Visit here for our full CompTIA 220-1201 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 61:
What is the purpose of a dummy load when testing power supplies?
A) Reduce electrical noise
B) Provide necessary load for stable operation
C) Cool the power supply
D) Measure power consumption
Answer: B) Provide necessary load for stable operation
Explanation:
A dummy load provides the necessary electrical load to allow power supplies to operate stably during testing. Many power supplies, particularly switching power supplies used in computers, require a minimum load on certain voltage rails to regulate properly. Without sufficient load, the power supply may not start, may shut down due to protection circuits, or may produce unstable voltages that don’t accurately reflect performance under real conditions. Dummy loads simulate the resistance of actual components, allowing technicians to test voltage stability, ripple, and overall performance safely.
Dummy loads typically consist of high-wattage resistors that can dissipate heat generated when drawing current from the power supply. Professional testing setups use adjustable electronic loads that can precisely control current draw and measure various parameters. When testing PC power supplies specifically, the 12V rail typically requires the most significant load, as modern systems draw the majority of their power from this rail. Some older power supplies required minimum loads on the 5V rail. Without appropriate loading, voltage measurements may appear normal despite the power supply being unable to deliver stable power under actual operating conditions.
For A+ technicians, understanding dummy loads is important when bench-testing suspected faulty power supplies. Simply powering on a disconnected PSU and measuring voltages may not reveal problems that only manifest under load. When diagnosing intermittent system crashes or instability potentially caused by power supply issues, testing with appropriate loads helps confirm or rule out PSU problems. Safety is crucial when working with dummy loads as they generate substantial heat and exposed resistors can cause burns. Commercial PSU testers often include built-in loads and displays for convenient testing, providing a safer alternative to custom dummy load assemblies for routine troubleshooting.
Question 62:
Which Windows command creates a new directory?
A) cd
B) md
C) rd
D) dir
Answer: B) md
Explanation:
The md (make directory) command creates new directories in Windows command prompt. Alternative syntax “mkdir” performs the same function, as both commands are equivalent. The basic syntax is “md directoryname” to create a single directory in the current location, or “md path\directoryname” to create a directory at a specified location. The command can create multiple nested directories in one operation using paths like “md parent\child\grandchild,” which creates all necessary directories in the hierarchy even if intermediate directories don’t exist.
The md command includes useful options for advanced directory creation scenarios. When creating directories with spaces in names, the entire path should be enclosed in quotation marks, like “md “My Documents\New Folder”.” The command can create multiple directories simultaneously by listing them separated by spaces. Error messages appear if attempting to create directories that already exist, if insufficient permissions prevent creation, or if the path specification is invalid. The command works identically in PowerShell, though PowerShell also offers the “New-Item -ItemType Directory” cmdlet with additional functionality.
For A+ technicians, mastering basic command-line directory operations is essential for various tasks including system repair operations, script creation, and working in environments where graphical interfaces aren’t available. When performing troubleshooting from recovery environments or safe mode command prompts, creating directories for backups or temporary file storage requires command-line expertise. The complementary commands include cd (change directory, option A) for navigating the directory structure, rd (remove directory, option C) for deleting directories, and dir (option D) for listing directory contents. Understanding these fundamental commands enables technicians to work efficiently in command-line environments when necessary.
Question 63:
What is the maximum theoretical speed of 802.11ac?
A) 600 Mbps
B) 1.3 Gbps
C) 3.5 Gbps
D) 6.9 Gbps
Answer: D) 6.9 Gbps
Explanation:
The 802.11ac standard, also known as Wi-Fi 5, has a maximum theoretical speed of 6.9 gigabits per second (6933 Mbps) under optimal conditions using eight spatial streams with 160 MHz channels. This represents a significant advancement over 802.11n’s maximum of 600 Mbps. However, these theoretical maximums are rarely achieved in real-world scenarios. Most consumer 802.11ac routers implement 2-4 spatial streams and typically use 80 MHz channels, resulting in practical maximum speeds ranging from 867 Mbps to 1733 Mbps depending on the specific implementation.
The 802.11ac standard introduced several technologies enabling these higher speeds. It operates exclusively in the less-congested 5 GHz band, uses wider channel bandwidths (80 MHz or 160 MHz compared to 40 MHz maximum for 802.11n), implements 256-QAM modulation for more data per transmission, and supports advanced MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) with up to eight spatial streams. Additional features include beamforming for directing signals toward specific clients and multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO) in Wave 2 implementations, allowing simultaneous data transmission to multiple devices rather than sequential serving.
For A+ technicians, understanding 802.11ac capabilities helps set realistic performance expectations and troubleshoot wireless networks. When recommending or installing wireless equipment, technicians should explain that advertised speeds represent combined theoretical maximums across all spatial streams and frequencies, not what single devices will achieve. Actual speeds depend on numerous factors including client device capabilities, distance from access point, interference, and number of connected clients. When troubleshooting wireless performance, verifying that client devices support 802.11ac, operate on 5 GHz band, and have current drivers helps optimize performance. The newer 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) standard offers even higher speeds and efficiency improvements.
Question 64:
Which component provides temporary storage for frequently accessed data?
A) RAM
B) Hard drive
C) Cache
D) ROM
Answer: C) Cache
Explanation:
Cache provides temporary storage for frequently accessed data, placing it in ultra-fast memory closer to processing units for quicker retrieval. Cache operates on the principle that programs tend to access the same data or nearby data repeatedly, so storing this information in fast storage dramatically improves performance. Computer systems employ cache at multiple levels: CPU cache (L1, L2, L3) stores instructions and data the processor uses, disk cache stores frequently accessed file data, and web browsers maintain cache for previously viewed web content.
CPU cache exists in hierarchical levels with different speeds and capacities. L1 cache is smallest and fastest, located directly on the CPU cores, typically 32-64 KB per core with access times under a nanosecond. L2 cache is larger (256-512 KB per core) but slightly slower. L3 cache is shared among all cores, ranging from several megabytes to tens of megabytes, providing a fast pool of data accessible by any core. This hierarchy balances the competing demands of speed, capacity, and cost. Cache uses sophisticated algorithms to predict what data will be needed and maintain the most relevant information in the fastest storage levels.
For A+ technicians, understanding cache concepts is important when explaining system performance characteristics and selecting appropriate components. Processors with larger cache generally perform better in tasks involving repetitive operations or large datasets that fit in cache. When troubleshooting performance issues, corrupted cache (particularly browser cache) sometimes causes problems resolved by clearing the cache. While RAM (option A) also provides temporary storage, it’s considerably slower than cache and serves as main system memory rather than ultra-fast storage for frequently accessed data. The cache’s role in performance makes it a critical but often overlooked component specification when comparing processors and storage devices.
Question 65:
What does the ping command test?
A) Disk speed
B) Network connectivity
C) CPU performance
D) Memory capacity
Answer: B) Network connectivity
Explanation:
The ping command tests network connectivity between two devices by sending ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) Echo Request packets to a target host and waiting for Echo Reply packets in return. If replies are received, this confirms network connectivity exists between source and destination. Ping reports response times (latency) measured in milliseconds, packet loss percentage, and provides statistics including minimum, maximum, and average response times. This simple but powerful tool helps diagnose network problems by verifying whether hosts are reachable and measuring connection quality.
Ping operates at the network layer, testing basic IP connectivity without involving higher-layer protocols like TCP or HTTP. The command accepts IP addresses or domain names as targets. When using domain names, ping first performs DNS resolution to obtain the IP address, so successful pinging confirms both DNS functionality and network connectivity. Common ping scenarios include verifying local network connectivity (ping the gateway), testing internet connectivity (ping a public server like 8.8.8.8), and checking if specific hosts are online and responsive. Response times indicate network latency, with low times (under 50ms) indicating good connections and high times suggesting network congestion or distance.
For A+ technicians, ping is often the first diagnostic tool used when troubleshooting network problems. When users report connectivity issues, pinging the default gateway verifies local network function, while pinging internet hosts tests whether the problem is local or external. Inability to ping may indicate several issues including disconnected cables, incorrect IP configuration, firewall blocking, or destination host being offline. Some hosts intentionally block ICMP for security, so lack of ping response doesn’t always indicate complete connectivity loss. Understanding ping output and limitations enables efficient network troubleshooting, helping isolate problems to specific network segments or configurations.
Question 66:
Which type of display panel offers the fastest response time?
A) IPS
B) VA
C) TN
D) OLED
Answer: C) TN
Explanation:
TN (Twisted Nematic) display panels typically offer the fastest response times among LCD technologies, often achieving response times of 1-2 milliseconds for grey-to-grey transitions. Response time measures how quickly a pixel can change from one color to another, with faster times reducing motion blur and ghosting during fast-moving content like gaming or video. TN panels achieve these fast response times through their simpler liquid crystal structure where crystals twist 90 degrees between polarizers. The straightforward molecular reorientation allows rapid state changes compared to more complex arrangements in other panel types.
The fast response time advantage makes TN panels popular for competitive gaming monitors where every millisecond matters for responsive gameplay. However, this performance comes with tradeoffs. TN panels generally exhibit narrower viewing angles with color shifting and contrast degradation when viewed off-axis, less accurate color reproduction compared to IPS, and typically lower contrast ratios than VA panels. These limitations make TN panels less suitable for professional color work or scenarios where multiple viewers need to see the display from various angles.
For A+ technicians, understanding display panel technologies helps match monitors to use cases. For competitive gamers prioritizing response time and refresh rate over color accuracy, TN panels provide excellent value with superior responsiveness. For professional work requiring accurate colors and wide viewing angles, IPS panels are more appropriate despite slightly slower response times. VA panels offer a middle ground with better contrast but slower response than TN. While OLED (option D) offers near-instantaneous response times and superior contrast, it’s less common in computer monitors due to cost and burn-in concerns. Technicians should assess user needs and viewing environment when recommending display technologies.
Question 67:
What is the purpose of ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) protection when working on computers?
A) Improve system performance
B) Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components
C) Increase component lifespan
D) Reduce electromagnetic interference
Answer: B) Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components
Explanation:
ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) protection prevents damage to sensitive electronic components from static electricity discharge. Static charges build up naturally through everyday activities like walking on carpets or handling synthetic materials. When these charges discharge through sensitive components, they can cause immediate catastrophic failure or latent damage that causes premature failure later. Modern electronic components operate at very low voltages (1.5-3.3V), making them vulnerable to ESD events that can generate thousands of volts. Even discharges too small to feel or see can damage integrated circuits, particularly modern processors, RAM modules, and other chips built with microscopic transistor geometries.
ESD protection requires creating and maintaining a path for static charges to dissipate safely without passing through sensitive components. Standard ESD precautions include wearing an anti-static wrist strap connected to an appropriate ground, working on anti-static mats, handling components by edges rather than touching pins or circuitry, storing components in anti-static bags, maintaining appropriate humidity levels (low humidity increases static buildup), and avoiding synthetic clothing during repair work. Before handling components, technicians should touch an unpainted metal surface of the computer case while it’s plugged in but powered off, providing a safe discharge path.
For A+ technicians, proper ESD procedures are fundamental professional practices. Component damage from ESD may not always be immediately obvious, manifesting instead as intermittent errors or premature failures months later. This makes consistent ESD protection essential even when seemingly unnecessary. While some technicians work for years without apparent ESD damage, relying on luck rather than proper procedures is unprofessional and risks expensive component replacement costs. Employers and certification programs emphasize ESD protection because preventing damage through proper procedures is far more cost-effective than replacing damaged components. Understanding and implementing ESD protection demonstrates technical professionalism and protects both equipment and technician liability.
Question 68:
Which protocol operates at port 21?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) SMTP
D) Telnet
Answer: B) FTP
Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) operates at port 21 by default, using this port for control commands and connection establishment. FTP is one of the oldest internet protocols, designed specifically for transferring files between clients and servers. When an FTP connection is established, the client connects to port 21 on the server to send commands like login credentials, directory listings, and file operation requests. The actual data transfer occurs over a separate connection, using port 20 in active mode or a dynamically negotiated port in passive mode, which is more firewall-friendly.
FTP supports two distinct modes of operation: active and passive, each handling data connections differently. In active mode, the server initiates the data connection back to the client, which can cause problems with firewalls and NAT. Passive mode, more commonly used today, has the client initiate both control and data connections to the server, avoiding many firewall complications. FTP also offers anonymous access where users can connect without authentication credentials, though this is increasingly discouraged for security reasons. Modern implementations often use secure variants like FTPS (FTP over SSL/TLS) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol, which actually doesn’t use FTP at all).
For A+ technicians, understanding FTP and its port requirements is important for network configuration and troubleshooting file transfer issues. When users cannot connect to FTP servers, verifying that port 21 is open through firewalls represents a basic troubleshooting step. FTP’s lack of encryption in standard implementations means passwords and data transfer in clear text, making it unsuitable for sensitive information without additional security layers. When configuring firewalls or routers for FTP access, both the control port (21) and data ports must be considered. Modern alternatives like SFTP (using port 22) or HTTPS-based file transfer are increasingly recommended for better security.
Question 69:
What is the purpose of the System File Checker (sfc) command?
A) Check disk space
B) Scan and repair corrupted system files
C) Defragment the hard drive
D) Check for viruses
Answer: B) Scan and repair corrupted system files
Explanation:
System File Checker (sfc) is a Windows utility that scans for and repairs corrupted or modified system files by comparing them against cached copies stored in the Windows component store. When executed with the “/scannow” parameter (sfc /scannow), the tool systematically checks all protected system files and replaces incorrect, corrupted, or modified versions with correct versions from the cache. This tool is invaluable for resolving issues caused by system file corruption, which can result from improper shutdowns, disk errors, malware, or failed updates.
The sfc command must be run from an elevated command prompt (Run as Administrator) because it modifies protected system files. The scan typically takes 15-30 minutes or longer depending on system specifications and number of files requiring repair. During the scan, sfc provides progress updates and generates detailed logs of its actions in CBS.log file. If sfc cannot repair certain files, it may require using the DISM (Deployment Image Servicing and Management) tool first to repair the component store itself, after which sfc can successfully restore files from the corrected store.
For A+ technicians, sfc is an essential tool when troubleshooting mysterious system instability, crashes, or missing functionality that suggests system file problems. Common symptoms indicating the need for sfc include Windows features not working correctly, error messages about missing DLL files, blue screens related to system files, or problems that started after improper shutdowns. The command won’t fix all Windows problems—it specifically addresses system file corruption. Technicians should understand that sfc works only on Windows system files and won’t repair application files, user data, or issues unrelated to file corruption. Running sfc should be routine when troubleshooting system stability issues before considering more drastic measures like system resets or reinstallation.
Question 70:
Which cloud service model provides a complete development environment?
A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) DaaS
Answer: B) PaaS
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, including infrastructure, development tools, middleware, database management systems, and business intelligence services. PaaS enables developers to build, test, deploy, and manage applications without worrying about underlying infrastructure management. The platform handles resource provisioning, scaling, security patching, and infrastructure maintenance, allowing development teams to focus entirely on application development rather than operational concerns.
PaaS offerings typically include development frameworks and tools for various programming languages, database services for application data storage, application hosting environments that automatically scale based on demand, integration services for connecting to other systems and services, and management tools for monitoring application performance and usage. Major PaaS providers include Microsoft Azure App Service, Google App Engine, Heroku, and AWS Elastic Beanstalk. These platforms support various development stacks including .NET, Java, Python, Ruby, Node.js, and others, providing flexibility while maintaining ease of deployment.
For A+ technicians transitioning to cloud or DevOps roles, understanding PaaS distinguishes it from other service models. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service, option A) provides just the infrastructure (virtual machines, storage, networking) requiring users to manage operating systems and applications. SaaS (Software as a Service, option C) provides complete applications accessed through browsers without any development capability. PaaS occupies the middle ground, providing the platform for developing custom applications while abstracting infrastructure complexity. When organizations need custom application development without infrastructure management overhead, PaaS offers appropriate balance. However, PaaS typically offers less control than IaaS, making it unsuitable for applications requiring specific infrastructure configurations or custom system-level software.
Question 71:
What is the maximum distance for fiber optic cable in a standard network installation?
A) 100 meters
B) 500 meters
C) 2 kilometers
D) Several kilometers or more
Answer: D) Several kilometers or more
Explanation:
Fiber optic cables can transmit data over much longer distances than copper cables, typically several kilometers to tens of kilometers or even hundreds of kilometers depending on the specific fiber type and equipment used. Unlike copper cables limited to 100 meters for Ethernet due to electrical signal degradation, fiber optic cables use light pulses that experience far less signal loss over distance. Multimode fiber, used for shorter distances within buildings or campuses, typically supports distances up to 2 kilometers depending on speed and fiber grade. Single-mode fiber, designed for longer distances, can reliably transmit data for 40 kilometers or more at high speeds, with special equipment extending this to hundreds of kilometers for long-haul telecommunications.
The remarkable distance capability of fiber optics stems from several factors. Light signals in glass fiber experience minimal attenuation compared to electrical signals in copper, different wavelengths of light can be transmitted simultaneously through one fiber (wavelength division multiplexing), and fiber is immune to electromagnetic interference that degrades copper signals. The primary factors limiting distance include dispersion (light pulse spreading), attenuation (gradual signal weakening), and equipment specifications. Higher-quality fiber grades (like OM3, OM4 for multimode or OS2 for single-mode) support greater distances at higher speeds.
For A+ technicians, understanding fiber optic capabilities is important when planning network infrastructure or troubleshooting connectivity. Fiber solves problems that copper cannot address: connecting buildings across campuses beyond 100-meter limitations, providing high-bandwidth connections immune to electrical interference, linking network segments in industrial environments with heavy electrical machinery, and enabling networks in areas where copper theft is problematic. While fiber installation requires specialized tools and skills, its advantages for distance and bandwidth make it essential for modern network infrastructure. Technicians should recognize when fiber is appropriate and understand its fundamentally different characteristics from copper cabling.
Question 72:
Which Windows feature allows running older programs in compatibility mode?
A) Virtual Machine
B) Program Compatibility Troubleshooter
C) Safe Mode
D) Legacy Support
Answer: B) Program Compatibility Troubleshooter
Explanation:
The Program Compatibility Troubleshooter is Windows’ built-in feature that helps older programs run on newer Windows versions by applying compatibility settings. Accessible by right-clicking a program’s executable or shortcut and selecting “Troubleshoot compatibility,” this wizard guides users through identifying problems and testing solutions. The tool can automatically detect issues and recommend settings, or users can manually select the Windows version the program was designed for, along with specific compatibility options like reduced color mode, screen resolution settings, or running with administrator privileges.
Compatibility settings work by creating an application-specific configuration that modifies how Windows presents itself to that program. When a program is configured to run in Windows 7 compatibility mode, for example, Windows provides API responses and system information that mimic Windows 7, helping programs that check Windows version or rely on version-specific behavior. Additional options address common compatibility issues: disabling display scaling helps programs designed for lower resolutions display correctly on high-DPI screens, reduced color mode helps older games that don’t support modern color depths, and administrator privileges resolve issues where legacy programs expect write access to protected system folders.
For A+ technicians, understanding compatibility mode is essential for supporting users running legacy applications. Many businesses rely on older specialized software that won’t run properly on current Windows versions without compatibility settings. When users report that programs won’t install, crash on startup, or display incorrectly, applying appropriate compatibility settings often resolves the issue. However, compatibility mode has limitations—it cannot overcome fundamental architecture incompatibilities like 16-bit programs on 64-bit Windows, or programs requiring deprecated technologies completely removed from Windows. For truly problematic legacy applications, virtual machines running older Windows versions may be necessary.
Question 73:
What does the acronym SMTP stand for?
A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
B) Secure Mail Transfer Protocol
C) System Mail Transport Process
D) Standard Message Transfer Protocol
Answer: A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Explanation:
SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, the standard protocol for sending email messages between mail servers and from email clients to mail servers. SMTP handles the transmission and routing of email across the internet, operating as a push protocol where the sending server initiates the connection and pushes messages to the receiving server. The protocol uses port 25 for server-to-server communication and typically port 587 for client-to-server submission, with port 465 used for SMTP over SSL/TLS in some implementations.
SMTP operates through a series of text-based commands and responses between client and server. The sending system establishes a connection, identifies itself, specifies the sender and recipient addresses, and then transmits the message content. SMTP servers can relay messages through multiple intermediate servers before reaching the final destination mail server, where the message is stored until the recipient retrieves it using protocols like POP3 or IMAP. SMTP authentication (SMTP AUTH) requires users to authenticate before sending email, preventing unauthorized relay abuse and spam. Modern implementations typically use TLS encryption to protect email content during transmission.
For A+ technicians, understanding SMTP is essential for configuring email clients and troubleshooting email sending problems. When users report inability to send email despite receiving properly, SMTP configuration issues are typically responsible. Common problems include incorrect SMTP server addresses, wrong port numbers, authentication failures, ISP blocking of outbound port 25 to prevent spam, or firewall restrictions. Technicians should verify SMTP settings match the email provider’s specifications, including whether SSL/TLS encryption is required and which port to use. Understanding that SMTP only handles sending while POP3/IMAP handle receiving helps isolate email problems to specific protocols and services.
Question 74:
Which type of printer uses piezoelectric technology?
A) Laser
B) Inkjet
C) Thermal
D) Impact
Answer: B) Inkjet
Explanation:
Inkjet printers commonly use piezoelectric technology as one method for propelling ink droplets onto paper. In piezoelectric inkjet printing, piezoelectric crystals change shape when electrical voltage is applied, creating pressure waves that force precise amounts of ink through microscopic nozzles onto the paper. This technology, used prominently by Epson and other manufacturers, offers precise control over droplet size and firing frequency, enabling high-quality prints with accurate color reproduction and fine detail. Piezoelectric print heads are typically more durable than thermal alternatives and can work with a wider range of ink formulations.
The alternative inkjet technology uses thermal (bubble jet) methods where heating elements rapidly heat ink, creating vapor bubbles that eject ink droplets. Canon and HP primarily use thermal technology. Both methods achieve similar results but have different characteristics: piezoelectric heads generally last longer and handle specialized inks better, while thermal heads are typically less expensive to manufacture. Modern inkjet printers achieve remarkable print quality through precise droplet placement, variable droplet sizes, and multiple ink colors including light variants of cyan and magenta for smoother color gradations.
For A+ technicians, understanding inkjet technology helps diagnose printing problems and advise users on printer selection. Common inkjet issues include clogged nozzles (resolved through cleaning cycles), print head failures, ink smearing from incorrect paper types, and color inaccuracies from empty or expired cartridges. Piezoelectric printers’ ability to use different ink types makes them popular for specialized applications like photo printing or textile printing. When recommending printers, technicians should consider factors including print volume (inkjets suit low to moderate volumes), cost per page (typically higher than laser), print quality requirements (excellent for photos), and ink costs (often substantial over the printer’s life).
Question 75:
What is the purpose of Windows Update?
A) Upgrade to newer Windows versions
B) Install device drivers automatically
C) Download and install system updates and patches
D) Update installed applications
Answer: C) Download and install system updates and patches
Explanation:
Windows Update is the built-in mechanism for downloading and installing operating system updates, security patches, bug fixes, and feature improvements from Microsoft. This service is critical for maintaining system security, stability, and compatibility. Windows Update delivers various update types including security updates that patch vulnerabilities, quality updates that fix bugs and improve reliability, feature updates that add new capabilities, and driver updates for hardware devices. The service typically runs automatically in the background, though users can manually check for updates through Settings.
Modern Windows versions use a cumulative update model where each update includes all previous updates, simplifying the update process but resulting in larger downloads. Security updates are released on “Patch Tuesday” (the second Tuesday of each month), though critical zero-day vulnerabilities may receive out-of-band updates immediately. Feature updates, which add significant new capabilities, are released semi-annually or annually depending on Windows version. Windows Update also manages updating components like Microsoft Defender definitions, ensuring antivirus signatures remain current.
For A+ technicians, managing Windows Update is a routine but critical task. While automatic updates suit most users, technicians should understand how to troubleshoot update failures, defer updates when necessary for compatibility testing, and resolve issues where updates fail to install or cause problems. Common update problems include insufficient disk space, corrupted update components (fixable with Windows Update Troubleshooter or DISM/sfc commands), and conflicts with third-party software. Technicians should also manage update settings appropriately for different environments—automatic updates for home users, controlled updates with testing periods for businesses. Keeping systems updated is one of the most important security measures for preventing malware and exploits.
Question 76:
Which connector is typically used for analog audio connections?
A) HDMI
B) DisplayPort
C) 3.5mm jack
D) USB
Answer: C) 3.5mm jack
Explanation:
The 3.5mm jack, also called a mini-jack or headphone jack, is the standard connector for analog audio connections on computers and consumer electronics. This connector carries analog audio signals through a small cylindrical plug with metal contacts separated by insulating rings. Computer sound cards typically include multiple 3.5mm jacks color-coded for function: green for line out/headphones, blue for line in, pink for microphone, orange for subwoofer/center channel, black for rear surround, and gray for side surround in multi-channel configurations.
The 3.5mm connector comes in different configurations based on the number of contacts. A two-conductor (TS) plug carries mono audio, three-conductor (TRS) carries stereo audio or balanced mono, and four-conductor (TRRS) carries stereo audio plus microphone, commonly used in smartphone headsets. The analog nature of this connection means the audio quality depends on the quality of the digital-to-analog converter (DAC) in the source device and the analog components in the audio chain. While digital connections like HDMI offer advantages in some scenarios, the 3.5mm jack remains ubiquitous for headphones, speakers, and audio equipment.
For A+ technicians, understanding 3.5mm audio connections is essential for troubleshooting common audio problems. When users report no sound, checking that devices are plugged into the correct color-coded jack (green for output) and verifying Windows recognizes the connection are first steps. Front panel audio connections sometimes require BIOS enabling or proper internal cable connection to motherboard headers. The analog nature of these connections makes them susceptible to interference, poor contact from dirty jacks, or cable damage. When diagnosing audio issues, technicians should test with different audio sources, verify Windows audio settings including default playback devices, check audio drivers, and physically inspect connectors for damage or debris.
Question 77:
What does the acronym PXE stand for?
A) Parallel Execution Environment
B) Preboot Execution Environment
C) Protected Extension Environment
D) Primary Exchange Environment
Answer: B) Preboot Execution Environment
Explanation:
PXE stands for Preboot Execution Environment, a standardized method for booting computers from a network server rather than local storage devices. PXE is implemented in network interface card (NIC) firmware and allows computers to boot an operating system or diagnostic utilities downloaded from a network server before any local operating system loads. When enabled in BIOS/UEFI, the PXE process begins with the NIC broadcasting a DHCP request that includes PXE-specific information. A PXE-enabled DHCP server responds with IP configuration and the location of a boot server and boot file.
PXE is essential for several enterprise scenarios including operating system deployment where technicians can install Windows or Linux to many computers simultaneously without physical media, diskless workstations that boot entirely from network servers without local storage, system recovery and diagnostics where technicians boot specialized tools without requiring USB drives or optical media, and centralized management where all boot images are maintained on servers rather than individual machines. The technology significantly streamlines deployment and maintenance in organizations managing large computer fleets.
For A+ technicians, understanding PXE is valuable for enterprise environments and deployment scenarios. To use PXE, technicians must ensure network infrastructure supports it (DHCP configured for PXE, boot server accessible, no VLANs blocking traffic), BIOS/UEFI has PXE boot enabled and prioritized appropriately in boot order, and network cables are connected before powering on. Common PXE problems include DHCP configuration issues, incorrect boot file paths, network connectivity problems, or BIOS settings. Many organizations use deployment solutions like Windows Deployment Services (WDS), Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), or System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) that rely on PXE for operating system deployment. Understanding PXE fundamentals enables technicians to troubleshoot deployment issues and implement efficient OS installation procedures.
Question 78:
Which Windows feature allows creating a point-in-time copy of volumes?
A) File History
B) Volume Shadow Copy
C) System Image Backup
D) Disk Cloning
Answer: B) Volume Shadow Copy
Explanation:
Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS), also called Shadow Copy, creates point-in-time snapshots of volumes or individual files even while they’re in use. This technology allows backup software to create consistent backups of files that are open and being modified, and enables features like Previous Versions where users can restore files or folders to earlier states. VSS operates at the block level, storing only changes made since the previous snapshot rather than complete file copies, making it storage-efficient for maintaining multiple recovery points.
Shadow Copy works through a copy-on-write mechanism. When enabled, the service monitors write operations to the volume. Before data is modified, VSS copies the original data to shadow copy storage. This preserved data, combined with current volume contents, reconstructs the complete volume state at the snapshot time. Users can access shadow copies through the Previous Versions tab in file or folder properties, allowing restoration of accidentally deleted or modified files. For system volumes, shadow copies support System Restore functionality. The storage space allocated for shadow copies is configurable but limited; older snapshots are automatically deleted when space is needed.
For A+ technicians, understanding Volume Shadow Copy helps implement file recovery capabilities and troubleshoot backup issues. When users accidentally delete or modify files, Previous Versions often provides quick recovery without requiring full backup restoration. However, technicians should ensure Shadow Copy is enabled and configured with adequate storage space, as it’s sometimes disabled on space-constrained systems. Shadow copies are not substitutes for proper backups—they protect against accidental deletion or modification but not catastrophic failures like disk failure or malware. When backup software reports VSS errors, issues may include insufficient disk space, corrupted VSS writers, or service failures requiring troubleshooting with vssadmin commands.
Question 79:
What is the purpose of thermal compound?
A) Cool components electrically
B) Improve heat transfer between surfaces
C) Insulate components from heat
D) Generate cooling through chemical reaction
Answer: B) Improve heat transfer between surfaces
Explanation:
Thermal compound, also called thermal paste, thermal grease, or thermal interface material (TIM), improves heat transfer between a heat-generating component and its heatsink by filling microscopic imperfections in both surfaces. Even carefully machined metal surfaces have microscopic valleys and peaks that create air gaps when placed together. Since air is an excellent insulator, these gaps significantly impede heat transfer. Thermal compound fills these gaps with thermally conductive material, creating a more complete thermal path and dramatically improving heat dissipation efficiency.
Quality thermal compounds typically contain thermally conductive particles suspended in a carrier medium. Common formulations include ceramic-based compounds (affordable and non-conductive), metal-based compounds with silver or aluminum particles (high performance but potentially electrically conductive), and specialized compounds using carbon nanotubes or liquid metal (premium performance). Application technique is critical—using too little leaves air gaps, while too much actually insulates rather than conducts. A thin, even layer that just fills imperfections provides optimal performance. Most compounds require a curing period where performance improves slightly over initial hours or days of use.
For A+ technicians, proper thermal compound application is essential when installing or reseating heatsinks on CPUs, GPUs, or other heat-generating components. Old thermal paste degrades over time, drying out and losing effectiveness, so cleaning off old compound and applying fresh paste is standard during maintenance or upgrades. The cleaning process typically uses isopropyl alcohol (90% or higher concentration) and lint-free materials to remove all old compound before applying new. Different application methods exist (small dot in center, thin spread across surface, line pattern) with effectiveness varying by heatsink design. Improper thermal compound application can cause overheating, thermal throttling, reduced performance, or component damage from excessive temperatures.
Question 80:
Which command displays the route packets take to reach a destination?
A) ping
B) netstat
C) tracert
D) ipconfig
Answer: C) tracert
Explanation:
Tracert (traceroute in Linux/Unix) displays the route packets take from the source computer to a destination, showing each intermediate router (hop) along the path. The command sends packets with progressively increasing Time-To-Live (TTL) values, causing each router along the path to return an error message identifying itself when the TTL expires. This process maps the complete path, displaying the hostname and IP address of each hop along with response times for multiple probes to each hop, helping identify where network problems or slowdowns occur.
Tracert provides valuable information beyond just the path. Response times for each hop help identify network segments with high latency or packet loss. When certain hops show asterisks (*) instead of times, this typically indicates firewalls blocking ICMP responses rather than actual connectivity problems. The number of hops reveals routing complexity, with direct connections showing few hops while international routes may traverse 15-20 or more routers. Comparing tracert results from multiple locations helps determine whether problems are localized to specific network segments or affect connectivity broadly.
For A+ technicians, tracert is invaluable for diagnosing connectivity and performance issues. When users report slow internet or inability to reach specific websites, tracert reveals where problems occur. If early hops within the local network show high latency, issues are likely with local infrastructure (router, modem, ISP connection). If later hops near the destination show problems, issues may be with the remote network or hosting provider. When packets fail to reach the destination entirely, tracert shows how far they get before failing, helping isolate the problem. Understanding tracert output enables technicians to determine whether issues require local troubleshooting, ISP contact, or are beyond their control (problems with remote networks).
