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Question 1
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. You plan to deploy a server to manage the virtual machines by using Windows Admin Center. You need to ensure that connections to Windows Admin Center are protected by using TLS mutual authentication. What should you configure?
A) a gateway plugin
B) a managed identity
C) a client certificate
D) a self-signed certificate
Answer: C
Explanation:
TLS mutual authentication is a security mechanism where both the client and the server authenticate each other during the connection establishment process. This provides an enhanced level of security compared to standard TLS, where only the server is authenticated. In the context of Windows Admin Center, implementing TLS mutual authentication requires the use of client certificates to verify the identity of users connecting to the gateway.
A client certificate is a digital certificate that is installed on the client machine and presented to the server during the TLS handshake process. When mutual authentication is configured, Windows Admin Center will verify the client certificate against a trusted certificate authority before allowing the connection to proceed. This ensures that only authorized clients with valid certificates can access the management interface, adding an additional layer of security beyond username and password authentication.
The configuration process involves obtaining client certificates from a trusted certificate authority, distributing them to authorized administrators, and configuring Windows Admin Center to require and validate these certificates. The gateway component of Windows Admin Center handles the certificate validation during the connection process, ensuring that each incoming connection presents a valid client certificate before granting access to manage the virtual machines.
Why other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because a gateway plugin extends the functionality of Windows Admin Center by adding new management capabilities, but it does not provide TLS mutual authentication functionality. Gateway plugins are used for integrating additional tools and services. B is incorrect because a managed identity is an Azure Active Directory feature used for authenticating Azure resources to other Azure services without storing credentials in code, but it does not provide TLS mutual authentication for Windows Admin Center connections. D is incorrect because while a self-signed certificate can be used for basic TLS encryption on the server side, it does not enable mutual authentication where the client must also present a certificate for verification.
Question 2
You have a Windows Server container host named Server1 and an Azure subscription. You deploy an Azure container registry named Registry1 to the subscription. On Server1, you create a container image named Image1. You need to store Image1 in Registry1. Which command should you run on Server1?
A) docker push
B) docker load
C) docker import
D) docker save
Answer: A
Explanation:
The docker push command is specifically designed to upload or push container images from a local Docker host to a remote container registry. In this scenario, Image1 has been created on Server1 and needs to be transferred to Registry1 in Azure. The docker push command establishes a connection to the Azure container registry and transfers the image layers to the remote repository, making it available for deployment and distribution.
Before executing the docker push command, the image must be properly tagged with the registry’s URL and repository name. The typical syntax would be docker push registry1.azurecr.io/image1:tag. This command authenticates with the Azure container registry using credentials that were previously configured through docker login, then uploads all the image layers that don’t already exist in the registry. The push operation is optimized to only transfer layers that are not already present in the remote registry, making subsequent pushes faster.
The docker push workflow is the standard method for distributing container images in enterprise environments. It allows teams to centralize their container images in registries like Azure Container Registry, enabling consistent deployments across multiple environments and facilitating collaboration among team members who need access to the same container images.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because docker load is used to load a tarball archive containing an image into the local Docker daemon, not to push images to a remote registry. It’s typically used after docker save to restore an image from a file. C is incorrect because docker import creates a new filesystem image from a tarball archive of a container’s filesystem, but it does not push images to registries. It’s used for importing container filesystems, not for registry operations. D is incorrect because docker save exports an image to a tar archive file on the local filesystem, which is useful for backup or offline transfer, but does not upload the image to Azure Container Registry or any remote registry.
Question 3
You have an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain that syncs with an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and has the Azure Connected Machine agent installed. You need to ensure that you can manage Server1 by using Azure Arc. What should you do first?
A) Install the Azure Arc agent on Server1
B) Register Server1 with Azure Arc
C) Create a service principal in Azure AD
D) Enable hybrid Azure AD join for Server1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure Arc enables centralized management of servers located outside of Azure, including on-premises servers, servers in other cloud providers, and edge devices. To manage Server1 using Azure Arc, the server must first be registered with Azure Arc, which establishes the connection between the on-premises server and the Azure control plane. The registration process creates an Azure resource representing the server and enables Azure management capabilities.
The question states that Server1 already has the Azure Connected Machine agent installed, which is the prerequisite software component required for Azure Arc connectivity. The next logical step is to register the server with Azure Arc using the azcmagent connect command. During registration, the agent authenticates with Azure using service principal credentials or interactive authentication, creates an Azure Arc-enabled server resource in the specified resource group, and establishes the ongoing connection that allows Azure to manage the server.
Once registration is complete, Server1 appears as an Azure Arc-enabled server resource in the Azure portal. This enables various Azure management capabilities including Azure Policy for configuration management, Azure Monitor for monitoring and alerting, Azure Update Manager for patch management, and role-based access control for security. The registration establishes the foundation for all subsequent Azure Arc management operations.
Why other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because the question explicitly states that the Azure Connected Machine agent is already installed on Server1. Installing the agent is a prerequisite that has already been completed, so this cannot be the first step needed. C is incorrect because while a service principal can be used during the registration process for authentication, creating one is not necessarily required as the first step. Interactive authentication or other methods can be used, and service principals are typically created before agent installation if needed. D is incorrect because hybrid Azure AD join is a separate identity feature that allows domain-joined devices to be registered in Azure AD. While it can be beneficial for integrated authentication, it is not required to manage a server with Azure Arc, and registration with Azure Arc takes precedence.
Question 4
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server. You need to configure VM1 to run a PowerShell script when VM1 starts. The solution must ensure that the script runs before any user signs in. What should you use?
A) Azure Automation State Configuration
B) a startup script in Group Policy
C) a Custom Script Extension
D) a scheduled task
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Custom Script Extension for Azure virtual machines is designed to automate the execution of scripts during or after VM deployment and startup. This extension downloads and runs scripts on Azure virtual machines, making it ideal for post-deployment configuration, software installation, and other management tasks. In this scenario, using the Custom Script Extension ensures that the PowerShell script executes during the VM startup process before users can sign in.
The Custom Script Extension integrates directly with the Azure virtual machine infrastructure and can be configured through the Azure portal, Azure CLI, PowerShell, or ARM templates. When configured, the extension automatically downloads the specified script from a storage location such as Azure Storage or GitHub, then executes it with system-level privileges during the VM startup sequence. This execution occurs at the system level before the user login interface becomes available, meeting the requirement that the script runs before any user signs in.
The extension provides reliability and logging capabilities, storing execution output and error messages that can be reviewed for troubleshooting. It supports both Windows and Linux virtual machines and can execute multiple scripts in sequence if needed. For Azure VMs specifically, the Custom Script Extension is the native, Azure-integrated solution for running startup scripts with proper timing and privilege levels.
Why other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because Azure Automation State Configuration is used for continuously enforcing desired state configuration on machines using DSC, not for running one-time startup scripts. While it can manage configuration, it’s designed for ongoing state management rather than script execution at startup. B is incorrect because Group Policy startup scripts require an Active Directory domain infrastructure and would be more complex to implement for an Azure VM. Additionally, this is not the Azure-native solution and may not integrate as seamlessly with Azure management. D is incorrect because while a scheduled task can be configured to run at system startup, it requires configuration from within the operating system and doesn’t leverage Azure’s native VM extension capabilities. The Custom Script Extension is specifically designed for this use case in Azure environments.
Question 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server. You need to ensure that you can use nested virtualization to host a Hyper-V virtual machine on VM1. What should you run on Server1?
A) Set-VMProcessor -VMName VM1 -ExposeVirtualizationExtensions $true
B) Enable-VMIntegrationService -VMName VM1 -Name “Guest Service Interface”
C) Set-VM -VMName VM1 -DynamicMemory
D) Set-VMHost -EnableEnhancedSessionMode $true
Answer: A
Explanation:
Nested virtualization is a feature that allows a Hyper-V virtual machine to itself run Hyper-V and host its own virtual machines. To enable this functionality, the host server must expose the virtualization extensions of the physical processor to the guest virtual machine. This is accomplished using the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet with the ExposeVirtualizationExtensions parameter set to true, which makes the hardware virtualization capabilities available to the VM.
When this parameter is enabled on Server1 for VM1, the guest operating system running on VM1 can detect and utilize the processor’s virtualization extensions, specifically Intel VT-x or AMD-V technologies. This allows the Hyper-V role to be installed and function properly within VM1, enabling it to create and run its own nested virtual machines. Without exposing these virtualization extensions, the nested Hyper-V installation would fail or be unable to create virtual machines because it cannot access the required hardware features.
There are additional prerequisites for nested virtualization to work properly, including ensuring VM1 has sufficient memory allocated, is running a compatible Windows Server version, and that VM1’s configuration version supports nested virtualization. However, exposing the virtualization extensions is the fundamental requirement and the specific action needed on Server1 to enable nested virtualization capability.
Question 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. You need to configure Server1 to provide Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) services to client computers. Which two actions should you perform?
A) Install the DHCP Server role
B) Authorize the DHCP server in Active Directory
C) Configure a DHCP relay agent
D) Install the Network Policy Server role
Answer: A and B
Explanation:
Setting up DHCP services on a Windows Server requires two critical actions. First, you must install the DHCP Server role on Server1, which adds the necessary components and services to provide DHCP functionality. This installation can be performed through Server Manager, PowerShell, or Windows Admin Center, and it configures the DHCP service that will manage IP address allocation, lease management, and distribution of network configuration parameters to client computers.
The second essential action is to authorize the DHCP server in Active Directory if Server1 is part of an Active Directory domain. DHCP authorization is a security feature designed to prevent rogue DHCP servers from providing incorrect network configurations to clients. When you authorize a DHCP server in Active Directory, you register it as a trusted DHCP server in the enterprise, allowing it to lease IP addresses to clients. Without authorization, the DHCP service will not provide leases to clients, even if properly configured with scopes and options.
After completing these two steps, you can then proceed with configuring DHCP scopes, which define the ranges of IP addresses available for distribution, and setting DHCP options such as default gateway, DNS servers, and domain name. The combination of installation and authorization establishes the foundation for a functional DHCP infrastructure that can serve client computers on the network.
Question 7
You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains three nodes. You plan to add two file server cluster roles named File1 and File2 to Cluster1. File1 will use the Scale-Out File Server role. File2 will use the File Server for general use role. You need to identify which type of disks can be added to each file server cluster role. What should you identify?
A) File1: Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV) only; File2: CSV or traditional storage
B) File1: Traditional storage only; File2: CSV only
C) File1: CSV or traditional storage; File2: CSV or traditional storage
D) File1: CSV only; File2: CSV only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding the storage requirements for different file server cluster roles is crucial for proper implementation. The Scale-Out File Server role, which will be used by File1, is specifically designed for server application workloads and requires Cluster Shared Volumes. CSV enables multiple cluster nodes to simultaneously access the same storage, which is essential for the Scale-Out File Server’s ability to provide active-active file access where all nodes can serve client requests concurrently. This architecture maximizes throughput and scalability for application workloads such as Hyper-V virtual machine storage or SQL Server database files.
In contrast, File2 will use the File Server for general use role, which follows a traditional active-passive clustering model where only one node owns and serves the file shares at any given time. This role is more flexible with storage options and can use either CSV or traditional clustered storage. Traditional storage in this context refers to storage that is owned by a single cluster node at a time and fails over between nodes during cluster events. While CSV can also be used with File Server for general use, it’s not required because the active-passive model doesn’t need simultaneous multi-node access to the storage.
The distinction between these roles reflects their different use cases and performance characteristics. Scale-Out File Servers are optimized for continuous availability and high throughput of server application data, while File Servers for general use are designed for standard user file shares and departmental data where active-passive operation is sufficient.
Question 8
You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. You plan to use Azure Network Adapter to connect Server1 to VNet1. You need to prepare Server1 for the deployment of Azure Network Adapter. What should you install on Server1?
A) Windows Admin Center
B) Azure Arc agent
C) Azure VPN Gateway
D) Remote Access server role
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Network Adapter is a feature that creates a point-to-site VPN connection between an on-premises Windows Server and an Azure virtual network, enabling seamless hybrid connectivity. This feature is managed and deployed through Windows Admin Center, which provides a simplified interface for configuring the Azure Network Adapter without requiring complex VPN configuration knowledge. To prepare Server1 for Azure Network Adapter deployment, Windows Admin Center must be installed on Server1 or on a management server that can connect to Server1.
Windows Admin Center serves as the management interface that handles the entire Azure Network Adapter deployment process. It automates the creation of the point-to-site VPN configuration in Azure, including setting up the VPN gateway if needed, generating certificates for authentication, and configuring the VPN client on the on-premises server. The Windows Admin Center Azure Network Adapter extension streamlines what would otherwise be a complex manual configuration process into a guided wizard-based experience.
Once Windows Admin Center is installed and configured with Azure integration, administrators can use the Azure Network Adapter feature to establish secure connectivity between Server1 and VNet1. This connection allows Server1 to communicate with Azure resources as if they were on the same network, enabling scenarios such as hybrid application architectures, Azure-based backup and disaster recovery, and centralized management of hybrid infrastructure.
Question 9
You have a Windows Server failover cluster. You need to configure the cluster to use the Cloud Witness feature. Which type of Azure resource should you use?
A) an Azure Storage account
B) an Azure virtual machine
C) an Azure file share
D) an Azure Blob container
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud Witness is a quorum witness option for Windows Server Failover Clusters that uses Microsoft Azure as the arbitration point. To implement Cloud Witness, you must use an Azure Storage account, which provides the necessary Azure Blob storage service that Cloud Witness requires for maintaining quorum votes. The storage account serves as the external witness location where the cluster stores a small blob file that is used to arbitrate in split-brain scenarios and maintain cluster quorum.
The Azure Storage account used for Cloud Witness should be a general-purpose storage account with standard performance tier, as the workload is very light consisting only of small blob writes for quorum management. When configuring Cloud Witness, you provide the storage account name and access key to the cluster, which then uses the Azure Blob storage service within that account to maintain its witness data. This approach eliminates the need for a separate physical or virtual witness server, reducing infrastructure costs and complexity while leveraging Azure’s high availability.
Cloud Witness offers several advantages over traditional file share witness or disk witness options, including reduced infrastructure requirements, automatic Azure-provided redundancy, and suitability for multi-site clusters where traditional witness options may be more complex to implement. The storage account remains accessible from all cluster nodes regardless of their location, as long as they have internet connectivity to Azure.
Question 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. You plan to enable live migration for VM1. You need to ensure that VM1 can be live migrated to other Hyper-V hosts. What should you configure on Server1?
A) Constrained delegation in Active Directory
B) CredSSP authentication
C) Storage migration
D) Enhanced session mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Live migration allows virtual machines to be moved from one Hyper-V host to another with minimal downtime, which is essential for maintenance, load balancing, and high availability scenarios. To enable live migration in a domain environment, proper authentication must be configured to allow the source Hyper-V host to perform actions on behalf of the administrator on the destination host. Constrained delegation in Active Directory provides this capability by allowing Server1 to impersonate the administrator when connecting to other Hyper-V hosts for migration operations.
Constrained delegation is configured in Active Directory for the computer account of each Hyper-V host, specifying which services on which destination servers the host is trusted to delegate credentials to. For live migration, you configure constrained delegation for the Microsoft Virtual System Migration Service on the target Hyper-V hosts. This ensures that when an administrator initiates a live migration, the source host can authenticate to the destination host using Kerberos protocol and perform the necessary operations to receive and run the virtual machine.
This approach provides a secure method for enabling live migration without requiring the storage of credentials or the use of less secure authentication methods. Constrained delegation follows the principle of least privilege by limiting the delegation to specific services rather than granting unlimited delegation rights. It is the recommended authentication method for live migration in production environments, particularly when multiple Hyper-V hosts need to migrate virtual machines between each other.
Question 11
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure file share named Share1. You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. You need to configure Server1 to connect to Share1 by using Azure File Sync. What should you install on Server1 first?
A) Azure File Sync agent
B) Azure Connected Machine agent
C) Data Deduplication role service
D) DFS Replication role service
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure File Sync is a service that enables centralization of file shares in Azure Files while maintaining local access performance through caching on Windows Servers. To configure Server1 to synchronize with Share1, you must first install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1. This agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows Server to become a sync endpoint, allowing it to participate in an Azure File Sync topology by synchronizing its local files with Azure file shares.
The Azure File Sync agent installation is the foundational step that must be completed before any sync configuration can occur. After installing the agent, you must register Server1 with a Storage Sync Service in Azure, which establishes the trust relationship between the server and Azure. Following registration, you can create sync groups and add server endpoints that specify which local folders on Server1 should synchronize with which cloud endpoints in Azure Files. The agent handles all the synchronization logic, cloud tiering policies, and ensures efficient data transfer between on-premises and Azure.
The agent software includes multiple components: the Storage Sync Agent service that monitors changes and performs synchronization, the cloud tiering filter driver that manages which files are kept locally versus in the cloud, and various PowerShell modules for management operations. Installing this agent is prerequisite to any Azure File Sync functionality and must be done before attempting to configure synchronization relationships.
Question 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. Server1 has the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role installed. You need to configure Server1 to respond to Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE) requests on a specific network adapter. What should you configure in the WDS properties?
A) PXE Response settings
B) DHCP settings
C) Network settings
D) Boot settings
Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows Deployment Services provides network-based installation of Windows operating systems to client computers using Pre-Boot Execution Environment technology. When a server has multiple network adapters, it’s important to control which adapter WDS uses to respond to PXE requests to ensure proper network segmentation and prevent unintended deployments on incorrect networks. The Network settings section of WDS properties allows you to specify which network adapter or adapters the WDS server should listen on for PXE client requests.
In the Network settings configuration, you can view all network adapters installed on Server1 and select which ones WDS should use for PXE responses. This is particularly important in environments where Server1 is connected to multiple networks, such as a production network and a deployment network, and you want to ensure that WDS only responds to PXE requests on the designated deployment network. You can configure WDS to listen on all network adapters, on specific selected adapters, or to not respond to PXE requests at all.
Properly configuring network settings prevents issues such as WDS responding to PXE requests from unintended networks, which could cause client computers on production networks to accidentally boot into deployment mode. It also improves performance by ensuring WDS only monitors traffic on relevant network segments rather than processing PXE requests from all connected networks.
Why other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because PXE Response settings control how and when WDS responds to PXE client requests based on client type and whether clients are known or unknown to Active Directory, not which network adapter to use. These settings affect authorization policies, not network adapter selection. B is incorrect because DHCP settings in WDS are used to configure whether WDS should authorize itself with DHCP servers and whether to listen on specific DHCP ports, particularly when WDS and DHCP are co-located on the same server. These settings don’t control which network adapter WDS uses. D is incorrect because Boot settings configure properties related to boot images and boot program behavior, such as whether to require administrator approval for unknown computers, not which network adapter should handle PXE requests.
Question 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. Server1 hosts a share named Share1. You need to ensure that users can access Share1 by using SMB over QUIC. What should you do on Server1?
A) Install a certificate and enable SMB over QUIC
B) Enable SMB signing
C) Configure SMB encryption
D) Enable the SMB Firewall rule
Answer: A
Explanation:
SMB over QUIC is a modern protocol enhancement that provides secure, reliable file access over untrusted networks by encapsulating SMB traffic inside QUIC connections. QUIC is a transport protocol that runs over UDP and provides TLS encryption by default, making it ideal for scenarios where clients need to access file shares over the internet or other untrusted networks without requiring VPN connections. To enable SMB over QUIC on Server1, you must first install a valid certificate for TLS authentication and then enable the SMB over QUIC feature.
The certificate requirement is critical because SMB over QUIC uses TLS for encryption and authentication, and the certificate identifies the server to clients establishing connections. The certificate must be issued by a trusted certificate authority, have the server’s fully qualified domain name in the subject or subject alternative name field, and be installed in the local computer’s personal certificate store. After the certificate is properly installed, you enable SMB over QUIC through Windows Admin Center, PowerShell, or Server Manager, which configures the SMB server to listen for QUIC connections on UDP port 443.
Once configured, clients can connect to Share1 using the server’s internet-accessible FQDN, and the connection automatically uses QUIC transport with TLS encryption. This provides several benefits including traversal of NAT and firewall boundaries more easily than traditional SMB, automatic encryption without additional VPN infrastructure, and improved performance over high-latency networks due to QUIC’s optimized connection establishment and congestion control.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because SMB signing provides integrity protection by cryptographically signing each SMB message to prevent tampering, but it does not enable SMB over QUIC functionality. SMB signing operates at a different protocol layer and is independent of the transport mechanism. C is incorrect because while SMB encryption provides confidentiality for SMB traffic, it is a separate feature from SMB over QUIC. SMB encryption works with traditional TCP-based SMB connections and does not enable the QUIC transport protocol or allow internet-based access without VPN. D is incorrect because while firewall rules are necessary for network connectivity, simply enabling an SMB firewall rule does not enable SMB over QUIC functionality. The feature must be explicitly enabled after installing the required certificate, and SMB over QUIC uses UDP port 443, not the traditional SMB ports.
Question 14
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and is configured as a domain controller. You create a Group Policy Object (GPO) named GPO1 and link it to the domain. You need to ensure that GPO1 is applied only to laptop computers. What should you configure?
A) WMI filtering
B) Security filtering
C) Group Policy loopback processing
D) Enforced link
Answer: A
Explanation:
WMI filtering provides a powerful mechanism to conditionally apply Group Policy Objects based on attributes of the target computer or user that can be queried through Windows Management Instrumentation. In this scenario, you need to differentiate between laptop computers and desktop computers, which can be accomplished by querying WMI classes that contain information about the computer’s chassis type or whether it has a battery. WMI filtering allows you to write WQL queries that return true or false, and the GPO is only applied to targets where the query returns true.
To configure WMI filtering for laptop computers, you create a WMI filter in the Group Policy Management Console with a query that identifies laptops, such as checking the Win32_SystemEnclosure class for chassis types indicating portable computers, or querying for the presence of a battery using the Win32_Battery class. A typical WQL query might be “SELECT * FROM Win32_SystemEnclosure WHERE ChassisTypes = 9” where chassis type 9 represents laptops. After creating the WMI filter, you link it to GPO1, which ensures the policy is only evaluated and applied to computers that match the laptop criteria.
WMI filtering is evaluated during Group Policy processing after security filtering but before the actual policy settings are applied. If the WMI filter evaluates to false for a particular computer, Group Policy processing for that GPO stops immediately, improving performance by skipping unnecessary policy processing for computers that don’t meet the criteria. This makes WMI filtering ideal for hardware-based or configuration-based targeting of Group Policy.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because security filtering controls which users or groups the GPO applies to based on security permissions and group membership, not based on hardware characteristics like whether a computer is a laptop. Security filtering cannot distinguish between laptop and desktop computers. C is incorrect because Group Policy loopback processing changes the way user policies are applied in specific scenarios, typically for terminal server or kiosk environments. It controls whether user policies come from the computer’s location or user’s location in Active Directory, not whether a computer is a laptop. D is incorrect because an enforced link gives a GPO precedence over other GPOs and prevents it from being blocked by child organizational units. Enforcement affects precedence and inheritance but does not provide conditional application based on computer type or hardware characteristics.
Question 15
You have an Azure subscription that contains a Recovery Services vault named Vault1. You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. You need to back up Server1 to Vault1. What should you install on Server1?
A) Microsoft Azure Recovery Services (MARS) agent
B) Azure Backup Server
C) Azure Site Recovery Provider
D) Azure File Sync agent
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft Azure Recovery Services agent, commonly called the MARS agent, is the lightweight backup solution designed specifically for backing up files, folders, and system state from Windows servers and clients directly to an Azure Recovery Services vault. When you need to protect an on-premises Windows Server by backing it up to Azure without deploying additional infrastructure, the MARS agent is the appropriate solution. It installs directly on the server you want to protect and handles all backup operations to Azure.
After installing the MARS agent on Server1, you configure it with the credentials and settings for Vault1, including downloading the vault credentials file from Azure and providing a passphrase for encryption. The agent then performs scheduled backups according to the backup policy you configure, encrypting data locally before transmitting it to Azure over an encrypted channel. The MARS agent supports file-level restore, system state backup and recovery, and can protect data on physical servers, virtual machines, or Azure VMs.
The MARS agent approach is ideal for scenarios where you need simple, direct-to-Azure backup without the complexity of deploying additional backup infrastructure. It provides bandwidth throttling to control network usage, incremental backups to minimize data transfer, and retention policies to meet compliance requirements. The agent handles all aspects of the backup process including scheduling, compression, encryption, and transmission to the Recovery Services vault.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because Azure Backup Server is a more comprehensive backup solution that acts as a central backup server protecting multiple workloads including Hyper-V VMs, SQL Server, SharePoint, and other enterprise applications. While it can back up to Azure, it’s unnecessary overhead when you only need to back up a single server’s files and folders. C is incorrect because Azure Site Recovery Provider is used for disaster recovery replication scenarios, not backup. Site Recovery replicates entire virtual machines or physical servers for failover purposes, which is different from the file-level backup functionality needed in this scenario. D is incorrect because Azure File Sync agent is used for synchronizing file shares between on-premises servers and Azure Files, creating a hybrid file server topology. It does not provide backup functionality or integrate with Recovery Services vaults.
Question 16
You have a Windows Server failover cluster that hosts a highly available virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to move automatically to the most suitable cluster node when the node hosting VM1 becomes overloaded. What should you configure?
A) Virtual machine load balancing
B) Cluster-Aware Updating
C) Preferred owners
D) Possible owners
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtual machine load balancing is an intelligent feature in Windows Server Failover Clustering that automatically monitors resource utilization across cluster nodes and proactively moves virtual machines to optimize resource distribution. When enabled, this feature continuously evaluates CPU and memory usage on each node and identifies situations where one node is overloaded while other nodes have available capacity. Virtual machine load balancing then automatically live migrates virtual machines from overloaded nodes to less busy nodes, ensuring optimal performance and resource utilization across the cluster.
The load balancing algorithm evaluates several factors including CPU utilization, memory pressure, and the relative imbalance between nodes. You can configure thresholds that determine when a node is considered overloaded and trigger load balancing actions. The feature operates on configurable intervals, with default settings checking every 30 minutes for imbalance conditions. When VM1’s current node becomes overloaded and other nodes have sufficient resources, virtual machine load balancing will automatically identify VM1 as a candidate for migration and move it to a more suitable node without administrator intervention.
This automated approach improves overall cluster efficiency and helps prevent performance degradation caused by resource contention. Virtual machine load balancing works seamlessly with live migration, ensuring virtual machines experience minimal disruption during the rebalancing process. The feature can be enabled at the cluster level through PowerShell or Failover Cluster Manager, and once enabled, it continuously monitors and optimizes virtual machine placement across all cluster nodes.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because Cluster-Aware Updating is a feature that automates the installation of Windows updates on cluster nodes while maintaining high availability by orchestrating maintenance mode and failover operations. It does not monitor or respond to resource utilization or move virtual machines based on load. C is incorrect because preferred owners specify which cluster nodes should preferentially host a clustered resource, determining where the resource runs after a failover. Preferred owners are a static configuration that doesn’t respond dynamically to changing load conditions. D is incorrect because possible owners define which cluster nodes are allowed to host a clustered resource, essentially a whitelist or blacklist of nodes. This setting controls eligibility but does not trigger automatic movement based on resource utilization or overload conditions.
Question 17
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and has the DNS Server role installed. You need to configure DNS aging and scavenging to automatically remove stale DNS records. Which two settings should you configure?
A) No-refresh interval
B) Refresh interval
C) Zone transfer settings
D) Recursion settings
Answer: A and B
Explanation:
DNS aging and scavenging is a mechanism that automatically removes outdated resource records from DNS zones, preventing the accumulation of stale entries that can cause name resolution problems and database bloat. To implement aging and scavenging, you must configure two time interval settings that work together to determine when a DNS record becomes eligible for deletion. These settings are the no-refresh interval and the refresh interval, which collectively define the aging behavior of dynamically registered DNS records.
The no-refresh interval is a period during which a DNS record cannot be refreshed after it is created or last refreshed. This prevents unnecessary updates to the DNS database timestamp when the same client repeatedly attempts to refresh its record. The default no-refresh interval is seven days. During this period, the record’s timestamp remains unchanged even if refresh attempts occur, reducing database write operations and replication traffic in Active Directory-integrated zones.
The refresh interval begins after the no-refresh interval expires and defines how long a record can exist without being refreshed before it becomes eligible for scavenging. The default refresh interval is also seven days. If a record is not refreshed during the refresh interval, it becomes stale and can be deleted during the next scavenging operation. Together, these intervals mean a record must go 14 days without refresh to be eligible for deletion, providing a reasonable window for clients to update their registrations while still removing truly abandoned records.
After configuring these intervals on the zone properties, you must also enable scavenging on the DNS server and set the server scavenging period, which determines how often the server performs the actual deletion of stale records. Both aging and scavenging must be explicitly enabled, as they are disabled by default to prevent accidental deletion of static records or records in environments where clients cannot properly refresh their registrations.
Why other options are incorrect: C is incorrect because zone transfer settings control replication of DNS data between DNS servers, specifying which servers are allowed to request zone transfers and what type of transfers are permitted. Zone transfers are unrelated to the aging and scavenging process that removes stale records. D is incorrect because recursion settings determine whether the DNS server will perform recursive queries on behalf of clients to resolve names not in its authoritative zones. Recursion affects name resolution behavior but has no connection to the aging and scavenging mechanism for removing old records.
Question 18
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You need to configure Server1 to support live migration of virtual machines over SMB. What should you configure on Server1?
A) Live migration settings to use SMB
B) Virtual switch settings
C) Integration services
D) Virtual machine storage migration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Live migration in Hyper-V supports multiple network protocols for transferring virtual machine memory and state information between cluster nodes or standalone hosts. By default, live migration uses either TCP/IP or Compression, but you can configure it to use SMB for the migration traffic. SMB provides several advantages including support for RDMA for high-performance, low-latency transfers, multichannel capabilities for aggregating bandwidth across multiple network adapters, and encryption for secure transfers. To enable live migration over SMB on Server1, you must configure the live migration settings to specify SMB as the performance option.
The configuration is performed in Hyper-V Manager or through PowerShell by accessing the live migration settings for the host. In these settings, you can choose between different performance options including TCP/IP, Compression, and SMB. When you select SMB, Hyper-V will use the SMB protocol for transferring virtual machine memory pages during live migration operations. This requires that both the source and destination hosts have appropriate SMB shares configured and that the network infrastructure supports the bandwidth requirements of live migration traffic.
Using SMB for live migration is particularly beneficial in environments with RDMA-capable network adapters, as SMB Direct can leverage RDMA to dramatically reduce CPU utilization and improve migration speed. The combination of SMB multichannel and RDMA can result in migrations that complete significantly faster than traditional TCP/IP methods while consuming fewer CPU resources on both the source and destination hosts. Proper network configuration, including dedicated migration networks and appropriate QoS policies, ensures optimal performance.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because virtual switch settings configure the virtual networking infrastructure that virtual machines use for network connectivity, including external, internal, and private switches. Virtual switch configuration does not control the protocol used for live migration traffic between hosts. C is incorrect because integration services are components installed in virtual machines that enable enhanced functionality like time synchronization, heartbeat monitoring, and data exchange between host and guest. Integration services do not affect how live migration traffic is transferred between hosts. D is incorrect because virtual machine storage migration refers to moving a virtual machine’s storage files from one location to another, which is a different operation from live migration. Storage migration moves VHD files, while live migration moves the running state of a virtual machine between hosts.
Question 19
You have an Azure subscription that contains a storage account named storage1. You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. You plan to use Azure File Sync to sync files between Server1 and storage1. You need to minimize the time required to replicate files from storage1 to Server1 during the initial sync. What should you use?
A) Data Box
B) AzCopy
C) Azure File Sync cloud tiering
D) Robocopy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Data Box is a physical data transfer solution designed to move large amounts of data into and out of Azure when network-based transfer would be too slow or impractical. When implementing Azure File Sync for the first time with a large dataset already in Azure, the initial synchronization can take considerable time depending on the amount of data and available network bandwidth. Data Box addresses this challenge by providing an offline data transfer method that significantly reduces the time required for initial synchronization.
The process involves ordering a Data Box device from Azure, which Microsoft ships to your location. You copy the data from storage1 to the Data Box device locally, then ship the device back to an Azure datacenter where the data is rapidly uploaded to your target location. For Azure File Sync scenarios, you can use Data Box to seed Server1 with the initial dataset, allowing the server to have a local copy of the files without downloading them over the network. After the Data Box data is available, you configure Azure File Sync to recognize the existing data and perform only incremental synchronization of changes.
This approach is particularly valuable when dealing with terabytes of data where network-based initial sync could take weeks or months. Data Box can transfer up to 80 TB of usable capacity per device, and the physical transfer typically takes just days rather than the extended periods required for network uploads. After the initial seeding is complete, ongoing synchronization handles only changed files, which represents a much smaller data volume that can be efficiently managed over the network.
Why other options are incorrect: B is incorrect because while AzCopy is an excellent command-line tool for copying data to and from Azure Storage, it still relies on network transfer and would not minimize the initial sync time compared to letting Azure File Sync handle the transfer. AzCopy faces the same bandwidth limitations as any network-based approach. C is incorrect because cloud tiering is a feature that keeps frequently accessed files local while moving older, less frequently accessed files to the cloud. Tiering optimizes storage utilization but does not reduce the time required for initial synchronization, as the data still needs to be evaluated and potentially transferred. D is incorrect because Robocopy is a file copy utility that runs over the network or locally, but when copying from Azure storage to an on-premises server, it still requires network transfer of all data. Robocopy does not provide any mechanism to reduce initial sync time compared to Azure File Sync’s native capabilities.
Question 20
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and has the DHCP Server role installed. You need to configure DHCP failover to provide high availability for DHCP services. You plan to deploy a second DHCP server named Server2. What is the maximum number of DHCP failover relationships you can configure between Server1 and Server2?
A) 1
B) 10
C) 32
D) Unlimited
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP failover in Windows Server allows two DHCP servers to provide redundancy for DHCP scopes, ensuring continued service availability if one server fails. A failover relationship defines the partnership between two DHCP servers and specifies which scopes are replicated between them. When configuring DHCP failover, you establish these relationships to determine how servers share scope information and handle client lease requests. Windows Server supports up to 32 failover relationships per DHCP server, providing flexibility for complex environments with multiple partnerships.
The limit of 32 relationships allows a DHCP server to participate in failover configurations with multiple partner servers, which can be useful in distributed or multi-site environments. Each relationship can include multiple scopes, so you can efficiently organize your DHCP infrastructure by grouping related scopes into appropriate failover relationships. For example, you might create separate relationships for different physical locations, different network segments, or different administrative boundaries while staying within the 32-relationship limit.
In this scenario where you have Server1 and Server2, you could configure up to 32 distinct failover relationships between them, though in most practical deployments you would configure just one or a few relationships containing all the scopes that need to be shared between these two servers. The 32-relationship limit provides ample capacity for even large and complex DHCP deployments while maintaining manageable configuration and replication overhead.
Why other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because Windows Server DHCP failover supports multiple relationships per server, not just a single relationship. While many deployments use only one relationship between two servers, the capability exists for many more. B is incorrect because the actual limit is higher than 10 relationships. Ten would be insufficient for many enterprise scenarios where DHCP servers need to participate in failover with multiple partners across different sites or administrative domains. D is incorrect because there is a specific technical limit of 32 failover relationships per DHCP server. This limit exists to ensure manageable configuration complexity and replication overhead, as unlimited relationships could create performance and management challenges.
