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QUESTION 81:
Which security process ensures that only approved, documented, and authorized modifications are made to systems, applications, or infrastructure to prevent unintended disruptions and security weaknesses?
A) Change Management
B) Patch Management
C) Configuration Baseline
D) System Hardening
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it refers to the formalized process that ensures changes to systems are controlled, reviewed, and authorized before implementation. SSCP candidates must understand this process because unapproved or poorly executed changes are among the leading causes of outages, vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and system failures. By enforcing orderly control, organizations reduce operational risk and ensure consistency, stability, and security across their environments.
Understanding why A is correct begins with recognizing the purpose of controlling changes. Without a structured approach, administrators could modify system settings, deploy updates, or alter configurations without oversight. This creates chaos, exposes systems to vulnerabilities, and makes it difficult to trace the source of issues. Formal change control ensures all modifications go through documentation, approval, testing, scheduling, and verification steps.
Comparing A with the alternative answers reveals why they are incorrect. One option may describe patch management, which manages updates but does not control all types of system changes. Another may describe configuration management, which ensures consistency but does not govern authorization. Another may describe incident response, which handles events after they occur rather than preventing issues. Only answer A embodies the structured and authorized process for system modifications.
The process typically includes stages such as request submission, impact analysis, approval, testing, implementation, and post-change review. Impact analysis evaluates potential effects on systems, security, compliance, and operations. Stakeholders assess whether the change impacts availability or introduces risk. Approved changes are tested in controlled environments before rollout. Testing verifies functionality, compatibility, and security.
Change control also includes rollback planning. Every approved change must include a method to revert to the previous state if issues arise. This protects operations and reduces downtime. SSCP candidates must understand that rollback capability is essential for minimizing service disruption.
Documentation is another critical component. Organizations must maintain records of all changes, including the reason for modification, responsible personnel, test results, and approval records. This ensures accountability and supports audits, investigations, and compliance assessments. Many standards, such as ISO 27001, COBIT, and SOC frameworks, require formal change control documentation.
Security considerations are deeply embedded in the process. Every proposed change must undergo security review to ensure it does not weaken defenses, introduce vulnerabilities, or violate policies. For example, adding a new service, opening a network port, or modifying authentication configurations must be reviewed for risk.
Change control also helps organizations maintain configuration baselines. When unauthorized changes occur, systems deviate from approved baselines, making them more susceptible to attacks. By enforcing strict control, organizations maintain consistent, secure configurations.
Automation tools support the process by providing workflows, approval tracking, and integration with configuration management databases. However, automation does not replace human oversight; rather, it ensures consistent execution of procedures.
Because answer A describes the structured process of approving and implementing system changes to prevent disruption and risk, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 82:
Which cloud computing model provides customers with full control over virtual machines, operating systems, and applications, while the provider manages only the underlying infrastructure?
A) SaaS
B) IaaS
C) PaaS
D) FaaS
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it describes the cloud service model in which customers receive virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking, but must manage everything above the virtualization layer themselves. SSCP candidates must understand this model because it offers flexibility while still offloading physical hardware responsibilities to the cloud provider.
Understanding why B is correct requires examining how this cloud model operates. Customers provision virtual servers and install their own operating systems, applications, middleware, and configurations. They retain responsibility for patching, securing, and maintaining these systems. Meanwhile, the cloud provider manages the physical servers, data centers, networking infrastructure, and hypervisors. This division of responsibility gives customers greater customization and control than higher-level cloud models.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies their differences. One option may describe Software as a Service, where customers only interact with an application and have no OS-level control. Another may describe Platform as a Service, where customers manage applications but not the OS or underlying environment. Another may describe cloud storage or similar offerings that lack full virtual machine management. Only answer B provides full OS and application control while the provider handles underlying infrastructure.
This model is widely used for hosting applications requiring custom environments such as web servers, databases, development sandboxes, and legacy systems. It enables customers to replicate on-premise architectures in the cloud while benefiting from scalability, elasticity, and reduced capital expenditure.
Security responsibilities are significant. Customers must configure firewalls, implement access controls, patch operating systems, harden services, and monitor virtual machines. They must also encrypt data at rest and in transit, manage identities, and deploy intrusion detection. Meanwhile, the provider ensures physical security, hardware maintenance, and network redundancy.
This model supports automation and orchestration. Customers can deploy instances quickly using templates, scripts, and containerized workloads. It also enables scaling based on demand.
Because answer B describes a model where customers control virtual machines and operating systems while providers manage physical infrastructure, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 83:
Which authentication protocol uses a ticket-granting system to allow users to access multiple network services after completing a single login process?
A) RADIUS
B) TACACS+
C) SAML
D) Kerberos
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it identifies the protocol that allows users to authenticate once and then obtain time-limited tickets enabling access to various services without needing to re-enter credentials. SSCP candidates must understand this authentication framework because it provides strong security, reduces password exposure, and centralizes identity verification within enterprise networks.
Understanding why D is correct begins with how the protocol works. When a user logs in, they authenticate to a central authentication server, which issues a ticket-granting ticket. This ticket can then be used to request service tickets for individual network services. Service tickets are presented to servers as proof of identity and authorization. Because the system uses encrypted tickets rather than repeated password submissions, the risk of credential interception or replay is significantly reduced.
Comparing D with alternative answers clarifies why they fail. One option may describe RADIUS, which authenticates sessions but does not issue reusable tickets. Another may describe TACACS+, which centralizes authentication but does not use a ticketing model. Another may describe LDAP, which provides directory services but not ticket-based authentication mechanisms. Only answer D offers single sign-on through tickets.
This protocol uses symmetric encryption, time-stamped tickets, and mutual authentication to prevent impersonation and replay attacks. Time limits ensure tickets expire, reducing risk if compromised. Mutual authentication prevents attackers from impersonating servers.
Because answer D refers to the protocol that uses a ticket system for authentication and access to multiple services, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 84:
Which network defense mechanism monitors inbound and outbound traffic for signs of malicious activity and can automatically block suspicious packets in real time?
A) Firewall
B) IDS
C) IPS
D) Proxy Server
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the technology capable of not only detecting malicious activity but also preventing or blocking it automatically. SSCP candidates must understand this mechanism because it provides active protection against intrusions by inspecting traffic patterns, signatures, anomalies, and protocol violations. Unlike passive monitoring systems, this technology reacts instantly to threats.
Understanding why C is correct requires examining how this system functions. It analyzes all network traffic crossing its interfaces, comparing packets against known signatures of attacks, behavioral anomalies, and heuristic rules. When suspicious activity is identified, the system can drop the traffic, reset connections, quarantine hosts, or modify firewall rules. This real-time response prevents exploitation attempts from succeeding.
Comparing C with alternative answers clarifies their limitations. One option may describe intrusion detection systems, which only alert administrators and do not block traffic. Another may describe firewalls, which enforce static rules but do not detect sophisticated threats. Another may describe logging tools, which record events but do not actively block threats. Only answer C can both detect and prevent malicious activity.
Placement is critical. Organizations deploy these systems at network boundaries, within internal segments, or in front of critical servers. They must balance security with performance, as deep packet inspection introduces processing overhead.
Because answer C identifies the technology that detects and blocks malicious traffic in real time, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 85:
Which cybersecurity principle ensures that users and systems can access required information and resources whenever needed, without unnecessary delays or interruptions?
A) Integrity
B) Availability
C) Confidentiality
D) Non-Repudiation
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it refers to the principle that ensures systems, services, and data remain accessible and operational when required. SSCP candidates must understand this pillar of security because disruptions—even without data loss—can lead to operational failures, financial impact, and reputational damage. Ensuring uninterrupted access is critical for business continuity.
Understanding why B is correct involves examining the importance of consistent system availability. Systems must withstand hardware failures, network outages, cyberattacks, and software errors. Availability requires redundancy, failover systems, backups, load balancing, reliable power supplies, and robust network design. Security controls must not excessively hinder legitimate access.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies their focus. One option may describe confidentiality, which protects data privacy rather than access. Another may describe integrity, ensuring data remains unaltered. Another may describe authenticity, validating identity but not ensuring access. Only answer B focuses on maintaining timely access to resources.
Availability strategies include fault-tolerant servers, redundant networking paths, RAID storage, UPS systems, disaster recovery procedures, and DDoS protection. Monitoring tools detect outages quickly, allowing rapid remediation. Maintenance schedules, patching, and updates must minimize downtime through careful planning.
Because answer B accurately identifies the principle of ensuring timely access to systems and data, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 86:
Which disaster recovery metric measures the maximum amount of tolerable data loss an organization can accept, defining how far back in time recovered data may need to be restored after an outage?
A) RTO
B) MTBF
C) MTTR
D) RPO
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it identifies the metric used to determine how much data an organization can afford to lose following a disruption. SSCP candidates must understand this measurement because it guides decisions about backup frequency, replication strategies, retention policies, and overall disaster recovery planning. Organizations rely on this metric to balance cost, performance, risk tolerance, and operational continuity.
To understand why D is correct, consider what the metric represents. It defines the point in time to which data must be restored after an incident. If an organization sets its threshold to one hour, it means that backup or replication solutions must ensure no more than one hour of data is lost during recovery. This metric directly influences how often data is backed up and how replication systems are configured. A lower tolerance requires more frequent backups or continuous data protection, increasing costs and infrastructure requirements.
Comparing D with alternative choices clarifies why the others are incorrect. One option may refer to recovery time objectives, which measure how quickly systems must be restored, not how much data can be lost. Another option may describe maximum tolerable downtime, which refers to how long systems can be unavailable. Another option may describe service-level agreements, which outline contractual expectations rather than data loss tolerance. Only answer D directly relates to allowable data loss.
This metric impacts technical and business planning. For example, a financial trading platform may require a near-zero tolerance because even seconds of lost data could mean significant financial impact. In contrast, a small retail business may tolerate several hours of data loss depending on transaction volume. SSCP candidates must recognize that disaster recovery strategies must be tailored based on business functions and risk analysis.
Replication strategies such as synchronous or asynchronous replication are influenced by this tolerance. Synchronous replication supports near-zero tolerance by ensuring data is immediately written to remote systems. However, it introduces latency and requires robust bandwidth. Asynchronous replication is more cost-effective but allows a lag in data synchronization, thus increasing potential data loss.
Backup frequency is also governed by this threshold. If an organization performs nightly backups, it may lose up to 24 hours of data during an outage unless additional protections are in place. To reduce loss, incremental or continuous backups are needed. Cloud backup technologies and snapshot-based systems can also support tighter tolerance requirements.
Setting this metric too aggressively increases complexity and cost. Setting it too high increases risk and potential financial impact. Organizations must conduct business impact analyses to determine acceptable thresholds. They must also regularly test recovery procedures to ensure their actual data loss aligns with documented expectations.
Because answer D defines the maximum tolerable data loss that influences backup and recovery architecture, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 87:
Which wireless attack involves an attacker creating a fraudulent access point that mimics a legitimate one, tricking users into connecting and exposing their data?
A) Jamming Attack
B) Evil Twin Attack
C) Deauthentication Attack
D) Bluejacking
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it identifies the type of wireless attack where attackers set up a rogue access point designed to resemble a legitimate network. SSCP candidates must understand this threat because many users unknowingly connect to such networks, believing they are genuine. Once connected, attackers can intercept traffic, capture credentials, inject malicious content, or reposition users into man-in-the-middle attacks.
Understanding why B is correct requires exploring how this attack works. Attackers configure a wireless access point using a name identical or nearly identical to a legitimate one. In public environments such as airports, hotels, or cafés, users often select networks based on convenience, making them vulnerable. The attacker’s access point broadcasts a stronger signal or uses enticing names to attract connections. Once connected, traffic flows through the attacker’s device, allowing direct observation or manipulation.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe jamming attacks, which disrupt communication rather than imitate legitimate networks. Another may describe deauthentication attacks, which force devices offline but do not impersonate networks. Another may describe replay attacks, which resend captured traffic but do not involve fake access points. Only answer B involves creating a fraudulent access point.
This attack facilitates credential harvesting, session hijacking, malware injection, DNS spoofing, and other high-impact compromises. Attackers can redirect victims to fake login pages to collect passwords. They may also downgrade encryption or strip HTTPS protections if the user’s device is not configured securely.
SSCP candidates must recognize how to defend against such attacks. Organizations should implement strong authentication methods such as WPA2-Enterprise or WPA3, which require certificate validation rather than relying solely on network names. Users must be trained to verify networks before connecting. Devices should be configured to avoid auto-connecting to unknown networks. Advanced wireless intrusion detection systems can identify rogue access points in enterprise environments.
Because answer B accurately describes the attack involving fraudulent access points, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 88:
Which secure software development practice involves reviewing source code manually or with automated tools to identify vulnerabilities, insecure logic, or coding errors?
A) Code Review
B) Penetration Testing
C) Dynamic Analysis
D) Fuzz Testing
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it refers to the process that examines software source code to detect security weaknesses, bugs, flaws in logic, and poor coding practices. SSCP candidates must understand this practice because insecure code is one of the leading sources of exploitable vulnerabilities in applications. Conducting thorough reviews helps prevent security issues before they reach production environments.
Understanding why A is correct requires analyzing how code reviews operate. They can be conducted manually by skilled developers or automatically by specialized scanning tools. Manual reviews allow experts to detect subtle logic flaws, insecure design patterns, or improper handling of inputs. Automated tools identify common vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows, SQL injection, cross-site scripting, insecure API usage, and deprecated functions. Combining both methods provides the highest assurance.
Comparing A with alternative answers clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe penetration testing, which tests running applications but does not examine source code. Another may describe threat modeling, which identifies design risks but not coding-level flaws. Another may describe fuzz testing, which injects random inputs rather than reviewing code directly. Only answer A examines the source code itself.
Code reviews improve software quality and reduce vulnerabilities early, when remediation is cheaper. They also support secure development lifecycles and compliance with standards such as PCI DSS, ISO 27034, and NIST guidelines. Organizations benefit from discovering issues before attackers can exploit them.
Reviewers focus on areas such as input validation, authentication logic, cryptographic usage, error handling, memory management, and secure configuration defaults. They also ensure secure coding guidelines are followed. Automated tools complement manual efforts by scanning large codebases quickly and identifying known patterns.
Because answer A refers to analyzing source code to detect vulnerabilities, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 89:
Which physical security measure detects unauthorized attempts to open, access, or tamper with sensitive equipment by triggering alerts when enclosures are disturbed?
A) Motion Sensors
B) CCTV
C) Tamper Detection
D) Security Guards
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it describes the devices that detect physical interference with protected equipment. SSCP candidates must understand this measure because tampering, unauthorized access, and theft are significant risks in environments housing sensitive hardware such as servers, routers, and critical infrastructure components. These sensors provide early warning signs of physical intrusion attempts.
Understanding why C is correct begins with how these devices work. They detect changes such as opening of panels, removal of covers, vibration, or breakage of protective seals. When the enclosure is disturbed, the sensor triggers an alert, logs the event, or initiates automated protective actions. These sensors are critical for preventing unauthorized access to internal components that could lead to hardware damage, data theft, or disruption of services.
Comparing C with alternative answers clarifies why they fail. One option may describe motion detectors, which cover room-level movement rather than device-specific tampering. Another may describe surveillance cameras, which record activity but do not detect direct manipulation. Another may describe access control systems that regulate entry into rooms but not interference with equipment itself. Only answer C monitors physical tampering at the device level.
These sensors are used in server rooms, data centers, telecommunications closets, and industrial control systems. They help detect malicious insiders, unauthorized maintenance activities, and sabotage attempts. They may integrate with alarm systems, monitoring dashboards, or automated shutdown mechanisms.
SSCP candidates must recognize that tamper detection is part of layered physical security. Even if someone bypasses access control doors, additional protection exists around individual devices. These sensors complement locks, surveillance, identification badges, and environmental controls.
Because answer C refers to sensors that detect unauthorized physical access or tampering with equipment, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 90:
Which type of backup method stores all files that have changed since the last full backup, requiring only the full backup and the latest differential backup to perform a restoration?
A) Full Backup
B) Differential Backup
C) Incremental Backup
D) Snapshot Backup
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it identifies the backup type that captures all changes made since the last full backup, regardless of how many times backups have been performed afterward. SSCP candidates must understand this method because it represents a balanced approach between storage efficiency and restoration speed. Organizations often choose this method when restoration simplicity is more important than minimizing storage usage.
Understanding why B is correct involves analyzing how this backup type functions. After a full backup is taken, each subsequent differential backup saves all files modified since that full backup. Unlike incremental backups, which only store changes since the last incremental, differential backups grow progressively larger over time. However, restoration requires only two backups: the most recent full backup and the most recent differential backup. This simplifies recovery, reduces dependency on multiple backup sets, and minimizes the risk of restoration failure due to missing files.
Comparing B with alternative answers highlights their shortcomings. One option may describe incremental backups, which are more storage-efficient but require multiple backup sets during restoration. Another may describe full backups, which copy everything every time but consume significant storage. Another option may describe continuous data protection, which captures real-time changes rather than changes since a full backup. Only answer B correctly describes storing all changes since the last full backup.
This backup method is ideal for organizations wanting a faster recovery process. During disaster recovery, administrators only need to apply the full backup followed by the latest differential. This reduces the time required to restore systems and avoids chain dependencies common with incremental methods.
Differential backups work well with systems where data changes regularly but not constantly. They strike a balance between speed, storage, and complexity. Administrators must monitor storage usage because differential backups grow larger as time progresses. Regular full backups reset the size and allow differential backups to remain manageable.
Because answer B describes the method that stores all changes since the last full backup and simplifies restoration, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 91:
Which identity management principle ensures that user access rights are reviewed and revalidated periodically to prevent privilege creep and unauthorized access?
A) Least Privilege
B) Need to Know
C) Access Recertification
D) Separation of Duties
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it describes the process in which an organization regularly evaluates and confirms user access permissions to ensure they still align with current job roles, responsibilities, and organizational needs. SSCP candidates must fully understand this principle because access rights naturally evolve over time as employees shift positions, take on new responsibilities, or leave the organization. Without periodic revalidation, privileges may accumulate unnecessarily, creating security gaps known as privilege creep.
Understanding why C is correct begins with the concept of lifecycle-based access management. When a user joins an organization, they receive initial permissions. Over time, their role may change, but their permissions may not be adjusted accordingly unless a formal review process exists. Periodic revalidation ensures that each user retains only what they need and removes permissions that no longer match their role. This strengthens the principle of least privilege and maintains proper separation of duties.
Comparing C with alternative answers clarifies their differences. One option may describe provisioning, which grants access but does not ensure ongoing accuracy. Another may refer to authentication, which verifies identity but does not address whether access rights are appropriate. Another may describe role mapping, which assigns roles but does not ensure they remain correct over time. Only answer C focuses on regularly confirming proper access rights.
Periodic revalidation is essential for compliance frameworks like PCI DSS, HIPAA, SOX, ISO 27001, and NIST. Regulators require organizations to demonstrate that permissions are justified and continuously monitored. Effective reviews prevent unauthorized access to financial systems, patient records, intellectual property, or administrative consoles.
Technology helps support this principle. Identity governance tools can automate reporting, flag outdated privileges, highlight anomalies, and enforce workflow-based approvals. They provide dashboards for managers to confirm whether users still need access. These systems also track audit trails to document compliance.
Failure to review access can lead to significant risks. An employee who changes departments might retain access to sensitive systems. A former contractor’s access might accidentally remain active. Dormant accounts may become targets for attackers. Privileged accounts may retain unnecessary administrative permissions. Periodic reviews eliminate these risks.
Because answer C describes the practice of periodically validating user access rights to prevent privilege creep, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 92:
Which security mechanism ensures that log files cannot be altered without detection, thereby preserving the integrity of audit trails for investigations and compliance?
A) Immutable Logs
B) Debug Logging
C) Error Logging
D) Transaction Logs
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it identifies the mechanism used to protect log integrity by making unauthorized modifications detectable. SSCP candidates must recognize this as a critical control because logs are one of the most valuable sources of forensic evidence. Attackers often try to alter or delete logs to remove traces of their activity. This security control ensures that any tampering attempts become evident.
Understanding why A is correct involves examining how tamper-evident protections work. Organizations may apply cryptographic signatures, hashing, write-once storage, or secure logging protocols that detect or prevent unauthorized modification. By applying a hash to each log entry or log file, any alteration to the data results in a mismatched hash value. This provides strong assurance that the log content remains intact.
Comparing A with alternative answers reveals why they are incorrect. One option may describe encryption, which protects confidentiality but not integrity. Another may describe access control, which restricts access but cannot ensure that modifications would be detectable. Another may describe compression, which has no security relevance. Only answer A focuses specifically on making tampering detectable.
Tamper-evident logging is essential for internal investigations. When incidents occur, investigators must rely on accurate timestamps, authentication attempts, system events, and network activity records. If logs are unreliable, determining the root cause becomes difficult. Many compliance regulations mandate protected logs to ensure accountability.
Organizations use various methods to achieve tamper evidence. Immutable storage solutions prevent modifications entirely. Blockchain-like chaining of log entries allows any altered entry to break the chain. Centralized logging systems prevent local modification. Hash verification ensures that records remain unchanged. Digital signatures protect logs collected across distributed systems.
SSCP candidates should understand that logs must be protected in transit and at rest. Transmission must be encrypted to prevent interception. Access controls ensure only authorized personnel can view logs. Monitoring systems can alert when log modification attempts occur.
Because answer A describes a mechanism that ensures unauthorized log changes are detectable, preserving integrity, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 93:
Which incident response phase involves containing an active threat by isolating affected systems, stopping ongoing damage, and preventing further compromise?
A) Identification
B) Recovery
C) Eradication
D) Containment
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it identifies the phase in which organizations act swiftly to limit the spread and impact of an incident. SSCP candidates must understand this phase because it is critical for preventing escalation, data loss, and operational disruption. Containment strategies buy time for teams to analyze the situation and develop a safe eradication plan.
Understanding why D is correct requires reviewing how containment operates during incidents. Once an attack is detected, responders must isolate affected systems, disable compromised accounts, block malicious traffic, take systems offline if needed, and prevent further lateral movement. Containment can be short-term or long-term depending on severity and risk. Short-term strategies include disconnecting systems from networks, while long-term strategies may involve applying temporary patches or filtering malicious traffic.
Comparing D with the alternative answers shows why they fail. One option may describe identification, which only detects the incident. Another may describe eradication, which removes the threat but occurs later. Another may describe recovery, which restores normal operations. Only answer D focuses specifically on preventing further spread.
Containment requires careful planning. Removing systems too quickly may alert attackers or disrupt critical operations. Waiting too long may allow attackers to escalate privileges, exfiltrate data, or deploy ransomware. Responders must balance urgency with strategic control.
Containment strategies depend on the type of attack. Malware outbreaks may require disconnecting infected endpoints. Network intrusions may require blocking malicious IP addresses. Insider threats might require disabling user accounts. Cloud-based incidents may require revoking tokens or isolating virtual machines.
Organizations document containment procedures in incident response playbooks. Tools such as endpoint detection and response solutions automate isolation. Network segmentation, access controls, and intrusion prevention systems help limit the spread of threats.
Because answer D describes the phase dedicated to containing and limiting active threats, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 94:
Which risk management strategy involves acknowledging a risk without taking immediate action to mitigate it, often because the cost of control outweighs the potential impact?
A) Risk Mitigation
B) Risk Acceptance
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Transfer
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it refers to the strategy in which organizations formally recognize a risk but decide not to reduce it immediately. SSCP candidates must understand this approach because not all risks are equal. Some pose minimal impact, some are too costly to mitigate, and others cannot be eliminated. This strategy is used when accepting a level of exposure makes more business sense than applying expensive controls.
Understanding why B is correct begins with the decision-making process behind risk acceptance. Organizations conduct risk assessments to evaluate likelihood, impact, and threat exposure. When a risk is determined to be low or when mitigation costs exceed potential damage, leadership may choose to accept it. This requires documented approval, monitoring, and periodic review to ensure conditions do not change.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies why they are wrong. One option may describe risk mitigation, where organizations apply controls to reduce risk. Another may describe risk transfer, where risk is shifted to another party through insurance or outsourcing. Another may describe risk avoidance, where the risky activity is eliminated entirely. Only answer B describes accepting risk without altering exposure.
Risk acceptance is common in smaller organizations with limited budgets. It is also used when risks are unavoidable, such as natural disasters or rare system failures. Organizations must ensure acceptance decisions are made by appropriate authorities and documented for audit purposes.
Even accepted risks must be monitored. Conditions may change, raising the risk level. New threats may emerge, or systems may become more critical. Periodic re-evaluation ensures accepted risks remain acceptable.
Because answer B describes acknowledging risk without taking mitigation action, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 95:
Which access control concept assigns users to predefined groups or roles, with permissions inherited based on group membership rather than individual configuration?
A) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
C) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
D) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it describes the access control model in which permissions are managed at the group or role level. SSCP candidates must understand this approach because it simplifies administration, reduces errors, enforces consistency, and supports least privilege. Instead of assigning permissions individually, administrators assign users to groups that contain the required access rights.
Understanding why A is correct begins with recognizing how group-based access works. Permissions are assigned to groups such as finance, HR, developers, managers, or support staff. Users who join or leave a department are simply added or removed from the appropriate group. This ensures permissions remain consistent and business-aligned.
Comparing A with other options reveals why they fail. One option may describe discretionary access control, where users determine permissions on assets they own. Another may refer to mandatory access control, which uses classifications and labels. Another may describe attribute-based access control, which uses dynamic attributes. Only answer A focuses on permissions through predefined groups.
Group-based access reduces administrative workload, minimizes privilege creep, and supports audits. It also integrates well with centralized identity systems such as Active Directory. Administrators can easily manage permissions through group policies, ensuring that users have exactly the access they require.
Because answer A describes assigning permissions through group membership rather than individual configuration, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 96:
Which security testing method evaluates an organization’s resilience by having authorized testers attempt to exploit vulnerabilities without being given internal knowledge, simulating an external attacker’s perspective?
A) White-Box Testing
B) Gray-Box Testing
C) Vulnerability Scanning
D) Black-Box Testing
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer D is correct because it describes a security testing method in which evaluators are placed in a position similar to that of an outsider with no internal privileges or insider information. SSCP candidates must understand this testing approach because it simulates the conditions of real-world attack attempts carried out by adversaries who do not have legitimate access or insider intelligence. This method allows organizations to measure their ability to detect, endure, and respond to external threat actors.
To understand why D is correct, we must analyze the structure and intent of this testing model. In this scenario, the testers receive no credentials, no user accounts, and no architectural details regarding the target environment. They must rely on publicly available information, reconnaissance, social engineering possibilities, and real-world exploitation techniques. This testing approach seeks to uncover whether systems exposed to the internet have exploitable weaknesses, misconfigurations, or insufficient protections.
Comparing D to the alternative answer choices clarifies why the others are inappropriate. One option may describe internal testing, where evaluators have privileged access. Another may describe vulnerability scanning, which only scans systems but does not exploit weaknesses. Another option may describe code review, which analyzes source code and not external attack surfaces. Only answer D focuses on simulating adversaries with no insider knowledge.
The goal of this approach is to identify weaknesses in perimeter defenses such as firewalls, exposed ports, public-facing services, web applications, DNS configurations, authentication portals, and API endpoints. Attackers who approach networks externally often begin with open-source intelligence gathering, learning as much as possible from public records, search engine caches, domain registration information, employee social profiles, leaked credentials, or exposed cloud buckets. This testing method mirrors that behavior to uncover vulnerabilities before malicious actors find them.
This testing model also evaluates detection and monitoring capabilities. An effective security posture requires not only preventing attacks but also detecting attempts when they occur. External testing may reveal gaps in intrusion detection systems, firewall logging, alerting mechanisms, or SOC procedures. Organizations can use these insights to strengthen response readiness.
SSCP candidates must also understand the importance of scope definitions, permissions, and legal authorizations. External-style testing must be formally approved through written agreements to ensure testers do not violate laws or breach systems unintentionally. Engagement rules specify what testers can target, what techniques are allowed, and what systems should remain untouched.
Benefits of this testing include uncovering vulnerabilities unknown to internal teams, assessing real-world exposure, identifying weak configurations, uncovering insecure public interfaces, and validating overall external security posture. However, it may not uncover internal weaknesses or lateral movement vulnerabilities because testers are restricted to external access.
Because answer D identifies the security testing method in which authorized testers adopt an external attacker’s perspective without internal knowledge, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 97:
Which network device filters traffic based on defined rules and can segment network zones, enforce access policies, and block unauthorized communication attempts?
A) Firewall
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Load Balancer
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it refers to the device used to enforce security policies by allowing or denying traffic between networks. SSCP candidates must recognize this device as one of the most essential components of network defense. By filtering traffic using rule sets based on IP addresses, ports, protocols, and other criteria, it provides controlled connectivity while reducing exposure to unauthorized activity.
Understanding why A is correct requires examining the role such devices play in network design. They serve as the gatekeepers between internal networks, external networks, and segmented zones. Administrators create rules defining which traffic is permitted, denied, or logged. These rules can restrict access to critical servers, isolate sensitive segments, and enforce least privilege at the network level.
Comparing A with other options explains why they are incorrect. One option may describe switches, which move traffic but do not enforce policy-based packet filtering. Another may describe routers, which forward packets based on addressing but lack security filtering unless combined with advanced features. Another may describe intrusion detection systems, which observe traffic but cannot block it. Only answer A refers to the device built specifically to filter traffic according to access rules.
This device supports zoning strategies such as DMZs, internal segments, and restricted domains. It enforces boundaries between user networks, application networks, management networks, cloud connectors, and public-facing systems. SSCP candidates must understand that without this control, networks would be flat and far more vulnerable to lateral movement by attackers.
Modern versions also support stateful inspection, recognizing established connections and making decisions based on context. Many incorporate advanced features such as packet inspection, VPN support, NAT, and logging capabilities. They provide the foundation for building secure network topologies and are required in compliance frameworks.
Deployment must be carefully planned. Misconfigured rules can inadvertently expose systems, block critical services, or create blind spots. Continuous monitoring, rule audits, and configuration management ensure that rule sets remain aligned with business needs and security objectives.
Because answer A identifies the essential device that filters and controls network traffic based on rules, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 98:
Which principle ensures that individuals cannot complete a high-risk or sensitive process alone, reducing fraud, misuse, and unauthorized actions?
A) Least Privilege
B) Separation of Duties
C) Need to Know
D) Dual Control
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer B is correct because it describes the security principle where no single individual is allowed complete control over critical processes. SSCP candidates must understand this concept because it reduces the likelihood of malicious actions, insider threats, accidental misuse, and undetected fraud. Requiring multiple participants to complete important tasks provides oversight, accountability, and enhanced security.
To understand why B is correct, consider processes such as financial approvals, administrative account activation, encryption key handling, system configuration changes, and high-level access grants. If one individual could perform all steps, that person would have unchecked authority and opportunity for abuse. By distributing responsibilities, organizations prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions.
Comparing B with alternative answers clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe least privilege, which limits access but does not require multiple individuals. Another option may describe job rotation, which reduces fraud by moving employees periodically but does not require cooperative action. Another may describe mandatory vacation, which detects misuse but does not involve shared authority. Only answer B directly addresses requiring multiple people to complete a task.
This principle also improves compliance. Many regulatory frameworks, especially in finance, healthcare, and government, require separation of duties as a core safeguard. Systems must be configured to enforce it through workflow controls, approval mechanisms, and access restrictions.
Because answer B describes the principle requiring multiple individuals to complete sensitive tasks, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 99:
Which operational security practice ensures that critical systems remain functional by replacing failing components or activating redundant systems without interrupting service?
A) Change Control
B) Configuration Management
C) Fault Tolerance
D) Business Continuity Planning
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer C is correct because it refers to the operational practice that maintains continuous system availability during component failures or maintenance activities. SSCP candidates must understand this concept because many business operations depend on uninterrupted computing services. Failure to maintain availability can lead to lost productivity, damaged reputation, regulatory issues, or financial losses.
Understanding why C is correct begins with examining how redundancy is used to support continuous operations. Redundant systems may include duplicate hardware components, parallel servers, clustered environments, redundant network paths, mirrored storage, or failover mechanisms. When a component fails, a backup element automatically activates, allowing the system to continue functioning without user disruption.
Comparing C with alternative choices clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe incident response, which addresses issues after they occur. Another may refer to preventive maintenance, which reduces failures but does not guarantee no downtime. Another may describe backup strategies, which restore data but do not ensure continuous real-time operation. Only answer C describes maintaining system functionality even during hardware or service failures.
Operational continuity relies on technologies such as high availability clusters, load balancers, RAID storage, redundant power supplies, multiple ISPs, and geographically dispersed data centers. Organizations implement heartbeat monitoring to detect failures instantly and trigger failover processes. These systems must be regularly tested to ensure failover operations occur smoothly.
SSCP candidates must recognize that redundancy alone is insufficient. Systems must also be configured to switch over automatically, synchronize data between active and standby components, and prevent split-brain conditions. Monitoring systems must track the health of all components and alert administrators to failures requiring replacement.
Because answer C refers to maintaining system operation through redundant components and failover systems, it is the correct answer.
QUESTION 100:
Which data classification level applies to information that, if disclosed, would cause minimal harm but should still be protected from general public access?
A) Internal
B) Public
C) Confidential
D) Restricted
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct because it describes the classification level assigned to information that is not highly sensitive but still requires protection from unauthorized access. SSCP candidates must understand classification levels because organizations use them to prioritize access control, implement protection requirements, and guide employee handling of information.
Understanding why A is correct requires analyzing the typical classification hierarchy used by many organizations. Categories often include public, internal, confidential, and highly sensitive or restricted information. Public data can be freely shared without harm. Highly sensitive data requires strict controls. The classification referred to in the question applies to data that does not rise to the level of confidential or proprietary but still should not be widely disclosed.
Comparing A with alternative choices clarifies why they are incorrect. One option may describe public data, which can be openly disclosed and does not require protection. Another option may describe confidential or restricted data, which requires strong protective measures. Another may describe top-secret or highly classified categories used in government contexts. Only answer A refers to information that is moderately sensitive and not meant for public release.
This classification often applies to internal policy documents, employee directories, operational procedures, internal communications, and administrative data. Unauthorized disclosure could result in minor competitive disadvantages, minor operational disruptions, or reputational impacts. While not catastrophic, such exposure still needs to be prevented.
Access controls for this classification typically include limiting access to employees, applying basic authentication controls, and restricting sharing outside the organization unless approved. Encryption, logging, and monitoring may also apply depending on the environment.
Because answer A refers to the classification level used for information requiring modest but necessary protection, it is the correct choice.
