric authentication offers several advantages. It eliminates the need for users to remember complex passwords, reduces password-related help desk calls, strengthens access control, and supports nonrepudiation because the biometric trait ties directly to the user. Biometric systems also integrate well with physical access control, enabling secure entry into restricted areas such as data centers, laboratories, and high-security zones.
However, SSCP candidates must also understand challenges associated with biometrics. Privacy concerns exist because individuals cannot change their biometric traits if compromised. Therefore, systems must store biometric templates securely using encryption and strong access controls. Accuracy issues may arise due to environmental factors, sensor quality, or user variability. Two key accuracy measures are false acceptance rate (FAR), which indicates unauthorized users being accepted, and false rejection rate (FRR), which indicates legitimate users being denied. Balancing these rates is essential for effective and user-friendly biometric systems.
Biometric systems must also be hardened against spoofing attempts, where attackers use artificial fingerprints, facial images, or voice recordings to bypass authentication. Advanced biometric systems incorporate liveness detection to verify that the presented trait comes from a living person, not from a replica or image.
Despite these challenges, biometrics provide strong, convenient, and increasingly affordable authentication. They are used across enterprise systems, mobile devices, physical access systems, and high-security applications. Because answer D identifies authentication based on unique biological characteristics, it is the correct choice.
QUESTION 67:
Which type of network attack floods a target system or service with excessive traffic, overwhelming its resources and causing it to become unavailable to legitimate users?
A) DoS Attack
B) MITM Attack
C) SQL Injection
D) DNS Spoofing
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it identifies the attack that overwhelms a target’s bandwidth, processing power, memory, or network capacity by sending massive amounts of malicious traffic. SSCP candidates must understand this attack because it remains one of the most common and disruptive forms of cyberattacks affecting organizations. It can render websites, servers, and entire networks unavailable, causing downtime, financial losses, and reputational damage.
Understanding why A is correct requires examining the core mechanics of this attack. Attackers generate extremely large volumes of malicious traffic, often using botnets—large networks of compromised devices such as computers, IoT hardware, or misconfigured servers. These devices send coordinated traffic toward the target, saturating its ability to respond to legitimate requests. Because the system cannot distinguish malicious traffic from legitimate traffic under overload conditions, it becomes unresponsive or crashes.
Comparing A with the alternative answers shows why they are incorrect. One option may describe man-in-the-middle attacks involving interception, which are not based on overwhelming traffic. Another may involve replay attacks where captured data is resent, but not at the scale required to flood a system. Another may describe phishing, which involves social engineering rather than network saturation. Only answer A correctly describes resource exhaustion via massive traffic volumes.
This attack has several variations. Volume-based attacks overwhelm bandwidth; protocol attacks exploit weaknesses in network protocols such as SYN floods; application-layer attacks target specific services like HTTP, DNS, or database front ends. SSCP candidates must recognize each subtype and understand how attackers exploit them. Attackers frequently combine multiple attack vectors to evade detection and complicate mitigation.
Monitoring plays a crucial role as early detection enables faster mitigation. Traffic pattern analysis, behavior-based anomaly detection, and automated alerts help administrators respond quickly. Incident response teams must have predefined procedures to handle these attacks effectively.
Because answer A is the only option representing an attack that overwhelms systems with traffic, it is correct.
QUESTION 68:
Which security principle ensures that individuals can be held responsible for the actions they perform on systems by creating reliable logs that trace their activities?
A) Least Privilege
B) Separation of Duties
C) Accountability
D) Need to Know
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the principle that holds users accountable by linking their identity to actions performed on a system. SSCP candidates must understand this principle because accountability is essential in enforcing security policies, supporting investigations, and maintaining trust in system integrity. Without accountability, unauthorized actions go undetected and untraceable, significantly weakening security.
Understanding why C is correct requires analyzing how accountability functions. Systems must uniquely identify users through authentication, authorize them appropriately, and record their actions in logs. These logs must be tamper-resistant and time-stamped to ensure accuracy and integrity. When an action occurs—such as file access, configuration changes, or sensitive data retrieval—the log entry must clearly identify which user performed it. This allows auditors and administrators to verify compliance, detect anomalies, and investigate incidents.
Comparing C with alternative options clarifies why they are not correct. One option may describe confidentiality, which restricts information access rather than tracking actions. Another may describe availability, ensuring systems remain accessible but not tracking usage. Another may describe integrity, which focuses on preventing unauthorized modification but does not inherently track user actions. Only answer C captures the tracking and responsibility requirements.
Audit trails are vital for incident response. They allow investigators to reconstruct events, determine the sequence of actions, identify the source of compromise, and verify which data was accessed or changed. They also help detect insider threats, unauthorized privilege elevation, and policy violations.
Regulatory frameworks such as HIPAA, PCI DSS, SOX, and many international privacy laws mandate accountability mechanisms through logging and audit trail requirements. Organizations must maintain detailed logs for compliance and be able to produce them during audits.
Without accountability, organizations cannot enforce discipline, detect malicious behavior, assign responsibility, or prevent future incidents. Because answer C accurately captures the principle ensuring that users are responsible for their actions, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 69:
Which wireless security protocol provides the strongest encryption and authentication by requiring modern hardware that supports advanced security features?
A) WPA
B) WPA3
C) WEP
D) WPA2
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it refers to the latest generation of wireless security standards that require compatible modern hardware and provide advanced encryption, improved authentication, and stronger overall security. SSCP candidates must understand this protocol because older wireless standards have known weaknesses that attackers regularly exploit. As organizations upgrade to newer systems, implementing the strongest wireless security available is essential.
Understanding why B is correct requires reviewing how this protocol improves upon predecessors. Earlier protocols relied on outdated encryption algorithms or were vulnerable to brute-force and replay attacks. The strongest modern protocol uses state-of-the-art cryptographic techniques, improved key management, forward secrecy, and enhanced authentication mechanisms. It also mitigates vulnerabilities found in earlier methods by eliminating weak configurations, enhancing handshake procedures, and requiring protected management frames.
Comparing B with alternative choices clarifies their weaknesses. One option may describe older protocols such as WEP, which is considered entirely insecure. Another may describe WPA or WPA2, which are significantly stronger than WEP but still contain known vulnerabilities, including attacks targeting pre-shared keys or handshake deficiencies. Another option may describe enterprise modes that improve authentication but still rely on older cryptographic bases. Only answer B represents the strongest current option requiring up-to-date hardware.
This protocol mandates hardware support because its encryption and authentication processes are too advanced to retrofit onto devices designed for older standards. It prevents downgrade attacks by requiring secure negotiation processes and blocking fallback to insecure modes.
SSCP candidates must understand that strong wireless security also includes proper configuration. Even the most secure protocol can be weakened through poor key management, default passwords, insecure PSKs, shared credentials, or misconfigurations. Network segmentation and monitoring further strengthen wireless environments.
Organizations adopting this protocol mitigate risks such as network eavesdropping, rogue access points, credential theft, evil-twin attacks, and brute-force attacks. Using this protocol ensures that transmitted data remains confidential and protected against tampering.
Because answer B identifies the strongest available wireless security protocol requiring modern hardware, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 70:
Which form of access control assigns permissions to users based on their job functions within an organization, ensuring they receive only the access necessary to perform their roles?
A) Salting
B) Peppering
C) Hash Stretching
D) Key Escrowing
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the access control model that assigns permissions based on predefined job roles. SSCP candidates must understand this model because it simplifies administration, enforces least privilege, and ensures consistent permission distribution. Instead of assigning permissions individually, users inherit access rights by being placed into a role aligned with their responsibilities.
Understanding why D is correct requires analyzing how this model works. Organizations define roles such as manager, technician, auditor, or administrator, then associate each role with necessary permissions. When a user joins the organization, they are assigned a role based on their job function. They automatically receive all corresponding permissions and no others, reducing the risk of excessive access.
Comparing D with alternative answers reveals why others are incorrect. One option may describe discretionary access control, where data owners decide permissions, leading to potential inconsistencies. Another may describe mandatory access control, which uses classifications rather than roles. Another may describe rule-based control, which applies conditional policies rather than job-based assignments. Only answer D reflects permissions tied directly to job functions.
This model improves scalability and maintainability. When job roles change, administrators simply adjust the user’s assigned role rather than editing individual permissions. This reduces administrative overhead and errors. It also enhances security by ensuring consistent application of least privilege throughout the organization.
Organizations use this model in identity management systems, operating systems, databases, and applications. It integrates well with automated provisioning tools and supports segregation of duties requirements by preventing conflicting permissions from being assigned within a single role.
Because answer D accurately describes access control based on job functions, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 71:
Which security technique adds randomness to hashed passwords in a credential store to prevent attackers from using precomputed lookup tables such as rainbow tables?
A) Salting
B) Peppering
C) Hash Stretching
D) Key Escrowing
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it identifies the technique specifically designed to protect password hashes by introducing randomness before hashing. SSCP candidates must understand this concept because password databases are a primary target for attackers. When attackers obtain hashed credentials, they attempt to crack them using precomputed values or large-scale dictionary attacks. By adding a unique random value to each password before hashing, the technique effectively prevents attackers from using prebuilt tables, which rely on predictable hash outputs.
Understanding why A is correct begins with the mechanics of how randomness influences hashing. Hash algorithms produce the same output for the same input every time. Without added randomness, identical passwords produce identical hashes, making it easier for attackers to crack multiple passwords at once. By adding random data to each password, hashes become unique even if two users choose the same password. Therefore, attackers cannot rely on precomputed tables because the randomness changes the expected hash output and forces them to compute each guess individually.
Comparing A with alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may refer to hashing itself, which is essential but does not protect against rainbow tables when used alone. Another may describe peppering, which adds a global secret shared across accounts but does not provide the per-user uniqueness required to prevent lookup attacks. Another option may describe encryption, which is reversible and unsuited for credential storage. Only answer A describes the method that provides individual randomness for every password.
SSCP candidates must understand how this technique works in tandem with secure hashing algorithms. Hash functions such as SHA-256, SHA-3, or specialized password-hashing algorithms like bcrypt, scrypt, or Argon2 integrate randomness to enhance protection. Modern password hashing libraries automatically handle generation, storage, and application of random values, but administrators must ensure they are using current best practices.
Storage considerations also matter. Random values must be stored alongside the hash, but they are not secret; their purpose is to introduce unpredictability rather than confidentiality. Attackers gaining access to the random values does not undermine the protection, because the effectiveness comes from the increased computational cost required to brute-force each password.
Randomness also protects against attackers identifying reused passwords across accounts. Because identical passwords generate different hashes, attackers cannot correlate which users share the same password. Even inside compromised systems, administrators cannot see which employees use weak or repeated passwords simply by examining hash patterns.
This technique significantly improves the security of authentication systems by making attacks slower, more costly, and less successful. Because answer A refers to the security technique that adds randomness to hashed passwords to prevent precomputed attack methods, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 72:
Which security testing method evaluates a system’s defenses by simulating real-world attack techniques without giving the tester prior knowledge of internal configurations?
A) White-Box Testing
B) Gray-Box Testing
C) Vulnerability Scanning
D) Black-Box Testing
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to a testing approach where evaluators attempt to compromise systems from an external perspective without being provided inside knowledge. SSCP candidates must understand this method because it closely mirrors actual attacker behavior and reveals vulnerabilities that may not be discovered through internal assessments. By simulating an outsider’s view, this testing approach uncovers weaknesses in perimeter defenses, authentication systems, external services, and exposed interfaces.
Understanding why D is correct involves reviewing how this testing is performed. Testers begin with no privileged information about system architecture, network infrastructure, internal policies, or configurations. They gather information through reconnaissance techniques, scanning, enumeration, and fingerprinting—exactly as real attackers would. The objective is to identify exploitable weaknesses, assess impact, and provide actionable recommendations for remediation.
Comparing D with the alternative answers highlights why the others are incorrect. One option may describe white-box testing, where testers receive full internal access and knowledge, making it unsuitable for simulating external threats. Another may describe gray-box testing, which provides partial internal knowledge but does not reflect a pure attacker’s viewpoint. Another option may describe vulnerability scanning, which identifies weaknesses but does not actively exploit them. Only answer D aligns with real-world external attack simulation.
This testing method has several advantages. It identifies misconfigurations, unpatched software, exposed ports, weak authentication mechanisms, insecure APIs, and vulnerabilities in publicly accessible services. It also evaluates how well security monitoring, intrusion detection tools, and incident response teams can detect and respond to active threats. Because testers operate without internal insight, the process reveals which weaknesses are visible to outsiders and which defense layers fail under attack conditions.
However, SSCP candidates must also understand limitations. Because testers lack internal knowledge, they may overlook vulnerabilities that require insider awareness. This method is not intended to provide complete coverage but to test how an external attacker might infiltrate the environment. A comprehensive security program uses multiple assessment types, including white-box, gray-box, and vulnerability assessments, to gain complete visibility.
Ethical and legal considerations must also be addressed. Organizations must authorize all testing activities in writing, define scope boundaries, establish communication channels, and ensure testing activities do not disrupt operations. All findings must be documented and used to improve security posture.
Because answer D accurately describes the method that simulates attacker behavior without internal knowledge, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 73:
Which data protection mechanism replaces sensitive information with non-sensitive substitutes to reduce exposure while still allowing systems to operate with realistic data?
A) Encryption
B) Hashing
C) Tokenization
D) Masking
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it identifies the mechanism that substitutes sensitive data with harmless replacement values while preserving usability in development, testing, or analytics environments. SSCP candidates must understand this technique because many organizations require realistic datasets for non-production activities but cannot expose real sensitive data such as credit card numbers, personal information, or health records.
Understanding why C is correct begins with reviewing how this mechanism works. Sensitive values are replaced with fictional but structurally similar tokens. For example, a real credit card number may be replaced with a number that passes format validation but has no real-world value. Systems can still perform tests, process transactions, and run analytics without exposing actual data. This reduces risk significantly while maintaining operational functionality.
Comparing C with alternative options demonstrates why they are incorrect. One option may describe encryption, which protects data but produces ciphertext that is unusable without decryption. Another may describe hashing, which produces irreversible outputs and prevents practical use of the original structure. Another may describe masking, which hides parts of data but may leave other parts exposed. Only answer C involves replacing data entirely with alternate values that mimic original formats.
This mechanism is widely used in payment processing systems, healthcare environments, customer analytics, and software testing. It helps organizations comply with regulations such as PCI DSS by reducing the scope of systems that store or process real sensitive data. Systems using tokens instead of actual values are considered out of scope, reducing compliance effort and improving security.
SSCP candidates must understand that tokenization differs from masking in purpose and capability. Masking typically obscures data for display purposes, while tokenization replaces data at the storage level. Tokenization also differs from encryption because encryption requires keys and produces variable-length or unpredictable ciphertext, whereas tokens maintain format and structure.
Because answer C accurately identifies the method that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes while maintaining usability, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 74:
Which incident response phase focuses on identifying the root cause of an event, containing the damage, and preventing further harm before full recovery can begin?
A) Identification
B) Containment
C) Recovery
D) Eradication
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it refers to the stage of incident response where responders take immediate actions to limit the scope and severity of an incident. SSCP candidates must understand this phase because fast and effective containment determines how much damage an incident ultimately causes. Containment bridges the gap between detection and recovery by stabilizing the environment, stopping attacker movement, and preventing escalation.
Understanding why B is correct requires analyzing containment activities. After an incident is detected, responders must quickly isolate affected systems, disconnect compromised hosts from the network, block malicious IP addresses, disable compromised accounts, or engage firewalls to prevent lateral movement. Containment efforts create a barrier between the threat and the rest of the environment, preserving critical assets and buying time for thorough investigation.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe identification, which focuses on recognizing an incident but not stopping further damage. Another option may describe eradication, which removes malicious components after damage is contained. Another may describe recovery, which restores systems to normal operations. Only answer B addresses the phase where action is taken to restrict the incident’s impact.
Containment strategies can be short-term or long-term. Short-term measures stop immediate harm, such as disconnecting systems or blocking network traffic. Long-term measures involve patching vulnerabilities, applying configuration fixes, or segmenting networks to prevent recurrence. SSCP candidates must understand that containment must be balanced with forensic needs; responders must preserve evidence while also protecting the environment.
Effective containment also involves communication. Stakeholders, management, and response teams must coordinate quickly, ensuring actions do not disrupt essential operations unnecessarily. Automation can assist, but responders must verify that containment measures do not cause unintended consequences.
Because answer B accurately identifies the phase focused on limiting damage and preventing escalation before recovery, it is correct.
QUESTION 75:
Which network security device examines incoming and outgoing packets, applying rules to block or allow traffic based on predefined policies at the network perimeter?
A) Firewall
B) IDS
C) IPS
D) Proxy Server
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it identifies the device responsible for enforcing traffic rules at network boundaries. SSCP candidates must understand this device because it forms the first line of defense against unauthorized access, malicious traffic, suspicious connections, and external threats. By analyzing packet headers, source and destination addresses, ports, and protocols, the device determines whether to allow or block traffic based on security policies.
Understanding why A is correct requires reviewing how this device operates. It inspects traffic passing between internal and external networks. Organizations define policies specifying which services may be accessed, from where, and by whom. Any traffic not matching these policies is denied. This enforces the principle of least privilege at the network level, reducing the attack surface and preventing unauthorized communication attempts.
Comparing A with other options clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe intrusion detection systems, which alert administrators but cannot always block traffic. Another may describe routers, which route traffic but do not enforce detailed security policies. Another may describe proxies, which mediate traffic but operate at higher layers. Only answer A fulfills the role of enforcing perimeter traffic filtering based on predefined rules.
Modern versions of this device include advanced features such as stateful inspection, allowing decisions based on connection context rather than individual packets. Some models incorporate deep packet inspection, intrusion prevention capabilities, and application awareness. Regardless of complexity, the core function remains evaluating traffic against defined security policies.
Because answer A identifies the device that filters network traffic at the perimeter using predefined rules, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 76:
Which form of encryption uses a pair of mathematically related keys, one public and one private, to secure communications and enable digital signatures?
A) Symmetric Encryption
B) Hashing
C) Asymmetric Encryption
D) Steganography
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it identifies the encryption method that relies on a matched pair of keys: one key that can be openly distributed to anyone and another that must be kept secret by its owner. SSCP candidates must understand this type of encryption because it forms the foundation for secure communication on the internet, supports digital signatures, enables certificate-based authentication, and allows secure key exchange without requiring pre-shared secrets. This approach solves the longstanding problem of sharing secret keys securely.
Understanding why C is correct begins with reviewing how this encryption method works. A user generates a pair of keys that are mathematically linked. When a message is encrypted with the public key, only the corresponding private key can decrypt it. Likewise, a message signed with the private key can be verified by anyone using the public key. This allows secure communication even over untrusted channels. Because the public key can be shared freely, users can send encrypted data without the risk of exposing the private key.
Comparing C with other options clarifies their shortcomings. One option may describe symmetric encryption, where the same key encrypts and decrypts data, making secure distribution difficult. Another option may describe hashing, which is irreversible and not used for encryption or signatures. Another may describe obfuscation, which hides data without offering strong cryptographic protections. Only answer C uses a mathematically paired public and private key.
SSCP candidates must understand that while public key encryption is powerful, it comes with computational overhead. Asymmetric operations are significantly slower than symmetric ones. Therefore, real-world implementations typically use asymmetric encryption only for exchanging secret keys or establishing trust, and then switch to symmetric encryption for bulk data transfer.
Digital signatures are another important aspect. By signing data with a private key, a user proves authenticity, integrity, and nonrepudiation. Anyone with the corresponding public key can verify that the data came from the claimed sender and was not altered. This is widely used in software distribution, digital contracts, secure email, and authentication systems.
Proper key management is essential. If a private key is compromised, attackers can impersonate the owner, decrypt sensitive information, or forge signatures. Keys must be stored securely, often using hardware security modules or encrypted key stores. Regular key rotation and strong passphrases help maintain security.
Because answer C describes the encryption method involving a public-private key pair, it is the correct choice.
QUESTION 77:
Which network monitoring technique captures all packets on a segment, allowing administrators to analyze traffic patterns, detect anomalies, and troubleshoot issues?
A) Packet Sniffing
B) Port Scanning
C) Traffic Shaping
D) Bandwidth Throttling
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it identifies the technique in which every packet on a network segment is copied and analyzed. SSCP candidates must understand this method because it is essential for network troubleshooting, threat detection, performance analysis, and forensic investigation. By capturing packets, administrators gain visibility into communication patterns, traffic types, protocol behaviors, and potential malicious activity.
Understanding why A is correct begins with recognizing how packet capture works. A network interface is placed into a mode that allows it to receive all packets on the network segment, not just those addressed to it. This enables the monitoring system to observe complete traffic flows. Administrators then analyze captured packets using tools such as Wireshark to inspect headers, payloads, flags, routing information, and protocol interactions. This provides deep insight into network events.
Comparing A with alternative choices clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe port scanning, which probes systems rather than capturing packets. Another may describe traffic shaping, which controls bandwidth but does not analyze packets. Another may describe logging, which records events but does not capture full packet content. Only answer A provides full visibility into raw network traffic.
However, packet capture also presents challenges. Capturing all packets generates large volumes of data, requiring efficient storage and processing. Sensitive information may appear in unencrypted packets, raising privacy and compliance concerns. Organizations must implement proper access controls, retention policies, and encryption for captured data. Capturing encrypted traffic limits visibility but still provides valuable metadata such as source, destination, and frequency patterns.
Packet capture is crucial during incident response. Investigators use captured packets to reconstruct events, determine attack vectors, and identify compromised systems. Historical packet capture data provides insights into when an attack started and what actions attackers performed.
Because answer A accurately identifies the technique that captures all packets on a segment for analysis, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 78:
Which vulnerability management step involves prioritizing discovered weaknesses based on factors such as exploitability, potential impact, and business importance?
A) Identification
B) Scanning
C) Remediation
D) Risk Ranking
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the critical step in vulnerability management where organizations determine which weaknesses must be addressed first. SSCP candidates must understand this process because organizations often identify far more vulnerabilities than they can immediately fix. Prioritization ensures that resources are applied to the highest-risk issues to reduce overall exposure effectively.
Understanding why D is correct requires analyzing what prioritization involves. After vulnerabilities are discovered through scanning, penetration testing, or manual assessment, they are evaluated based on severity, exploit availability, potential operational impact, exposure level, and importance of the affected assets. Critical vulnerabilities that attackers are actively exploiting receive top priority. Vulnerabilities on sensitive systems, externally facing hosts, or mission-critical services also rise in urgency.
Comparing D with alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe detection, which identifies vulnerabilities but does not rank them. Another option may describe remediation, which fixes issues after prioritization has occurred. Another may describe reporting, which documents vulnerabilities rather than ordering them by urgency. Only answer D describes the process of evaluating which weaknesses should be addressed first.
Prioritization often uses frameworks such as CVSS scores, threat intelligence feeds, business impact assessments, and risk ratings. SSCP candidates must understand that numerical severity alone is insufficient; contextual factors matter. A medium-severity vulnerability on a public-facing web server may be more critical than a high-severity one on an isolated development machine.
Vulnerability prioritization helps organizations allocate resources effectively. Patching efforts must be aligned with operational schedules to avoid disrupting essential services. Prioritization allows teams to coordinate with system owners, schedule maintenance windows, and balance security with business demands.
Threat intelligence enhances prioritization by identifying emerging threats, active exploits, and malware campaigns targeting specific weaknesses. Automated vulnerability management platforms can correlate discovered vulnerabilities with real-world attack data to refine risk assessments.
Because answer D accurately describes the process of ranking vulnerabilities by risk to guide remediation efforts, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 79:
Which system security principle requires removing unnecessary services, closing unused ports, and disabling default accounts to reduce the attack surface of a system?
A) Patch Management
B) System Hardening
C) Configuration Baseline
D) Access Control
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it refers to the process of tightening system configurations to minimize opportunities for attackers. SSCP candidates must understand this concept because default installations of operating systems, applications, and devices often include unnecessary components that introduce vulnerabilities. Hardening reduces these risks by ensuring only essential features remain active.
Understanding why B is correct begins with recognizing the purpose of hardening. Attackers exploit unused services, default credentials, open ports, and unnecessary features to gain footholds in systems. By disabling everything not required for business functions, organizations minimize exposure. Hardening also includes applying secure configurations, enforcing strong authentication, enabling logging, configuring firewalls, and removing insecure protocols.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe patching, which fixes vulnerabilities but does not reduce unnecessary components. Another may describe encryption, which protects data but does not minimize attack surface. Another may describe monitoring, which detects issues but does not prevent exposure. Only answer B focuses on the systematic reduction of potential attack vectors.
System hardening applies across various environments including servers, workstations, network devices, cloud platforms, and IoT hardware. Administrators use hardening benchmarks such as CIS controls to implement industry-standard configurations. Hardening eliminates unnecessary daemons, removes sample applications, disables guest accounts, configures security policies, and restricts administrative privileges.
Hardening also plays a major role in compliance frameworks. Many regulations require organizations to implement secure baseline configurations and document deviations. Hardening ensures systems meet these requirements by default.
Because answer B identifies the principle of reducing attack surface through secure configuration, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 80:
Which form of network isolation restricts communication between hosts by dividing a network into smaller logical segments, often using VLANs or subnets?
A) Network Address Translation
B) Network Hardening
C) Network Segmentation
D) Port Forwarding
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the technique of dividing networks into smaller segments to control and limit how devices communicate. SSCP candidates must understand this concept because segmentation is essential for limiting lateral movement, enforcing least privilege at the network layer, and containing breaches. When networks are segmented, a compromise in one area does not easily spread to others.
Understanding why C is correct requires examining how segmentation works. Administrators divide networks into logical zones using VLANs, subnets, firewalls, and access control lists. Communication between segments is tightly controlled. Only necessary traffic is allowed between zones, and all other traffic is blocked. This prevents attackers from moving freely once they compromise a system.
Comparing C with alternative options clarifies inaccuracies. One option may describe tunneling, which encapsulates traffic rather than dividing networks. Another may describe NAT, which translates addresses but does not isolate segments. Another may describe load balancing, which distributes traffic but does not restrict communication paths. Only answer C focuses on dividing networks for isolation.
Segmentation is especially valuable against ransomware, insider threats, and advanced attackers. It limits damage by preventing threats from spreading. It also supports regulatory requirements that mandate isolating sensitive systems such as payment card networks or healthcare databases.
Because answer C accurately identifies the technique of dividing networks into smaller controlled segments, it is the correct answer.
