Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 64
Question 630
A compromised automation account may have modified production security policy before detection. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Revoke the compromised automation account and close the incident without reviewing changes made to production policy
Contain the account, preserve change evidence and reconstruct affected policy state
Restore server uptime but keep the attacker-modified firewall and authorization settings in place
Delete the automation change history as sensitive data before reconstructing which controls were altered
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Incident response must address integrity of modified policy, not only credential revocation. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect immutable configuration history and confirm unauthorized changes are reversed.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Revoke the compromised automation account and close the incident without reviewing changes made to production policy” would not establish the protection described: incident response must address integrity of modified policy, not only credential revocation. The necessary change is “Contain the account, preserve change evidence and reconstruct affected policy state” with the verification “inspect immutable configuration history and confirm unauthorized changes are reversed”.
C:
“Restore server uptime but keep the attacker-modified firewall and authorization settings in place” would not establish the protection described: incident response must address integrity of modified policy, not only credential revocation. The necessary change is “Contain the account, preserve change evidence and reconstruct affected policy state” with the verification “inspect immutable configuration history and confirm unauthorized changes are reversed”.
D:
“Delete the automation change history as sensitive data before reconstructing which controls were altered” leaves the essential control missing: incident response must address integrity of modified policy, not only credential revocation. The direct corrective action is “Contain the account, preserve change evidence and reconstruct affected policy state”, validated by the acceptance check “inspect immutable configuration history and confirm unauthorized changes are reversed”.
Question 631
An Agile team postpones security review until after each public release. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Ask only the product owner to self-attest that backlog stories have no security risk
Add a penetration test at launch without any security acceptance conditions during iterations
Embed threat review and acceptance checks in each development iteration
Keep the security review as a separate annual event after all sprint releases
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The security distinction is that secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate. “Ask only the product owner to self-attest that backlog stories have no security risk” addresses neither the required “Embed threat review and acceptance checks in each development iteration” action nor its supporting evidence: “Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence”.
B:
Secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate. “Add a penetration test at launch without any security acceptance conditions during iterations” does not supply that control; “Embed threat review and acceptance checks in each development iteration” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence” verifies the result.
D:
Secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate. “Keep the security review as a separate annual event after all sprint releases” does not supply that control; “Embed threat review and acceptance checks in each development iteration” addresses the identified gap, and “Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence” verifies the result.
Question 632
An Agile team postpones security review until after each public release. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Count closed user stories but omit threat review and security test artifacts
Confirm a sprint was delivered on time without its security acceptance evidence
Review the annual assessment schedule instead of per-sprint definitions of done
Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Count closed user stories but omit threat review and security test artifacts” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence”, reflecting the requirement that secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate.
B:
“Confirm a sprint was delivered on time without its security acceptance evidence” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Embed threat review and acceptance checks in each development iteration” works. Secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate. The decisive test is “Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence”.
C:
“Review the annual assessment schedule instead of per-sprint definitions of done” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Verify sprint definitions of done include security evidence”, reflecting the requirement that secure SDLC controls should fit iterative delivery rather than remain separate.
Question 633
A traditional waterfall project has no defined security gate before design freeze. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Include security requirements and architecture review at phase boundaries
Allow design freeze before documenting security requirements and request fixes in final testing
Substitute a generic security policy acknowledgment for architecture threat analysis
Let the implementation team define security gates only when deployment begins
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Early security design reduces late-stage rework. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to inspect phase approval evidence and threat models.
Incorrect Answers
B:
“Allow design freeze before documenting security requirements and request fixes in final testing” would not establish the protection described: early security design reduces late-stage rework. The necessary change is “Include security requirements and architecture review at phase boundaries” with the verification “Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models”.
C:
“Substitute a generic security policy acknowledgment for architecture threat analysis” leaves the essential control missing: early security design reduces late-stage rework. The direct corrective action is “Include security requirements and architecture review at phase boundaries”, validated by the acceptance check “Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models”.
D:
“Let the implementation team define security gates only when deployment begins” would not establish the protection described: early security design reduces late-stage rework. The necessary change is “Include security requirements and architecture review at phase boundaries” with the verification “Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models”.
Question 634
A traditional waterfall project has no defined security gate before design freeze. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm the project charter mentions security but not that architecture checkpoints occurred
Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models
Inspect release approval alone while omitting prior requirements and threat models
Review final test results without evidence that design-phase risks were assessed
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Early security design reduces late-stage rework. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Confirm the project charter mentions security but not that architecture checkpoints occurred” would not verify the relevant control. Early security design reduces late-stage rework. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models”.
C:
An observation of “Inspect release approval alone while omitting prior requirements and threat models” would not verify the relevant control. Early security design reduces late-stage rework. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models”.
D:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Inspect phase approval evidence and threat models” because early security design reduces late-stage rework. “Review final test results without evidence that design-phase risks were assessed” cannot establish that result.
Question 635
A CI/CD platform can deploy software without an independent production approval. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Give all build agents permanent production-deployment credentials without independent approval
Use a developer's own pipeline approval as the sole production authorization
Introduce risk-based separation of release and development duties
Require an informal chat message but no enforceable deployment permission boundary
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
Continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to test blocked deployment when required approval is absent.
Incorrect Answers
A:
The proposal “Give all build agents permanent production-deployment credentials without independent approval” does not meet the relevant requirement because continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. The matching remediation is “Introduce risk-based separation of release and development duties”.
B:
“Use a developer's own pipeline approval as the sole production authorization” is not the relevant mitigation. Continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. The scenario calls for “Introduce risk-based separation of release and development duties”; the acceptance check is “Test blocked deployment when required approval is absent”.
D:
“Require an informal chat message but no enforceable deployment permission boundary” is not the relevant mitigation. Continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. The scenario calls for “Introduce risk-based separation of release and development duties”; the acceptance check is “Test blocked deployment when required approval is absent”.
Question 636
A CI/CD platform can deploy software without an independent production approval. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Confirm a developer can successfully deploy without testing missing-approval rejection
Review a message thread without verifying the enforced approval gate
Inspect completed pipeline runs but not whether unapproved deployments are technically blocked
Test blocked deployment when required approval is absent
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
Continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Test blocked deployment when required approval is absent.
Incorrect Answers
A:
Continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. The proposed check, “Confirm a developer can successfully deploy without testing missing-approval rejection”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test blocked deployment when required approval is absent” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
B:
“Review a message thread without verifying the enforced approval gate” does not show the required outcome: test blocked deployment when required approval is absent. That test matters because continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance.
C:
Continuous delivery does not remove privileged change governance. The proposed check, “Inspect completed pipeline runs but not whether unapproved deployments are technically blocked”, misses the relevant outcome; “Test blocked deployment when required approval is absent” tests whether the intended remedy worked.
Question 637
A software team reports process maturity based only on bug counts. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Assess repeatable engineering processes and improvement evidence
Count mandatory training hours instead of repeatable, measured secure development practices
Assign maturity solely from the age of the software organization without process evidence
Treat one sprint's low defect count as proof of consistent engineering maturity
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:
Maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to review process adoption and corrective trends.
Incorrect Answers
B:
Maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally. “Count mandatory training hours instead of repeatable, measured secure development practices” does not supply that control; “Assess repeatable engineering processes and improvement evidence” addresses the identified gap, and “Review process adoption and corrective trends” verifies the result.
C:
The security distinction is that maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally. “Assign maturity solely from the age of the software organization without process evidence” addresses neither the required “Assess repeatable engineering processes and improvement evidence” action nor its supporting evidence: “Review process adoption and corrective trends”.
D:
Maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally. “Treat one sprint's low defect count as proof of consistent engineering maturity” does not supply that control; “Assess repeatable engineering processes and improvement evidence” addresses the identified gap, and “Review process adoption and corrective trends” verifies the result.
Question 638
A software team reports process maturity based only on bug counts. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Verify how many years the team has operated but not corrective trends or process adoption
Review process adoption and corrective trends
Compare bug counts for one release without evaluating repeatable practices
Review training attendance without measuring changes in control effectiveness
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:
Maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Review process adoption and corrective trends.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Verify how many years the team has operated but not corrective trends or process adoption” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review process adoption and corrective trends”, reflecting the requirement that maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally.
C:
“Compare bug counts for one release without evaluating repeatable practices” evaluates something other than the specified fix. The meaningful evidence is “Review process adoption and corrective trends”, reflecting the requirement that maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally.
D:
“Review training attendance without measuring changes in control effectiveness” is insufficient to demonstrate that “Assess repeatable engineering processes and improvement evidence” works. Maturity models concern organizational capability, not one defect tally. The decisive test is “Review process adoption and corrective trends”.
Question 639
Maintenance staff introduce security regressions outside the feature development pipeline. Which security recommendation MOST directly addresses the described risk or requirement?
Apply security review only to feature releases and exempt maintenance updates indefinitely
Allow direct production patches with no rollback or postchange verification
Apply controlled secure change review to patches and operational updates
Review maintenance code only after deployment without preserving approval evidence
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:
SDLC security continues into maintenance. A direct way to confirm the outcome is to trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates.
Incorrect Answers
A:
“Apply security review only to feature releases and exempt maintenance updates indefinitely” leaves the essential control missing: SDLC security continues into maintenance. The direct corrective action is “Apply controlled secure change review to patches and operational updates”, validated by the acceptance check “Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates”.
B:
“Allow direct production patches with no rollback or postchange verification” would not establish the protection described: SDLC security continues into maintenance. The necessary change is “Apply controlled secure change review to patches and operational updates” with the verification “Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates”.
D:
“Review maintenance code only after deployment without preserving approval evidence” would not establish the protection described: SDLC security continues into maintenance. The necessary change is “Apply controlled secure change review to patches and operational updates” with the verification “Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates”.
Question 640
Maintenance staff introduce security regressions outside the feature development pipeline. After implementing a remedy, which acceptance-test evidence MOST directly demonstrates that the specific issue has been addressed?
Inspect runtime uptime after the patch without checking independent review and rollback
Review the next feature release's approvals but omit out-of-band maintenance changes
Confirm the maintenance patch installed without reviewing its security gates
Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:
SDLC security continues into maintenance. The result of the remedy is checked directly: Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates.
Incorrect Answers
A:
An observation of “Inspect runtime uptime after the patch without checking independent review and rollback” would not verify the relevant control. SDLC security continues into maintenance. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates”.
B:
The acceptance test must demonstrate “Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates” because SDLC security continues into maintenance. “Review the next feature release's approvals but omit out-of-band maintenance changes” cannot establish that result.
C:
An observation of “Confirm the maintenance patch installed without reviewing its security gates” would not verify the relevant control. SDLC security continues into maintenance. The necessary acceptance evidence is “Trace maintenance commits through review and deployment gates”.
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests
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ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions
Looking to pass your tests the first time. You can study with ISC CISSP certification practice test questions and answers, study guide, training courses. With Exam-Labs VCE files you can prepare with ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam practice test questions and answers. The most complete solution for passing with ISC certification CISSP exam practice test questions and answers, study guide, training course.
CISSP: Integrating Security Risk, Architecture, Operations, and Software
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is ISC2’s broad professional certification for experienced security practitioners. The current exam outline has been effective since April 15, 2024 and covers eight domains spanning governance, asset protection, architecture, networking, identity, assessment, operations, and software development. The exam uses computerized adaptive testing, lasts three hours, and contains 100 to 150 items.
The current domain weights are 16% Security and Risk Management, 10% Asset Security, 13% Security Architecture and Engineering, 13% Communication and Network Security, 13% Identity and Access Management, 12% Security Assessment and Testing, 13% Security Operations, and 10% Software Development Security. Candidates need 700 out of 1000 points to pass.
Passing the examination is not the same as earning the CISSP certification. ISC2 requires five years of cumulative full-time professional experience in two or more CISSP domains, with a possible one-year waiver for an eligible degree or approved credential. Candidates who pass before meeting the experience requirement can use the Associate of ISC2 pathway while they build qualifying experience.
Security and risk management connects protection to business objectives
The first domain establishes the governance context for the rest of CISSP. Candidates need to understand policies, standards, legal and regulatory considerations, professional ethics, risk assessment, threat modeling, supply-chain risk, business continuity, and security awareness. The common thread is decision quality: security controls should support organizational objectives and reduce meaningful risk rather than exist as isolated technical features.
Risk ownership matters because security teams do not unilaterally decide the enterprise’s appetite for uncertainty. They identify and analyze scenarios, recommend treatment, measure controls, and communicate residual exposure. Management then makes decisions within governance structures. This distinction becomes especially important in questions that offer a technically aggressive response but bypass the accountable business owner.
Asset security follows information from creation through disposal
Information should be classified and handled according to value, sensitivity, legal obligations, and business need. Ownership, custodianship, retention, storage, transfer, backup, archiving, and disposal all affect exposure. Candidates should understand that protection is not limited to confidentiality; integrity, availability, authenticity, and privacy can be equally important depending on the asset.
Data lifecycle thinking also exposes hidden copies. Logs, backups, test environments, caches, exports, and analytics platforms may contain sensitive information after the primary record has moved or been deleted. Strong asset security uses inventories, labeling, handling requirements, access rules, and retention controls that remain consistent across those copies.
Architecture and engineering translate security principles into system structure
Security architecture deals with trust boundaries, isolation, cryptography, hardware and platform security, resilience, fault tolerance, physical security, and secure design principles. Candidates should be able to reason about reference monitors, trusted computing concepts, security models, system vulnerabilities, and how design choices change attack surfaces.
Cryptography should be understood as a set of services and tradeoffs rather than a collection of algorithm names. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hashing, signatures, certificates, key exchange, and key lifecycle solve different problems. The practical foundations of PKI and cryptography help connect certificates and trust chains to identity, secure communication, and non-repudiation.
Communication and network security focuses on controlled connectivity
Networks create pathways between users, systems, services, and trust zones. Candidates need a working understanding of protocols, segmentation, routing concepts, secure communication, wireless risks, remote access, network attacks, and defensive technologies. The goal is not vendor configuration trivia; it is the ability to identify how a design exposes or protects information flows.
Modern networks also cross data centers, clouds, remote users, and software-defined infrastructure. Zero-trust approaches challenge the assumption that location alone establishes trust. The ideas behind zero-trust network protection are useful because they emphasize identity, device posture, least privilege, and continuous verification across changing boundaries.
Identity and access management governs the lifecycle of subjects and permissions
IAM includes identification, authentication, authorization, accountability, provisioning, access review, federation, privileged access, and deprovisioning. Strong designs apply least privilege and separation of duties while making access manageable at enterprise scale. Permissions that are correct on the first day can become dangerous when roles, projects, or employment status change.
Authorization models such as discretionary, mandatory, role-based, rule-based, and attribute-based access control solve different policy problems. The practical logic of role-based access control is especially useful for understanding how organizations group permissions around job functions, though mature environments often combine roles with contextual attributes and privileged-access controls.
Assessment and testing provide evidence that security works
Security assessments include vulnerability analysis, penetration testing, code review, configuration review, audits, control testing, and other evidence-gathering methods. Candidates should distinguish objectives and limitations. A vulnerability scanner identifies potential weaknesses; a penetration test explores exploitability and paths; an audit evaluates requirements and evidence; a control test determines whether a safeguard operates as expected.
Testing must be authorized and scoped. Results also need context because severity scores do not automatically equal business risk. Security professionals should validate findings, understand affected assets and compensating controls, communicate material issues, and track remediation. The objective is evidence-based assurance, not producing the largest possible list of findings.
Security operations turns policy and architecture into daily protection
Operations covers logging, monitoring, incident response, investigations, change management, vulnerability management, patching, backup, disaster recovery, physical security, resource protection, and operational resilience. Mature operations combine preventive, detective, corrective, and recovery controls so that the organization can continue functioning when prevention fails.
An effective incident-response team needs defined roles, escalation, evidence handling, communications, legal coordination, and recovery priorities. Business continuity adds the wider organizational context: continuity management asks whether critical processes can continue while systems are being contained, restored, or rebuilt.
Software development security integrates protection into the lifecycle
Software risk begins before coding. Requirements, architecture, threat modeling, development practices, dependencies, testing, deployment pipelines, configuration, operations, and decommissioning all influence application security. Security inserted only at the end of the lifecycle creates expensive rework and can miss architectural weaknesses that testing alone cannot remove.
Developers benefit from secure coding methods, but CISSP candidates should keep the management view as well. Organizations need standards, training, code review, dependency governance, environment separation, change control, secrets handling, and acceptance criteria. Software security is a process capability, not only an individual programmer skill.
Use CISSP as a broad base, then specialize where the role demands
CISSP can lead into more specialized ISC2 work. CCSP deepens cloud security, while the advanced concentrations ISSAP, ISSEP, and ISSMP focus on architecture, engineering, and management. These are not shortcuts around CISSP’s breadth; they apply that broad foundation to more specialized professional responsibilities.
Prepare by integrating domains rather than studying eight isolated silos. A ransomware scenario can involve governance, asset classification, architecture, network segmentation, identity, control testing, incident operations, recovery, and secure software practices at once. The CISSP exam is strongest when candidates can identify which concern has priority at a particular stage and choose the response that protects the organization as a whole.
Supply-chain security cuts across several CISSP domains because organizations inherit risk from software components, hardware, cloud services, consultants, and managed providers. Due diligence is only the beginning. Contracts, secure acquisition, access restrictions, update channels, vulnerability disclosure, incident notification, continuity planning, provenance, and exit arrangements all influence exposure. Candidates should recognize when a scenario is really about dependency governance rather than a control that can be solved entirely inside the organization.
Security awareness and culture are also management controls. Different populations need different behaviors: developers need secure design and coding practices, administrators need privileged-access discipline, executives need crisis and risk responsibilities, and general users need relevant social-engineering and data-handling guidance. Completion percentages can prove that training occurred, but they do not prove that behavior changed. Better programs measure outcomes such as reporting rates, policy exceptions, simulated-phishing trends, or recurring incident causes.
Exam questions often combine technical detail with governance priority. A useful method is to identify the professional role represented in the question, the asset or objective at risk, and the stage of the lifecycle. Then separate immediate containment from long-term correction, and technical feasibility from authority to approve the action. This prevents candidates from choosing the most technically aggressive answer when the better CISSP response is to establish ownership, preserve evidence, follow change control, or protect business continuity first.
Physical and environmental security still matters in a cloud-connected world. Facilities, power, cooling, fire protection, media handling, visitor control, and equipment disposal influence availability and confidentiality even when most users never see the data center. CISSP expects candidates to treat physical safeguards as part of the same layered control system as logical and administrative protections.
CISSP questions frequently test the interaction between domains rather than a single isolated fact. A new application can raise asset-classification issues, identity requirements, network segmentation decisions, cryptographic choices, testing obligations, logging needs, incident procedures, and software-lifecycle controls at the same time. The useful study habit is to follow the decision across those boundaries and ask which role owns the next action. This favors risk-based sequencing over reflexively choosing the most technical control. A security professional should be able to explain why a safeguard is appropriate for the business objective, how its effectiveness will be verified, and what operational process keeps it reliable after implementation.
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