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Question 101
A database administrator needs to implement a solution that allows applications to read from a secondary replica to offload read-only queries from the primary database. Which Azure SQL Database feature provides this capability?
A) Read Scale-Out
B) Write-only mode
C) Disabling all read operations
D) Manual data copying
Answer: A
Explanation:
Read Scale-Out enables applications to offload read-only workloads to secondary replicas in Premium and Business Critical tiers. This feature uses built-in high availability replicas for read operations by routing connections with ApplicationIntent=ReadOnly to secondary replicas. Primary replicas handle write operations and read-write queries while secondary replicas serve read-only requests. This architecture improves performance by distributing workload, increases scalability by utilizing replica resources, and maintains high availability since replicas already exist for failover purposes. No additional cost is incurred as replicas are part of the service tier.
B is incorrect because write-only mode would prevent all read operations, making databases unusable for applications needing to query data. Databases must support read operations for most applications. The scenario specifically requires reading from replicas to offload queries, not eliminating read capability. Write-only mode contradicts the fundamental requirement of serving read queries. Applications need balanced read and write access, with read scale-out optimizing read performance.
C is incorrect because disabling read operations would make databases completely unusable for queries and reporting. The requirement is distributing read load across replicas to improve performance, not eliminating read access. Applications depend on reading data for display, reporting, and business logic. Disabling reads contradicts operational requirements. Read scale-out enhances read capabilities by adding capacity through replicas rather than restricting access.
D is incorrect because manual data copying creates stale data copies requiring synchronization overhead and doesn’t provide the automatic, consistent replica access that Read Scale-Out offers. Manual copies lag behind primary data, potentially serving outdated information. Maintaining multiple manual copies is operationally complex and error-prone. Read Scale-Out uses high availability replicas that synchronously or asynchronously replicate data, ensuring consistency while offloading read workload. Manual copying is inferior to built-in replica features.
Question 102
An organization needs to implement cross-database queries to join data from multiple Azure SQL databases. Which deployment option natively supports cross-database queries?
A) Azure SQL Managed Instance
B) Azure SQL Database single database without elastic queries
C) Blob storage only
D) Local SQL Server without Azure connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure SQL Managed Instance natively supports cross-database queries within the same instance using three-part naming convention (database.schema.table). Managed Instance provides SQL Server compatibility including cross-database queries, distributed transactions, linked servers, and CLR integration. Applications can join tables from different databases, execute stored procedures across databases, and implement cross-database referential integrity. This compatibility simplifies migration from on-premises SQL Server where cross-database queries are commonly used without requiring application modifications or alternative architectures.
B is incorrect because Azure SQL Database single database doesn’t natively support cross-database queries within traditional three-part naming. While elastic database queries enable cross-database access through external tables and remote connections, this requires additional configuration and doesn’t provide the same seamless experience as Managed Instance. Single database is optimized for independent databases with external dependencies minimized. Cross-database functionality requires specific configurations like elastic queries or moving to Managed Instance.
C is incorrect because blob storage stores unstructured data like files and images but doesn’t provide relational database capabilities or SQL query support. Blob storage cannot execute joins, implement referential integrity, or support transactional queries. While blob storage integrates with SQL databases for specific scenarios, it doesn’t replace database functionality for cross-database queries. This answer confuses storage services with database platforms that support SQL operations.
D is incorrect because local SQL Server without Azure connectivity cannot access Azure SQL databases for cross-database queries. The scenario specifically addresses Azure SQL database deployments requiring cloud-based solutions. On-premises SQL Server operates in different environments without direct integration to Azure SQL databases unless connectivity is established. Cross-database queries in Azure require Azure-based deployments like Managed Instance with proper network configuration.
Question 103
A company needs to implement automated patching and updates for their Azure SQL environment without manual intervention. Which statement about automated patching is correct?
A) Azure SQL Database and Managed Instance receive automatic patches during maintenance windows
B) All patches require manual download and installation
C) Patching is never performed
D) Customers must manage operating system patches
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure SQL Database and Managed Instance receive automatic patches during configurable maintenance windows without requiring manual intervention. Microsoft manages operating system updates, SQL engine patches, and security updates as part of the PaaS offering. Maintenance windows can be configured to align with business schedules, minimizing impact during critical periods. Azure ensures patches are tested and rolled out gradually to maintain service reliability. Automated patching reduces administrative overhead, ensures security updates are applied promptly, and eliminates risks associated with manual patching processes.
B is incorrect because Azure SQL Database and Managed Instance are PaaS services where Microsoft handles all patching automatically. Manual downloading and installation contradict the fundamental PaaS model where infrastructure management is abstracted from customers. Automated patching is a key benefit differentiating cloud databases from on-premises SQL Server requiring manual patch management. Customers configure preferences through maintenance windows but don’t perform actual patching operations.
C is incorrect because regular patching is essential for security and reliability, and Microsoft actively maintains Azure SQL services through continuous updates. Unpatched systems accumulate vulnerabilities and bugs over time. Microsoft invests significantly in automated patch management ensuring Azure SQL remains secure and current. Statement suggesting patches are never performed contradicts Microsoft’s operational practices and PaaS service commitments to customers.
D is incorrect because customers don’t manage operating system patches in Azure SQL Database or Managed Instance PaaS environments. Microsoft manages the entire infrastructure stack including operating systems, storage, networking, and SQL engine. This separation of responsibilities is fundamental to PaaS, where customers focus on database design and application development while Microsoft handles infrastructure. OS patch management is specifically within Microsoft’s responsibility, not customer’s.
Question 104
An administrator needs to configure intelligent threat detection to identify suspicious database activities and potential security threats. Which Azure SQL security feature provides this capability?
A) Azure Defender for SQL (Advanced Threat Protection)
B) Manual log review only
C) No threat detection available
D) Email filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Defender for SQL provides intelligent threat detection using machine learning to identify suspicious activities like SQL injection attempts, anomalous database access patterns, brute force attacks, and potential data exfiltration. Defender analyzes database telemetry continuously, detecting unusual patterns that might indicate security threats. When threats are detected, security alerts are generated with details about suspicious activities and recommended remediation actions. Integration with Azure Security Center provides centralized security management across Azure resources. Threat detection operates continuously without performance impact, providing proactive security monitoring.
B is incorrect because manual log review is time-consuming, error-prone, and cannot match the sophisticated pattern recognition and real-time detection that automated threat detection provides. Security events can be subtle and distributed across thousands of log entries making manual analysis impractical. Manual review introduces delays between threat occurrence and detection, allowing attacks to progress. Modern security requires automated systems that continuously analyze activities and detect anomalies faster than human analysts can.
C is incorrect because Azure SQL explicitly provides comprehensive threat detection through Azure Defender for SQL. This statement contradicts available security features that Microsoft actively develops and promotes. Threat detection is critical for cloud security, and Azure invests significantly in advanced protection capabilities. Microsoft continuously enhances threat detection using global security intelligence and machine learning models trained on extensive datasets.
D is incorrect because email filtering protects against phishing and malicious email attachments but doesn’t monitor database activities or detect SQL-level threats. Email and database security operate in different domains addressing different attack vectors. While email security is important for overall organizational security, it cannot detect SQL injection, anomalous queries, or database-specific threats that Azure Defender identifies. Database threat detection requires analyzing SQL operations, not email traffic.
Question 105
A database administrator needs to implement a solution for distributing read-only reporting queries across multiple database replicas. Which Azure SQL feature enables distributing read queries to multiple replicas?
A) Active geo-replication with readable secondaries
B) Primary database only
C) Write replication only
D) No replication support
Answer: A
Explanation:
Active geo-replication creates readable secondary databases in same or different regions that can serve read-only queries. Up to four readable secondaries can be configured, distributing reporting workload across multiple replicas. Applications connect to secondaries using separate connection strings with ApplicationIntent=ReadOnly, offloading reports, analytics, and queries from primary databases. Geo-replication provides both disaster recovery through geographic redundancy and read scale-out for performance optimization. This architecture supports global applications with users in multiple regions accessing local replicas for reduced latency.
B is incorrect because using only the primary database without replicas means all queries compete for the same resources, potentially impacting transactional performance. The scenario specifically requires distributing queries across multiple replicas to balance load and improve overall system performance. Primary-only architecture cannot scale read workload beyond single database capacity. Organizations with heavy reporting or analytics workloads need replica distribution to maintain acceptable performance for both transactional and read-only operations.
C is incorrect because write operations always occur on primary databases, with replicas receiving changes through replication. Write replication describes data flow from primary to secondaries but doesn’t address the requirement for distributing read queries. The scenario focuses on read query distribution, not write replication. While write replication enables readable secondaries, the benefit comes from reading from replicas rather than the replication mechanism itself.
D is incorrect because Azure SQL Database explicitly supports multiple replication features including active geo-replication, read scale-out, and failover groups. This statement contradicts core Azure SQL capabilities that enable high availability, disaster recovery, and read scaling. Replication is fundamental to cloud database architectures, and Azure provides sophisticated replication options. Microsoft continuously enhances replication features to support diverse deployment scenarios and performance requirements.
Question 106
An organization needs to monitor database performance metrics including DTU utilization, CPU percentage, and storage consumption. Which Azure service provides comprehensive database monitoring?
A) Azure Monitor with database metrics and logs
B) Email client monitoring
C) No monitoring capability
D) Manual spreadsheet tracking
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Monitor provides comprehensive database monitoring by collecting metrics like DTU or vCore utilization, CPU percentage, storage consumption, connection counts, and query performance statistics. Metrics are visualized through Azure portal dashboards, analyzed using metric explorer, and used to configure alerts for threshold breaches. Diagnostic logs can be streamed to Log Analytics workspaces for advanced querying and long-term retention. Azure Monitor integrates with Application Insights and other monitoring tools for end-to-end application and database monitoring. This platform provides enterprise-grade observability for Azure SQL environments.
B is incorrect because email clients display messages but have no capability to collect, visualize, or analyze database performance metrics. Email might receive alert notifications about performance issues, but monitoring requires specialized systems that collect telemetry, store time-series data, and provide analysis tools. Email infrastructure operates independently of database monitoring. While alerts can be sent via email, the monitoring platform itself is Azure Monitor, not email clients.
C is incorrect because Azure SQL Database provides extensive built-in monitoring through Azure Monitor, Query Performance Insight, Query Store, and other tools. This statement contradicts Azure’s comprehensive monitoring capabilities that are fundamental to cloud database management. Microsoft invests heavily in monitoring and observability features enabling customers to understand database behavior, optimize performance, and ensure availability. Monitoring is essential for operating production databases successfully.
D is incorrect because manual spreadsheet tracking cannot capture real-time metrics, provide historical analysis, or implement automated alerting that Azure Monitor delivers. Manually recording metrics periodically misses important events, provides coarse granularity, and doesn’t scale. Modern cloud databases generate massive telemetry volumes requiring automated collection and analysis. Spreadsheets are inadequate for enterprise database monitoring requiring real-time visibility, alerting, and integration with operational workflows.
Question 107
A company needs to implement database change tracking to identify modified rows for incremental data synchronization. Which SQL feature captures information about insert, update, and delete operations?
A) Change Tracking
B) Deleting all data
C) Disabling all modifications
D) No change detection available
Answer: A
Explanation:
Change Tracking is a lightweight mechanism that records which rows were inserted, updated, or deleted without capturing actual column values. Change Tracking maintains synchronization information identifying changed rows since last synchronization point using version numbers. Applications query change tracking tables to identify modified rows, then retrieve current data as needed. This approach is more efficient than timestamp columns or triggers for synchronization scenarios. Change Tracking supports bidirectional synchronization, conflict detection, and minimal overhead compared to full audit trails or change data capture.
B is incorrect because deleting all data destroys information rather than tracking changes for synchronization purposes. The requirement is identifying changes to synchronize data incrementally, not eliminating data. Data deletion results in permanent loss contradicting synchronization objectives. Change tracking preserves data while recording modification history enabling efficient synchronization between databases or systems without transferring entire datasets repeatedly.
C is incorrect because disabling modifications prevents normal database operations and contradicts the purpose of change tracking which monitors ongoing data modifications. Applications need to insert, update, and delete data as part of normal operations. Change tracking operates transparently alongside these operations, recording changes without interfering. Preventing modifications would make databases read-only and unusable for transactional applications requiring data changes.
D is incorrect because Azure SQL Database provides multiple change detection mechanisms including Change Tracking, Change Data Capture, and temporal tables. This statement contradicts available features designed specifically for tracking database changes. Microsoft supports various change detection approaches for different use cases ranging from lightweight synchronization to detailed audit trails. Change detection is essential for modern applications implementing synchronization, caching, and audit requirements.
Question 108
An administrator needs to configure long-term retention (LTR) for Azure SQL Database backups to meet compliance requirements for keeping backups for 7 years. Which statement about LTR is correct?
A) LTR stores full backups for up to 10 years with weekly, monthly, or yearly retention policies
B) LTR maximum retention is 7 days
C) LTR only stores transaction log backups
D) LTR is not supported
Answer: A
Explanation:
Long-term retention stores full database backups for up to 10 years using configurable weekly, monthly, or yearly retention policies. LTR backups are separate from automated backups for point-in-time restore, serving compliance and archival purposes. Policies specify how many weekly, monthly, and yearly backups to retain, with Azure automatically managing backup lifecycle. LTR backups are stored in RA-GRS blob storage for durability and geographic redundancy. Administrators restore LTR backups to new databases when needed for compliance audits, historical analysis, or regulatory requirements.
B is incorrect because 7 days is the default retention for regular automated backups supporting point-in-time restore, not long-term retention. LTR specifically addresses requirements exceeding regular backup retention by storing backups for years rather than days. Confusing regular backup retention with LTR misunderstands the distinct purposes these features serve. Regular backups enable operational recovery while LTR addresses compliance and long-term archival needs.
C is incorrect because LTR stores full database backups, not transaction log backups. Full backups contain complete database copies suitable for long-term retention and compliance. Transaction logs are used with full and differential backups for point-in-time restore within regular retention periods but aren’t maintained in LTR. LTR focuses on periodic full backups that can be restored independently without requiring log chains.
D is incorrect because Azure SQL Database explicitly supports long-term retention as a built-in feature available for all service tiers. LTR addresses common compliance requirements like SOX, HIPAA, or financial regulations mandating multi-year backup retention. Microsoft designed LTR specifically for these scenarios, providing cost-effective long-term backup storage. This statement contradicts documented Azure SQL capabilities and compliance features.
Question 109
A database administrator needs to implement database-level encryption where encryption keys are managed by the customer. Which Azure feature enables customer-managed encryption keys?
A) Transparent Data Encryption with Azure Key Vault (Bring Your Own Key)
B) No encryption support
C) Plaintext storage only
D) Automatic key deletion
Answer: A
Explanation:
Transparent Data Encryption with Azure Key Vault enables customer-managed encryption keys through Bring Your Own Key capability. Customers create and manage TDE protectors in Key Vault, maintaining control over key lifecycle, access policies, and rotation schedules. Azure SQL Database encrypts data using database encryption keys, which are encrypted by customer-managed TDE protectors. This architecture provides separation of duties where Microsoft manages data operations while customers control encryption keys. Key Vault integration supports compliance requirements for customer-controlled encryption and enables key auditing through Key Vault logs.
B is incorrect because Azure SQL Database provides comprehensive encryption capabilities including automatic service-managed TDE and customer-managed keys through Key Vault. This statement contradicts fundamental Azure SQL security features. Encryption is critical for protecting data at rest, and Azure offers multiple encryption options meeting various compliance and security requirements. Microsoft continuously enhances encryption features to address evolving security standards and customer needs.
C is incorrect because plaintext storage without encryption violates security best practices and compliance requirements. TDE is enabled by default for new Azure SQL databases specifically to prevent plaintext storage. Unencrypted data exposes organizations to data breaches if storage media is compromised. Azure’s default encryption ensures data protection without requiring customer action. Plaintext storage represents unacceptable security posture for production databases containing sensitive information.
D is incorrect because automatic key deletion would cause data loss by making encrypted data unrecoverable. Encryption key management requires careful lifecycle management with retention policies preventing accidental deletion. Azure Key Vault implements soft delete and purge protection to prevent permanent key loss. Customer-managed keys provide control over key lifecycle while Azure prevents inadvertent deletion that would cause catastrophic data loss. Key management focuses on security and availability, never automatic deletion.
Question 110
An organization needs to implement database sharding to distribute data across multiple databases based on customer ID. Which component tracks which shard contains data for specific sharding key values?
A) Shard map manager
B) Email distribution list
C) No mapping support
D) Manual documentation only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Shard map manager maintains mappings between sharding key values and physical databases containing corresponding data. The shard map is stored in a dedicated management database, tracking which shards exist, their connection information, and key range assignments. Applications use elastic database client libraries to query shard maps, routing queries to appropriate databases transparently. Shard map manager supports split, merge, and rebalancing operations as data grows, maintaining mapping consistency during topology changes. This centralized coordination enables scalable sharded architectures with multiple databases.
B is incorrect because email distribution lists manage recipient groups for messaging but have no relationship to database sharding or data location tracking. Email operates in completely different domain from database architecture. Shard mapping requires programmatic access to routing information, real-time query routing, and transaction support that email systems cannot provide. This answer reflects fundamental confusion between communication tools and database infrastructure components.
C is incorrect because elastic database tools explicitly provide shard map management as a core feature enabling sharded architectures. Without shard mapping, applications couldn’t route queries to correct databases, making sharding implementations impossible. Microsoft designed shard map manager specifically to solve the routing and coordination challenges in sharded deployments. This statement contradicts documented capabilities of Azure SQL elastic database tools.
D is incorrect because manual documentation cannot provide the real-time, programmatic access to shard mapping that applications require. Manual documentation becomes outdated as shards are added, split, or merged. Applications need automated, consistent access to current shard topology through shard map APIs. Manual approaches don’t scale to production environments with frequent topology changes and high query volumes. Shard map manager provides the automated, reliable mapping infrastructure that manual documentation cannot deliver.
Question 111
A company needs to migrate an on-premises SQL Server database with minimal downtime using transactional replication. Which migration approach enables continuous replication during migration?
A) Transactional replication from on-premises to Azure SQL Managed Instance
B) Manual copy without replication
C) One-time export only
D) No migration support
Answer: A
Explanation:
Transactional replication from on-premises SQL Server to Azure SQL Managed Instance enables minimal-downtime migration through continuous data synchronization. Replication initially copies database schema and data, then continuously replicates changes from on-premises publisher to Managed Instance subscriber. Applications continue running against on-premises databases during synchronization. When replication catches up, a brief cutover switches applications to Managed Instance. This approach minimizes downtime to minutes rather than hours required for offline migrations. Transactional replication is supported specifically for migrations to Managed Instance.
B is incorrect because manual copying without replication requires taking databases offline or accepting data inconsistency. Manual copy captures point-in-time snapshots but doesn’t replicate ongoing changes occurring during migration. For large databases, copy operations take hours during which new data isn’t captured. This results in either extended downtime or data loss. The scenario specifically requires minimal downtime, which manual copying without continuous replication cannot achieve for production databases.
C is incorrect because one-time export creates static database copies without ongoing synchronization, resulting in significant downtime or data loss. Export operations capture current state but miss subsequent changes. Large databases require substantial time to export and import, during which applications cannot access data or changes are lost. One-time exports are suitable for development or small databases but inadequate for production migrations requiring minimal downtime. Continuous replication is necessary for large database migrations.
D is incorrect because Azure provides multiple migration tools and approaches including Azure Database Migration Service, transactional replication, backup/restore, and BACPAC export/import. This statement contradicts extensive migration support Microsoft offers through documentation, tools, and services. Microsoft invests significantly in simplifying migrations to Azure SQL, providing guided experiences and automated tools. Migration support is fundamental to Azure adoption strategy and continuously improving.
Question 112
An administrator needs to configure elastic pools to share resources across multiple Azure SQL databases. What is the primary benefit of using elastic pools?
A) Cost optimization by sharing DTUs or vCores across databases with varying usage patterns
B) Increasing costs unnecessarily
C) Isolating databases without resource sharing
D) Disabling all databases
Answer: A
Explanation:
Elastic pools optimize costs by sharing DTUs or vCores across multiple databases with varying usage patterns. Databases in pools consume resources as needed from shared allocation, enabling efficient utilization when databases peak at different times. This pooling reduces costs compared to individual databases each sized for peak load. Elastic pools are ideal for SaaS applications with multiple tenant databases, development environments, or any scenario with multiple databases having complementary usage patterns. Pools maintain individual database isolation while sharing underlying resources.
B is incorrect because elastic pools specifically reduce costs through resource sharing rather than increasing them. The economic model enables better resource utilization by allowing databases to share capacity, lowering overall costs compared to provisioning each database independently. Cost optimization is the primary driver for elastic pool adoption. Statement suggesting cost increases contradicts the fundamental purpose and value proposition of elastic pools.
C is incorrect because elastic pools enable resource sharing, not isolation of database resources. While databases remain logically isolated with separate data and security, they share physical resource pools. Resource sharing is the core concept enabling cost optimization. If databases required complete resource isolation, individual databases would be more appropriate than elastic pools. Pools benefit specifically from databases sharing rather than isolating resources.
D is incorrect because elastic pools enable databases to run normally while sharing resources, not disabling them. Databases in pools function identically to standalone databases from application perspectives. Pooling is a resource management strategy that doesn’t affect database availability or functionality. Disabling databases contradicts operational requirements and the purpose of elastic pools which is cost-effective database operation, not service disruption.
Question 113
A database administrator needs to implement automatic failover for Azure SQL Database during regional outages. Which configuration enables automatic failover to another region?
A) Failover groups with automatic failover policy
B) Manual connection string changes
C) No failover support
D) Deleting all databases
Answer: A
Explanation:
Failover groups enable automatic failover to secondary regions during outages by providing read-write and read-only listener endpoints that automatically redirect to current primary. Failover groups contain one or more databases that failover together as a unit, maintaining application consistency. Automatic failover policies detect primary region failures and automatically promote secondaries without manual intervention. Applications connect using listener endpoints that abstract physical database locations, eliminating need for connection string changes during failover. This architecture provides disaster recovery with minimal application impact and RTO measured in seconds.
B is incorrect because manual connection string changes during outages introduce delays, require application restarts, and depend on human intervention during critical incidents. Manual processes are error-prone during high-stress situations when rapid recovery is essential. Failover groups specifically eliminate manual intervention by providing listener endpoints that automatically redirect connections. The scenario requires automatic failover, which manual processes cannot deliver. Modern disaster recovery requires automation to meet aggressive RTO objectives.
C is incorrect because Azure SQL Database provides comprehensive failover capabilities through active geo-replication and failover groups. This statement contradicts core Azure SQL high availability and disaster recovery features. Microsoft designs Azure SQL for enterprise resilience with multiple mechanisms ensuring business continuity. Failover support is fundamental to cloud database offerings, and Azure provides sophisticated automated failover capabilities exceeding many on-premises implementations.
D is incorrect because deleting databases would cause permanent data loss rather than providing failover capability. Disaster recovery preserves data and maintains availability, opposite of deletion. This answer demonstrates fundamental misunderstanding of disaster recovery concepts. Failover maintains database availability by redirecting operations to healthy regions, preserving all data. Database deletion contradicts every disaster recovery and business continuity principle.
Question 114
An organization needs to implement memory-optimized tables to improve performance for high-throughput OLTP workloads. Which service tier supports in-memory OLTP?
A) Premium, Business Critical, and Hyperscale tiers
B) Basic tier only
C) No in-memory support
D) Standard tier exclusively
Answer: A
Explanation:
Premium, Business Critical, and Hyperscale tiers support in-memory OLTP through memory-optimized tables and natively compiled stored procedures. In-memory OLTP stores table data in memory rather than disk, eliminating I/O bottlenecks for read and write operations. Natively compiled procedures further optimize performance by compiling T-SQL to native code. This architecture dramatically improves throughput for high-concurrency OLTP workloads with frequent inserts, updates, and deletes. Memory-optimized objects persist to disk for durability while serving operations from memory for performance.
B is incorrect because Basic tier doesn’t support in-memory OLTP, providing only entry-level database capabilities for development, testing, or very small applications. Basic tier lacks advanced features including in-memory processing, available only in higher tiers. In-memory OLTP requires additional memory resources and sophisticated engine capabilities not included in Basic tier. Organizations needing in-memory performance must use Premium or Business Critical tiers.
C is incorrect because Azure SQL Database explicitly supports in-memory OLTP in Premium, Business Critical, and Hyperscale tiers. This statement contradicts documented capabilities and advanced features Microsoft provides for high-performance scenarios. In-memory OLTP is a significant differentiator for Azure SQL, enabling performance levels difficult to achieve with traditional disk-based storage. Microsoft invests in in-memory technologies to support demanding OLTP workloads.
D is incorrect because Standard tier doesn’t support in-memory OLTP features. While Standard tier provides good general-purpose performance, advanced features like memory-optimized tables require Premium or Business Critical tiers. Standard tier balances cost and performance for typical workloads without specialized optimization requirements. In-memory OLTP availability is specifically limited to higher tiers that include necessary memory and engine capabilities.
Question 115
A database administrator needs to configure advanced data security features including vulnerability assessment and data discovery & classification. Which security offering provides these capabilities?
A) Azure Defender for SQL
B) No security features available
C) Manual security reviews only
D) Email scanning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Defender for SQL provides advanced security including vulnerability assessment that scans databases for security misconfigurations and best practice violations, and data discovery & classification that identifies and tags sensitive data. Vulnerability assessment generates actionable recommendations for hardening database security, tracks compliance over time, and prioritizes remediation efforts. Data discovery automatically discovers sensitive data like credit cards, social security numbers, or personal information, applying classification labels for governance and compliance. These features work together providing comprehensive database security posture management.
B is incorrect because Azure SQL provides extensive security features through Azure Defender, auditing, threat detection, encryption, and access controls. This statement contradicts Microsoft’s significant investment in database security capabilities. Azure SQL offers enterprise-grade security features meeting stringent compliance requirements across industries. Security is fundamental to cloud database services, and Azure provides comprehensive protection mechanisms continuously enhanced to address evolving threats.
C is incorrect because while manual security reviews have value, they cannot match the continuous scanning, automatic discovery, and consistent assessment that Azure Defender provides. Manual reviews are point-in-time efforts missing issues between assessments and requiring specialized expertise. Azure Defender continuously monitors databases, applying consistent security standards and leveraging threat intelligence. Manual-only approaches are insufficient for modern security requirements needing continuous assessment and rapid threat detection.
D is incorrect because email scanning protects against email-borne threats but doesn’t assess database security posture or classify database data. Email and database security operate in different domains protecting different assets. While email security is important, it cannot identify database vulnerabilities, discover sensitive database data, or provide database-specific security recommendations. Database security requires specialized tools analyzing database configurations, permissions, and data content.
Question 116
An administrator needs to implement database-level firewall rules that allow access from Azure services while blocking external internet traffic. Which firewall configuration achieves this?
A) Enable “Allow Azure services and resources to access this server” with specific IP restrictions
B) Disable all network access
C) Allow all internet traffic without restrictions
D) No firewall capability available
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enabling “Allow Azure services and resources to access this server” permits connections from Azure services while additional IP rules control external access. This configuration allows Azure App Services, Logic Apps, and other Azure resources to access databases without exposing them to general internet traffic. Combined with specific IP allow rules for administrative access, this approach balances security with operational requirements. Database-level firewall rules provide granular control beyond server-level rules. This layered approach implements defense in depth with appropriate access for trusted Azure services and specific external IPs.
B is incorrect because disabling all network access prevents any connectivity including from applications, making databases unusable. Databases must be accessible to authorized applications and services. The scenario requires allowing Azure services while blocking general internet traffic, not eliminating all access. Complete network isolation contradicts operational requirements for running applications accessing databases. Selective access control is needed, not complete isolation.
C is incorrect because allowing all internet traffic without restrictions exposes databases to attacks from anywhere globally. Unrestricted access violates security best practices and contradicts the requirement for controlled access. Firewalls exist specifically to limit exposure by permitting only authorized connections. The scenario requires selective access for Azure services and specific IPs, not open internet access. Unrestricted exposure dramatically increases attack surface and security risk.
D is incorrect because Azure SQL Database provides comprehensive firewall capabilities at both server and database levels. Firewall rules are fundamental security controls required for protecting cloud databases. This statement contradicts core Azure SQL security features that Microsoft provides and documents extensively. Firewall configuration is among the first security steps when deploying Azure SQL databases, available through portal, PowerShell, CLI, and T-SQL.
Question 117
A company needs to implement database-level disaster recovery testing without affecting production databases. Which feature enables creating writable secondary databases for testing?
A) Active geo-replication with forced failover to secondary
B) Deleting production databases
C) No testing capability
D) Disabling all replication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Active geo-replication with forced failover enables disaster recovery testing by promoting secondary databases to primary role for validation. Forced failover makes secondaries writable, allowing testing of failover procedures, application connectivity, and database functionality in secondary regions. After testing, organizations can fail back to original primary or continue operations from new primary. Testing validates recovery procedures, verifies replication functionality, and ensures applications can connect to secondary regions. Regular testing identifies issues before actual disasters, improving confidence in disaster recovery capabilities.
B is incorrect because deleting production databases would cause catastrophic data loss and service disruption rather than enabling safe disaster recovery testing. DR testing must validate recovery capabilities without impacting production operations. Testing methodologies use replicas, restores, or isolated environments rather than affecting production databases. Database deletion contradicts every principle of safe testing and disaster recovery planning. Proper testing validates recovery without risking production data.
C is incorrect because Azure SQL explicitly supports disaster recovery testing through active geo-replication, failover groups, and backup restoration. Organizations can test failover procedures, validate recovery times, and verify application functionality during recovery scenarios. Microsoft encourages regular DR testing as best practice and provides features specifically supporting testing without production impact. Regular testing is essential for ensuring disaster recovery plans work when needed.
D is incorrect because disabling replication would eliminate disaster recovery protection rather than enabling testing. The scenario requires testing DR capabilities, which depends on having functional replication. Disabling replication removes the secondary databases needed for failover testing. Proper DR testing validates that replication works correctly and failover procedures function as designed. Disabling protection mechanisms contradicts testing objectives.
Question 118
An administrator needs to implement connection pooling to improve application performance and reduce connection overhead. Which statement about connection pooling with Azure SQL Database is correct?
A) Connection pooling reuses existing connections reducing overhead and improving performance
B) Each query requires new connection establishment
C) Connection pooling decreases performance
D) Pooling is not supported
Answer: A
Explanation:
Connection pooling reuses existing database connections rather than creating new connections for each request, significantly reducing overhead and improving performance. Establishing new connections involves TCP handshakes, authentication, and session initialization consuming time and resources. Connection pools maintain ready connections that applications borrow, use, and return to the pool. This approach reduces connection latency, decreases server load, and improves application throughput. Connection pooling is especially beneficial for cloud databases where network latency affects connection establishment time. Most database clients implement connection pooling by default.
B is incorrect because requiring new connections for each query would create massive overhead through repeated connection establishment and teardown. Connection setup involves multiple network round trips and authentication operations. For high-volume applications, establishing new connections per query would consume excessive resources and introduce significant latency. Connection pooling specifically addresses this inefficiency by reusing connections. Modern applications almost always use connection pooling to achieve acceptable performance.
C is incorrect because connection pooling improves rather than decreases performance by eliminating connection establishment overhead. Pooling is a standard performance optimization technique used universally in database applications. By reusing connections, applications avoid costly connection setup operations, reduce network traffic, and minimize server resource consumption. The only potential drawback is connection leaks if applications fail to properly close connections, but this represents implementation error rather than inherent pooling limitation. Properly implemented connection pooling consistently improves performance across all database platforms.
D is incorrect because Azure SQL Database fully supports connection pooling through standard database drivers and connection libraries. ADO.NET, JDBC, ODBC, and other common database APIs implement connection pooling by default or with simple configuration. Azure SQL Database is designed to work seamlessly with connection pooling, and Microsoft recommends pooling as best practice for optimal performance. Connection pooling is fundamental to efficient database application development and universally supported across database platforms.
Question 119
A database administrator needs to implement query store to capture query execution history and performance statistics. Which statement about Query Store is correct?
A) Query Store automatically captures query plans and runtime statistics for performance analysis
B) Query Store must be manually refreshed for each query
C) Query Store deletes all query history immediately
D) Query Store is not available in Azure SQL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Query Store automatically captures query execution plans, runtime statistics, and performance metrics without manual intervention. It continuously monitors query execution, storing query text, execution plans, and resource consumption statistics in system tables. Query Store enables tracking performance over time, identifying plan regressions, and forcing specific execution plans when optimizer choices degrade performance. Data collection occurs automatically with configurable retention and capture policies. This built-in flight recorder for query performance enables administrators to diagnose performance issues, compare performance across time periods, and understand workload characteristics without external tools.
B is incorrect because Query Store operates continuously and automatically, not requiring manual refresh operations. Query Store captures execution information as queries run, maintaining up-to-date performance data. Manual refresh would defeat the purpose of continuous performance monitoring and make Query Store impractical for production use. Automatic capture is fundamental to Query Store’s design, enabling effortless performance tracking without administrative overhead. Administrators configure capture policies but don’t manually trigger data collection.
C is incorrect because Query Store retains query history based on configurable retention policies, typically keeping data for days or weeks rather than deleting immediately. Historical data is essential for performance analysis, trend identification, and plan regression detection. Immediate deletion would eliminate Query Store’s value for performance troubleshooting and analysis. Retention policies balance storage consumption with historical data value. Organizations configure retention based on troubleshooting needs and storage availability.
D is incorrect because Query Store is available and enabled by default in Azure SQL Database. Query Store is a core database engine feature that Microsoft promotes for performance management. Azure SQL benefits significantly from Query Store given the managed service model where administrators have limited access to server-level diagnostics. Microsoft documentation extensively covers Query Store usage in Azure SQL Database. This statement contradicts documented features and best practices.
Question 120
An organization needs to implement database-level auditing that captures specific events like schema changes and permission modifications. Which configuration provides granular control over audited events?
A) Database-level audit specification with specific audit action groups
B) No granular control available
C) Auditing all events without filtering
D) Disabling all auditing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Database-level audit specifications provide granular control by enabling specific audit action groups like SCHEMA_OBJECT_CHANGE_GROUP for DDL operations, DATABASE_PERMISSION_CHANGE_GROUP for permission modifications, or BACKUP_RESTORE_GROUP for backup operations. Administrators select which event categories to audit at database level, complementing server-level audit policies. This granular approach reduces audit log volume by capturing only relevant events, improves signal-to-noise ratio for security monitoring, and focuses auditing on compliance-critical activities. Database-level specifications enable different auditing for databases with different compliance requirements on the same server.
B is incorrect because Azure SQL Database auditing explicitly provides granular control through audit action groups at both server and database levels. Administrators select specific event categories rather than auditing all activities indiscriminately. Granular control is fundamental to effective auditing, enabling focus on security-relevant events without capturing excessive noise. Microsoft designed auditing with flexibility to accommodate diverse compliance requirements. Statement contradicts documented auditing capabilities and best practices.
C is incorrect because auditing all events without filtering generates excessive audit data, increases storage costs, and makes security analysis difficult through overwhelming volume. Indiscriminate auditing captures routine operations obscuring important security events. Effective auditing balances comprehensive coverage with practical analysis by focusing on security-relevant events. Most compliance frameworks require auditing specific event types, not everything. Selective auditing based on risk and requirements provides better security outcomes than unfocused complete auditing.
D is incorrect because disabling auditing eliminates security visibility, violates compliance requirements, and prevents forensic investigation after security incidents. Auditing is essential for detecting unauthorized access, tracking data changes, and demonstrating compliance. Most regulatory frameworks require database auditing for accountability and transparency. The scenario specifically requires auditing schema changes and permission modifications, which disabled auditing cannot provide. Proper security governance requires comprehensive auditing capabilities.
