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QUESTION 21:
Which security mechanism ensures that users cannot deny having performed a specific action by providing verifiable proof of their activities?
A) DoS Attack
B) MITM Attack
C) SQL Injection
D) DNS Spoofing
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it represents the security mechanism that ensures actions performed by users or systems can be verified and attributed to them in a way that prevents repudiation. SSCP candidates must understand this concept because accountability is a core part of security operations, legal compliance, auditing, and incident investigation. When this mechanism is in place, a user cannot claim they did not perform an action such as sending an email, approving a transaction, modifying a file, or accessing a system. The proof typically involves logging, digital signatures, cryptographic records, and authentication mechanisms that bind user identity to actions in a verifiable manner.
Understanding why C is correct requires examining what makes an action undeniable. Systems that implement this mechanism require strong identity verification, reliable logging, secure timestamps, and tamper-resistant storage. When a user performs an action, the system creates an auditable record that associates the action with that identity. These records often use cryptographic signatures, hashes, and secure log storage to ensure they cannot be altered. If logs or signatures could be modified or deleted, the mechanism would fail because users could manipulate records.
Comparing answer C with alternative options clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe confidentiality mechanisms that hide data but do not tie actions to users. Another option may refer to encryption methods that protect information but do not ensure accountability. Another option might relate to authentication alone, which proves identity but does not provide irrefutable records of actions taken. These alternatives contribute to a secure system but do not satisfy the specific ability to prevent denial of actions.
This mechanism is essential not only for day-to-day operations but also for forensic investigations. If an incident occurs, investigators rely on accurate logs to identify the sequence of events. Without non-repudiation controls, attackers or malicious insiders could claim they were not responsible. This would severely hinder response efforts and compromise trust in the organization’s systems.
Non-repudiation is also critical in legal and compliance contexts. Digital transactions, financial approvals, contractual agreements, and electronic communications often require proof of origin and integrity. Digital signature frameworks such as PKI play a major role, using public and private key pairs to bind an action to a specific identity in a way that cannot be reasonably disputed.
From a security architecture standpoint, non-repudiation works in combination with authentication, authorization, and auditing. Authentication verifies identity. Authorization determines allowed actions. Non-repudiation proves that the authenticated identity was indeed the one performing the action. Auditing records those actions. Together, these mechanisms form a complete chain of accountability.
Because answer C is the only option that explicitly ensures proof of user actions that cannot be denied or repudiated, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 22:
Which type of network attack floods a system or network with excessive traffic, overwhelming resources and preventing normal user access?
A) DoS Attack
B) MITM Attack
C) SQL Injection
D) DNS Spoofing
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it refers to the type of attack that attempts to exhaust system, network, or application resources by overwhelming them with massive amounts of traffic or processing requests. SSCP candidates must understand this attack because it is one of the most common threats targeting availability—the “A” in the CIA triad. When systems cannot handle traffic load, legitimate users experience severe delays or total loss of service.
Understanding why A is correct requires examining how such attacks operate. Attackers send large volumes of traffic, malformed requests, or resource-intensive queries to a target. When the target attempts to respond or process all these requests, its CPU, memory, and bandwidth become saturated. Eventually, it cannot handle legitimate traffic. In more advanced distributed attacks, many compromised devices participate, creating massive volumes of traffic from many global locations. These attacks are difficult to block because traffic comes from diverse sources.
Alternative answers do not match the behavior described. One option may refer to an attack that steals data rather than overwhelming systems. Another may describe interception-based attacks but not resource flooding. Another may involve exploiting a vulnerability for unauthorized access, not overwhelming resources. These threats impact confidentiality or integrity but not availability in the specific manner described in the question.
This type of attack can target multiple layers of the OSI model. At the network layer, it may involve packet floods. At the transport layer, it may use SYN floods. At the application layer, it may involve repeated HTTP requests. Regardless of method, the goal remains the same: consuming resources to degrade service.
SSCP candidates must also know preventative measures. These include rate limiting, network segmentation, traffic filtering, intrusion prevention systems, load balancing, blackhole routing, and cloud-based scrubbing services. Organizations also rely on redundant links and scalable architectures to mitigate impact. Monitoring systems can detect spikes in traffic and trigger automated responses.
This attack is especially dangerous when combined with extortion. Attackers may threaten to sustain the attack unless the victim pays money. Critical services such as hospitals, e-commerce sites, government portals, and financial institutions are common targets because downtime can cause serious harm.
Only answer A correctly identifies an attack that overwhelms resources with excessive traffic, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 23:
Which protocol is commonly used to securely transfer files over a network by combining file transfer capabilities with encrypted communication?
A) FTP
B) TFTP
C) FTPS
D) SFTP
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the protocol that incorporates encryption into the file transfer process, protecting both credentials and data during transmission. SSCP candidates must understand secure file transfer protocols because they are critical in protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged over networks. This protocol builds on a foundational file transfer system but adds security through encrypted channels, addressing vulnerabilities in earlier unencrypted transfer methods.
Understanding why D is correct requires reviewing how file transfer protocols evolved. The earlier versions transmitted data and credentials in plaintext, making them vulnerable to interception, credential theft, and manipulation. The protocol represented by answer D layers secure communication using encryption. This prevents attackers from reading or modifying files during transfer.
Compared with other options, D is the only correct match. One alternative may describe an insecure protocol that lacks encryption. Another may refer to a remote access protocol, which is not primarily used for file transfers. Another may refer to a secure shell mechanism but not specifically designed for file transfer operations. These alternatives may provide partial functionality but do not combine encrypted communication with file transfer capabilities seamlessly.
Operationally, organizations use this protocol for system updates, application deployments, secure data exchange, and automated processes. It is widely implemented because it supports confidentiality, integrity, and authentication in file operations. It is also firewall-friendly because it typically uses a single encrypted channel rather than multiple ports.
This protocol is a standard choice in secure architectures and is required in industries where transmitting sensitive data is common. Its security depends on properly managing encryption keys, patching server software, and enforcing strong authentication.
Only answer D accurately matches a secure file transfer protocol that uses encrypted communication, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 24:
Which risk management concept expresses the amount of potential loss expected from a single occurrence of a specific threat?
A) Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)
B) Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
C) Exposure Factor (EF)
D) Risk Appetite
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it identifies the risk management calculation that estimates the monetary loss associated with a single incident involving a particular asset and threat. SSCP candidates must understand this because it is essential in quantitative risk analysis, which uses measurable financial data to estimate potential security impacts. This calculation helps organizations prioritize risks, justify security investments, and understand the financial consequences of threats.
Understanding why B is correct requires reviewing how risk management quantifies impact. The value is calculated by analyzing the asset’s worth and determining the proportion of loss that would occur if a specific threat successfully compromised that asset. This provides a financial impact figure that organizations use to assess severity. If a threat occurs only once, this figure represents the direct cost of the incident.
Comparing B to alternative answers makes the distinction clear. One option may describe the expected annual loss from repeated incidents, which involves multiplying the single-loss figure by the rate of occurrence. Another may refer to the exposure of assets but not assign monetary values. Another might refer to qualitative scoring with no financial measurement. None of these alternatives represent the financial loss from a single incident.
SSCP candidates must understand that accurate calculation requires knowledge of asset value, threat characteristics, historical incident data, and business impact. Organizations calculate this figure to evaluate whether proposed security controls are financially justified. If a proposed control costs more than the expected loss, it may not be cost-effective.
This metric is part of broader risk analysis frameworks, including annualized loss expectations, exposure factor analysis, and safeguard cost evaluation. It supports informed decision-making and helps organizations allocate resources efficiently.
Because answer B is the only option that measures the expected loss from a single occurrence of a threat, it is correct.
QUESTION 25:
Which wireless security protocol was designed to improve upon earlier weak encryption methods by introducing stronger encryption and message integrity checks?
A) WEP
B) Open System Authentication
C) WPA
D) MAC Filtering
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the wireless security protocol that replaced earlier, insecure encryption methods used in wireless networks. SSCP candidates must understand this protocol because wireless communications are inherently vulnerable to eavesdropping, unauthorized access, and tampering if encryption is weak. The earlier standard relied on flawed cryptographic mechanisms that attackers could break using widely available tools. The protocol represented by answer C was specifically developed to address these weaknesses.
Understanding why C is correct begins with recognizing the shortcomings of the earlier method. The prior protocol used static keys, weak initialization vectors, and flawed encryption algorithms. These weaknesses made it easy for attackers to decrypt wireless traffic, hijack connections, and access networks without authorization.
In contrast, the protocol represented by answer C introduced stronger encryption based on more secure algorithms. It also introduced message integrity checks to detect tampering and prevent attackers from injecting or modifying packets. These improvements significantly enhanced the security of wireless communications.
Alternatives do not fit this description. One option may refer to the original insecure protocol. Another may refer to advanced protocols that replaced both earlier protocols entirely but were not the first improvement. Another may describe authentication frameworks rather than encryption improvements. These alternatives do not represent the intermediate protocol that improved upon earlier weaknesses.
This protocol became widespread because it was backward compatible with older hardware. Organizations could upgrade security without replacing equipment. Although stronger wireless protocols have since replaced it, this protocol played a crucial transitional role in improving wireless security.
SSCP candidates must also understand encryption key management, integrity protection, authentication strengthening, and wireless network segmentation. This protocol helped reduce risks such as packet injection, unauthorized access, and weak encryption cracking.
Only answer C correctly identifies the wireless security protocol designed to strengthen encryption and integrity over earlier methods, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 26:
Which security process ensures that known software vulnerabilities are corrected through updates, reducing the risk of exploitation by attackers?
A) Patch Management
B) Vulnerability Scanning
C) Configuration Baseline
D) System Hardening
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it identifies the structured security process intended to correct known vulnerabilities and weaknesses in software, operating systems, firmware, and applications. SSCP candidates must understand this process in depth because unpatched systems represent one of the most common and dangerous security risks. Attackers frequently exploit known vulnerabilities for which fixes already exist. If organizations do not apply necessary corrections in a timely manner, they leave themselves exposed to avoidable security breaches.
Understanding why A is correct begins with recognizing how vulnerabilities are discovered and how updates are delivered. Software vendors, researchers, and security analysts constantly identify weaknesses in products. When a vulnerability is confirmed, vendors create updates that fix the issue. This process allows organizations to close security gaps proactively. The mechanism addressed by answer A is not optional—it is a fundamental security requirement.
Comparing answer A with other options helps clarify why those alternatives are incorrect. One option may involve scanning for vulnerabilities but not correcting them. A scanner can detect weaknesses, but detection alone does not fix the issue. Another option might describe monitoring for attacks but does not patch systems. Monitoring is reactive, not corrective. Another option may describe testing system integrity but does not involve installing updates. None of these alternatives directly address the act of correcting vulnerabilities through updates, which is the core of the process represented by answer A.
This process requires more than simply downloading and installing updates. It involves planning, testing, scheduling, deploying, and verifying patches across systems. SSCP candidates must understand the importance of testing patches before deployment because poorly tested updates can cause system errors, downtime, or compatibility issues. However, delaying too long increases exposure.
Automation plays a major role. Patch management systems can detect missing patches, deploy them automatically, and report compliance. Many organizations use centralized management tools to streamline the process. However, automation must be carefully managed to prevent unintended disruptions.
Prioritization is essential. Not all vulnerabilities are equal. Critical vulnerabilities, especially those labeled as remotely exploitable or widely weaponized, must be addressed first. Organizations often use scoring systems such as CVSS to determine priority levels. SSCP candidates must know that prioritizing based on severity, exposure, and asset value is essential for efficient patch implementation.
Compliance frameworks also require strong patch management. Regulations such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, and ISO 27001 mandate timely updates. Failure to comply can lead to penalties, breaches, and operational disruptions. Patch records must be maintained as evidence during audits.
The importance of this process is highlighted by numerous high-profile security incidents where patches existed but had not been applied. Many large cyberattacks exploited vulnerabilities for which software updates were available months or even years earlier. This emphasizes the need for disciplined, consistent patching practices.
Only answer A directly identifies the process that corrects known software vulnerabilities through updates, protecting systems from exploitation. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
QUESTION 27:
Which security model enforces access decisions based on an object’s classification level and a user’s clearance level, ensuring strict control over confidential information?
A) Clark-Wilson Model
B) Brewer-Nash Model
C) Bell-LaPadula Simple Security Rule
D) Bell-LaPadula Model
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the security model that uses hierarchical classification levels to protect confidential information according to sensitivity. SSCP candidates must understand this model because it forms the basis of many governmental, military, and classified information systems. It ensures that only users with the appropriate clearance level and need-to-know may access protected information.
Understanding why D is correct requires reviewing how the model operates. Objects such as documents, files, or systems are assigned classification levels—commonly “Confidential,” “Secret,” or “Top Secret.” Users are granted clearance levels that correspond to these classifications. Access is granted only when a user’s clearance meets or exceeds the classification of the object. This ensures that sensitive data is protected from unauthorized users.
Comparing D with the alternative answers clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe a discretionary system where object owners determine access rights, but this does not enforce strict classification rules. Another may describe a role-based system where access depends on job roles rather than hierarchical classification. Another may describe integrity protection rather than confidentiality. Only answer D matches the confidentiality-driven classification requirements described in the question.
This model is mandatory in the sense that users cannot alter access permissions. Decisions are enforced by system policies, not individual discretion. This prevents users from sharing sensitive information improperly or granting access to unauthorized individuals.
This model is also used in environments requiring strict protection against espionage, unauthorized disclosure, and insider threats. It ensures that highly sensitive information is available only to trusted individuals. SSCP candidates must understand how classification labels, clearances, and policy enforcement mechanisms work together.
Only answer D accurately represents a classification-based confidentiality model with strict hierarchical controls, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 28:
Which form of authentication requires more than one independent method of verification, significantly strengthening access security?
A) Single Sign-On (SSO)
B) Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
C) Password Rotation
D) Biometric Caching
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it refers to an authentication method that requires two or more independent factors to verify identity. SSCP candidates must understand this method because it greatly enhances access control by reducing the risk that compromised credentials alone can grant unauthorized access. This approach ensures that even if an attacker steals a password, they still cannot access an account without the second (or third) required factor.
Understanding why B is correct starts with examining what constitutes independent factors. Authentication factors fall into three primary categories: something the user knows (password, PIN), something the user has (token, smart card), and something the user is (biometrics). A valid implementation requires at least two of these categories. For example, a password paired with a fingerprint, or a PIN paired with a smart card.
Comparing B with other options shows why they are incorrect. One option may describe a single-factor system, which is insufficient for strong authentication. Another might describe authentication based solely on credentials but not additional verification methods. Another might describe contextual checks like location or time but not independent factors. None offer the strength provided by multiple distinct authentication methods.
This method dramatically reduces the attack surface. If a password is compromised through phishing or keylogging, the attacker still cannot access the system without the second factor. Similarly, if a hardware token is stolen, it is useless without the accompanying password or biometric. This layered security approach is a core SSCP concept.
Organizations widely adopt this method for remote access, system administration, privileged accounts, and online services. It is commonly used in VPN authentication, online banking, corporate logins, and cloud services. It is also mandated by many regulatory frameworks for certain types of access.
Implementation must be done carefully. Poorly designed systems may introduce usability challenges or misconfigured settings that allow bypass. SSCP candidates must understand that proper configuration, user training, and secure handling of second-factor devices are critical.
Only answer B correctly describes authentication using multiple independent verification methods, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 29:
Which type of network security device inspects packets at multiple layers of the OSI model, making decisions based on application-specific content rather than just port or protocol rules?
A) Packet-Filtering Firewall
B) Stateful Firewall
C) Next-Generation Firewall
D) Proxy Firewall
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it identifies the network security device capable of inspecting traffic deeply, beyond simple port or protocol filtering. SSCP candidates must understand this device because modern attacks often disguise themselves within legitimate application traffic, such as HTTP or DNS. Traditional firewalls that inspect only port numbers cannot detect these threats. The device described by answer C can analyze data payloads, understand application behavior, and enforce more precise security rules.
Understanding why C is correct requires recognizing how packet inspection works. Traditional firewalls operate primarily at Layers 3 and 4, permitting or blocking traffic based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols. They cannot detect threats hidden within allowed traffic. The device represented by C, however, operates at multiple layers, including Layer 7, where it reads application data. It can detect malicious behavior, such as SQL injection, malware signatures in HTTP traffic, or unauthorized application use.
Comparing C with other options makes the distinction clear. One option may refer to a traditional packet-filtering firewall, which lacks deep inspection capabilities. Another may describe a router, which directs traffic but does not analyze content. Another may describe an intrusion detection system, which alerts but does not block traffic. None of these alternatives match the ability to inspect application-level data and enforce advanced security rules.
Because threats increasingly use sophisticated techniques to bypass basic filters, this device is essential for modern network defense. It can block unauthorized applications, prevent malware downloads, enforce policies based on user identity, and detect anomalies. SSCP candidates must understand how rule sets, signatures, behavioral analysis, and traffic patterns contribute to its effectiveness.
Performance considerations are important. Deep inspection requires more CPU and memory resources. Organizations must balance security with performance by tuning rules and ensuring adequate hardware capacity. Proper logging, monitoring, and regular updates also ensure ongoing effectiveness.
Only answer C represents the device capable of inspecting packets across multiple layers and making decisions based on application content, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 30:
Which form of redundancy requires two or more systems to run simultaneously so that if one fails, the other continues operation without interruption?
A) Cold Standby
B) Warm Standby
C) Load Balancing
D) Active-Active
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the redundancy approach in which multiple systems operate concurrently, providing immediate failover if one system stops functioning. SSCP candidates must understand this form of redundancy because it is critical for ensuring high availability, minimizing downtime, and supporting mission-critical systems. In environments where even a brief service disruption is unacceptable, this method ensures continuous operation.
Understanding why D is correct begins with recognizing how this redundancy works. All systems run in parallel, processing the same tasks or being kept in an active-ready state. If one fails due to hardware malfunction, software error, or external disruption, the remaining system(s) seamlessly continue operation without requiring restart or manual intervention. This eliminates single points of failure.
Comparing D with alternative options clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe cold redundancy, where backup systems are powered off and require setup time. Another may refer to warm redundancy, where systems are running but not actively processing tasks and may still require some delay before takeover. Another may refer to backups that do not provide immediate operational continuity. Only answer D represents active-active redundancy with instantaneous failover.
This redundancy method is used in high-demand environments such as financial transaction processing, emergency services, telecommunications, healthcare systems, and large-scale cloud platforms. Organizations rely on it to meet stringent uptime requirements and service-level agreements.
SSCP candidates must also understand the costs and resource considerations. Active redundancy is expensive because all systems must run continuously and maintain full operational readiness. Despite the cost, its benefits far outweigh limitations in environments where service interruption is unacceptable.
Only answer D accurately describes redundancy where multiple systems run simultaneously and provide immediate failover, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 31:
Which type of access control is based on job functions within an organization, assigning permissions to roles rather than individuals?
A) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
B) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it represents the access control method where permissions are assigned to roles—such as manager, HR specialist, database administrator, or technician—instead of granting permissions directly to individual users. SSCP candidates must understand this model because it simplifies permission management, reduces administrative overhead, improves scalability, and supports consistent enforcement of security policies. By tying permissions to roles rather than individuals, an organization ensures that users performing similar duties receive the same access levels.
Understanding why B is correct begins with examining how the model works. In this approach, an administrator defines roles based on organizational structure or job duties. Each role contains sets of permissions required to perform specific tasks. Users are then assigned to one or more roles. When someone joins a department, their access rights are automatically determined by the role they are assigned. When they leave or change roles, access changes accordingly. This makes role-based access control (RBAC) efficient and scalable, especially in large organizations.
Comparing B to alternative answers clarifies why those options are not correct. One option may describe a model where access is granted based on ownership of objects. This does not align with job role-based assignments. Another option may describe a model where system rules dictate access regardless of user or owner preferences, which differs from role-based decision-making. Another option may involve assigning permissions by discretionary control, where users determine access, which contradicts centralized role assignments. Only B accurately depicts access control based on job functions.
RBAC also enhances auditability. Since roles are documented and standardized, auditors can easily verify whether permissions align with business needs. In contrast, individual permission assignments create complexity and inconsistencies that hinder auditing.
Administratively, RBAC simplifies onboarding and offboarding. New employees require minimal individual configuration. When roles change, adjusting permissions is as simple as reassigning roles, reducing errors and ensuring prompt updates.
Only answer B correctly describes access control based on assigning permissions to job-defined roles, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 32:
Which security measure converts readable data into an unreadable form during transmission to protect confidentiality from unauthorized interception?
A) Tokenization
B) Hashing
C) Encoding
D) Encryption
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it identifies the security measure used to transform readable information into an unreadable format during transmission, ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot interpret intercepted data. SSCP candidates must understand this measure because it is essential for protecting confidentiality in network communications, especially in environments where traffic may traverse insecure or public networks.
Understanding why D is correct requires examining how the measure works. When data is encrypted during transmission, it travels as ciphertext. Anyone intercepting the traffic cannot understand or use it without the proper decryption key. This protects sensitive information such as passwords, personal data, financial transactions, system commands, and business communications. Encryption algorithms and secure protocols ensure that even if attackers capture the data, they cannot decipher it.
Comparing D to other options reveals why the alternatives are incorrect. One option may describe hashing, which is a one-way function and cannot restore original data, making it unsuitable for transmitted messages that must be read later. Another option may refer to compression, which reduces file size but provides no confidentiality protection. Another option may describe encoding, which is reversible using public rules and does not provide security. Only encryption ensures unreadability without the proper key.
Encryption-in-transit is used in protocols such as TLS, HTTPS, SFTP, SSH, VPNs, and secure email standards. These protocols protect data from attackers who may intercept traffic through sniffing, spoofing, or man-in-the-middle attacks. SSCP candidates must understand key management, certificate validation, secure encryption algorithms, and avoiding outdated or weak encryption. Strong encryption requires appropriate key sizes, updated algorithms, and proper implementation.
Additionally, encryption preserves confidentiality, reduces risk of credential theft, protects sensitive systems, and helps meet compliance requirements. Regulations such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, and GDPR require encryption of sensitive data during transmission.
Only answer D accurately describes converting readable data into unreadable form during transmission using encryption, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 33:
Which security monitoring tool collects, correlates, and analyzes log data from multiple systems to detect abnormal patterns and potential security incidents?
A) SIEM
B) IDS
C) IPS
D) Log Analyzer
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it represents the security tool designed to gather logs from various sources, correlate events, identify patterns, and alert administrators to suspicious activities. SSCP candidates must understand this tool because it plays a central role in modern security monitoring, incident detection, forensic analysis, and regulatory compliance.
Understanding why A is correct requires examining the tool’s capabilities. It centralizes logs from firewalls, servers, routers, intrusion detection systems, applications, authentication systems, and endpoints. By consolidating this data, the tool identifies relationships and patterns that individual systems may not detect alone. For example, multiple failed logins across different systems combined with unusual network connections may indicate an attempted breach.
This tool can analyze logs using rules, behavioral baselines, signatures, machine learning, and contextual awareness. It helps security teams detect anomalies, policy violations, brute-force attacks, lateral movement, malware activity, insider threats, and unauthorized access.
Comparing A to other options clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe a simple log repository that stores logs but does not analyze them. Another may refer to a network device that filters packets rather than correlates logs. Another may describe vulnerability scanners, which test systems but do not correlate logs. Only answer A describes a tool designed specifically for collecting, correlating, and analyzing logs.
This tool also plays a vital role in compliance. Regulations often require centralized log management, alerting, and retention. The tool provides evidence during audits and supports incident response teams by reconstructing events. It can also automate alerting, trigger scripts, or integrate with response platforms.
However, the tool must be configured properly. Poorly configured systems generate false positives or fail to detect real threats. SSCP candidates must understand tuning, baseline creation, rule customization, and integration with other security systems.
Only answer A identifies the tool used for correlating multi-source log data to detect incidents, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 34:
Which physical security control prevents tailgating by ensuring that only one person can enter a secure area at a time through a controlled enclosure?
A) Security Guard
B) CCTV
C) Mantrap
D) Turnstile
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it identifies the physical security mechanism designed to prevent unauthorized individuals from following authorized individuals into secure areas. SSCP candidates must understand this control because tailgating—where an unauthorized person enters a secure area by walking closely behind an authorized person—is a common physical security threat. The mechanism described by answer C ensures that only one person enters at a time by physically controlling entry.
Understanding why C is correct begins with examining how the mechanism functions. It typically consists of a small enclosure or chamber that allows entry only after verification. The system checks for the presence of a single individual using weight sensors, optical sensors, or other detection methods. Once verified, the inner door unlocks, granting access to the secure area. If the system detects more than one person, it locks and alerts security personnel.
Comparing C with alternative options clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe a badge reader, which enables entry but does not prevent someone from following behind. Another might refer to surveillance cameras that detect but do not prevent tailgating. Another may describe physical barriers that restrict entry but still allow multiple people through at once. Only answer C describes the mechanism that enforces strict one-at-a-time entry.
This control is common in high-security facilities such as data centers, research labs, government buildings, and financial institutions. It ensures controlled access and prevents social engineering attacks where attackers try to exploit politeness or human error.
The mechanism enhances physical security by combining authentication, physical barriers, sensor technology, and automated decision-making. It may require users to authenticate again within the chamber to confirm identity. It also integrates with access logs, alarms, and real-time monitoring systems.
SSCP candidates must understand physical security layers, including perimeter controls, entry point defenses, internal access restrictions, and surveillance components. This mechanism serves as a strong internal barrier that prevents unauthorized movement within facilities.
Only answer C accurately describes the physical control that prevents tailgating by enforcing single-person entry, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 35:
Which form of malicious software disguises itself as a legitimate program to trick users into executing it, thereby delivering its harmful payload?
A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Rootkit
D) Keylogger
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it identifies the type of malware that pretends to be a legitimate application to deceive users into running it. SSCP candidates must understand this malware type because social engineering plays a major role in many modern attacks. Unlike other forms of malware that rely on technical exploits, this one depends primarily on user trust and manipulation. When the user runs the disguised program, the malicious payload executes, compromising the system.
Understanding why B is correct requires examining the behavior of this malware. It often appears as a useful tool, game, update, document, or media file. Attackers intentionally design it to appear safe, helpful, or attractive. Once executed, it may install additional malware, create backdoors, steal data, encrypt files, or modify system settings. Because the user initiates execution, the malware bypasses many traditional defenses that focus on preventing unauthorized software execution.
Comparing B with alternative answers highlights why they are incorrect. One option may describe malware that attaches itself to files but does not disguise itself as legitimate software. Another may describe malware that replicates itself automatically rather than relying on deception. Another may describe malware that logs keystrokes but does not hide behind legitimate appearances. Only answer B accurately describes malicious software that masquerades as safe programs.
This malware is also difficult to detect because it may include legitimate functionality alongside malicious behavior, increasing the chances of user trust. It may evade antivirus tools temporarily by using new variants or polymorphic techniques. Behavioral analysis tools, sandboxing, and endpoint detection can help identify this malware based on suspicious actions after execution.
From a defensive standpoint, organizations must enforce least privilege, preventing users from installing unauthorized software. They must also maintain strong patching practices, monitor network traffic, restrict downloads, and implement email security filtering.
Only answer B truly represents malware that disguises itself as a legitimate program to deceive users into executing it, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 36:
Which backup strategy involves copying all selected files that have changed since the last full backup, requiring the most recent full backup and all differential backups for restoration?
A) Full Backup
B) Incremental Backup
C) Differential Backup
D) Snapshot Backup
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the type of backup that captures all data modified since the last full backup, regardless of how many days have passed or how many backup cycles have been performed. SSCP candidates must understand this strategy because it is widely used for balancing storage efficiency, recovery time, and daily backup operations. This approach ensures that every differential backup contains all updates made since the last full backup, making restoration quicker than incremental methods but more storage-intensive than incremental backups.
Understanding why C is correct requires reviewing how this backup works in practice. After performing a full backup, each subsequent differential backup stores all changed files from that point forward. For example, if a full backup occurred on Sunday and differential backups occur each day, Monday’s backup includes changes since Sunday. Tuesday’s differential includes changes from both Monday and Tuesday (all changes after Sunday). Wednesday’s includes all changes since Sunday, and so on. This cumulative approach makes the restoration process simpler because only two components are needed: the last full backup and the most recent differential backup.
Comparing answer C to alternative options clarifies why the other choices are incorrect. One option may describe incremental backups, which store only changes since the previous incremental backup. Those backups require many more files during restoration, making the process slower and more complex. Another option may describe a full backup, which captures everything each time and does not rely on previous backups. Another alternative may refer to continuous data protection, which captures every version of every file, not a differential method. None of these match the description in the question.
SSCP candidates must also understand storage implications. Differential backups grow larger each day until the next full backup resets the cycle. Organizations typically perform weekly full backups with daily differential backups. This approach minimizes complexity and ensures predictable backup sizes.
During disaster recovery, differential backups simplify the process. Administrators restore the most recent full backup and then apply only the latest differential backup. There is no need to apply a chain of incremental backups, each dependent on the previous. This reduces the risk of corruption or missing files.
Only answer C accurately captures the definition and requirements of this backup method, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 37:
Which principle ensures that no single individual has complete control over a critical process, reducing the risk of fraud and unauthorized actions?
A) Separation of Duties
B) Least Privilege
C) Need to Know
D) Dual Control
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it represents the security principle that distributes responsibility for sensitive or high-risk actions among multiple individuals. SSCP candidates must understand this principle because it is a fundamental safeguard against insider threats, fraud, unauthorized modification, and corruption within organizations. When critical functions require more than one person’s involvement, malicious actions are harder to execute and easier to detect.
Understanding why A is correct begins with recognizing its purpose: preventing any individual from having unchecked authority. When sensitive tasks—such as approving financial transactions, deploying production changes, modifying access rights, or handling classified information—require approval or participation from multiple people, the organization reduces the risk posed by errors or deliberate misuse.
Comparing answer A to alternative options helps clarify why the others are incorrect. One option may describe least privilege, which limits access but does not require multiple participants. Another may describe job rotation, which reduces long-term collusion but does not require shared responsibility. Another may describe need-to-know, which focuses on information access but not joint oversight. These controls support security but do not enforce multi-person involvement in critical tasks.
The principle works hand-in-hand with auditing and monitoring. When tasks require multiple approvals, audit logs can show who approved what and when. This increases accountability and reduces the likelihood of unauthorized actions going unnoticed.
SSCP candidates must understand implementation challenges as well. If improperly implemented, separation of duties can create bottlenecks, inefficiencies, or confusion. Organizations must define roles carefully to prevent loopholes. Automated systems can help enforce the principle by requiring multi-factor approvals within workflows.
Because answer A uniquely ensures that no single person can complete sensitive tasks alone, reducing opportunities for misuse, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 38:
Which type of vulnerability is introduced when unvalidated user input is incorporated directly into a command or query, potentially allowing unauthorized commands to execute?
A) Buffer Overflow
B) Broken Authentication
C) Cross-Site Scripting
D) Injection Attack
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it refers to the type of vulnerability where attackers manipulate unvalidated input to alter how a command or query is constructed. SSCP candidates must understand this vulnerability because it is one of the most widely exploited weaknesses in applications, databases, and operating systems. When input is not validated or sanitized, attackers can inject unauthorized commands, retrieve sensitive information, modify data, or even gain full system compromise.
Understanding why D is correct requires reviewing how this vulnerability works. Applications often build commands or queries using input received from users. If the application does not validate this input, attackers can insert malicious syntax, causing the underlying system to interpret the input as executable code rather than plain data. Examples include injecting rogue SQL statements, inserting command-line instructions, or manipulating directory paths.
Comparing D to alternative choices clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe buffer overflow vulnerabilities, which involve memory misuse rather than input manipulation. Another option may describe misconfigurations, not input-based attacks. Another may describe broken authentication, unrelated to injecting commands. Only answer D matches the description of unvalidated input leading to unauthorized command execution.
This vulnerability is common in web applications, back-end services, command processors, and database interactions. Attackers can exploit login fields, search bars, URL parameters, cookies, headers, or API inputs. SSCP candidates must understand secure coding practices that prevent injection vulnerabilities, including input validation, parameterized queries, whitelisting acceptable characters, escaping special characters, and using secure APIs.
The impact of injection vulnerabilities can be severe. Attackers can read sensitive data, modify records, delete tables, execute system commands, escalate privileges, or pivot deeper into networks. Because of their severity and prevalence, injection attacks frequently top industry vulnerability rankings.
Organizations mitigate injection risks through secure development training, regular code reviews, automated scanning tools, penetration testing, and input validation frameworks. Runtime protections and web application firewalls can reject suspicious input, adding an extra layer of defense.
Because answer D specifically identifies input-based manipulation that introduces unauthorized commands, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 39:
Which cryptographic process ensures data integrity by producing a fixed-length output that changes completely if the input changes even slightly?
A) Encryption
B) Hashing
C) Tokenization
D) Obfuscation
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it describes the cryptographic process that converts data of any length into a fixed-length output that uniquely identifies the data. SSCP candidates must understand this process because it is essential for verifying data integrity, detecting modifications, supporting authentication mechanisms, and enabling secure storage of sensitive values such as passwords. Even a tiny change in the input produces a significantly different output, a property known as the avalanche effect.
Understanding why B is correct begins with examining the characteristics of this process. It is one-way, meaning the original data cannot be reconstructed from the output. This makes it unsuitable for encryption but ideal for integrity verification. When data is hashed, the resulting value becomes a fingerprint. If even one character changes, the hash output becomes entirely different. This allows systems to detect tampering or corruption.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe encryption, which is reversible with the right key and does not provide fixed-length integrity outputs. Another may describe encoding, which is reversible and not security-focused. Another may describe compression, which reduces file size but offers no integrity protection. Only hashing matches the features required by the question.
Hashing is used in digital signatures, password storage, integrity checks, file verification, and authentication. Tools like SHA-256, SHA-3, and other modern algorithms provide strong integrity protection. Weak hashing algorithms, such as MD5 and SHA-1, are vulnerable to collisions and should not be used in modern systems.
SSCP candidates must understand collision resistance, pre-image resistance, and the dangers of insecure hashing practices. Proper implementation also requires salting and stretching when hashing passwords to resist brute-force attacks.
Because answer B accurately identifies the cryptographic process that ensures data integrity through fixed-length output, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 40:
Which type of firewall filters traffic based on session state, allowing or denying packets depending on whether they belong to an established connection?
A) Packet-Filtering Firewall
B) Proxy Firewall
C) Stateful Firewall
D) Next-Generation Firewall
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it identifies the type of firewall that tracks the state of network connections. SSCP candidates must understand this firewall because it is widely used in modern networks due to its security, efficiency, and ability to enforce dynamic rules. Unlike simple packet filtering firewalls that examine each packet independently, this firewall keeps track of ongoing connections and makes decisions based on the session’s status.
Understanding why C is correct requires examining how this firewall type operates. It maintains a state table containing information about active connections. When a packet arrives, the firewall checks whether it belongs to an existing connection. If it does, and the connection is legitimate, the packet is allowed. If the packet does not match an existing connection and does not satisfy security rules, it is blocked. This prevents unauthorized packets from entering while ensuring legitimate traffic flows smoothly.
Comparing C to alternative answers clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may describe a packet filtering firewall that does not track connection state. Another may describe an application-layer firewall that inspects traffic more deeply but does not primarily focus on session state. Another may describe a proxy firewall that intermediates connections but does not enforce state tables in the same way. Only answer C corresponds to connection state-aware filtering.
This firewall enhances security by preventing spoofed packets and unauthorized attempts to inject traffic into existing sessions. It also improves performance because once a session is validated, subsequent packets require less inspection. The firewall understands TCP handshakes, UDP flows, and even some application-level states.
SSCP candidates must understand that stateful firewalls form a core part of layered network security. They work well with other controls such as intrusion detection, network segmentation, and next-generation firewalls. Proper configuration is essential because incorrect rule design can allow unintended access or block legitimate traffic.
Because answer C identifies the firewall type that filters packets based on session state, it is the correct answer.
