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Exam Code: AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate SAA-C03
Exam Name: AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate SAA-C03
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AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate SAA-C03 Practice Test 46

Question 450

A DynamoDB Streams-driven Lambda commits a search-index update, then times out before its event batch is acknowledged. Later the same records are retried. How should the search-index update behave?

  1. Delete the source DynamoDB table after each batch to prevent event retries.
  2. Treat each retried stream record as a brand-new change requiring another irreversible counter increment.
  3. Use idempotent index operations and a replay-aware failure strategy for retried stream batches.
  4. Assume exactly-once search-index commits are guaranteed merely because DynamoDB Streams retains sequence numbers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Stream event-source mappings may retry failed batches; updates should converge correctly even if a record is processed again.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deleting production data is not an event replay control and introduces far more serious data loss.

B:

Blind duplicate increments can corrupt derived state when the original effect already committed before timeout.

D:

Sequence information supports tracking but does not atomically coordinate the downstream index commit and Lambda batch acknowledgement.

Question 451

A telemetry stream already uses Kinesis Data Streams with correctly selected partition keys. Five separate analytics consumers all call GetRecords and now compete for shared shard read throughput; two must process events with low delay without taking capacity from the others. Which stream-consumer capability addresses that competition?

  1. Increase the DNS TTL of the stream endpoint so each consumer gets dedicated shard bandwidth.
  2. Register eligible enhanced fan-out consumers and use SubscribeToShard to obtain dedicated per-consumer read throughput, while evaluating the extra cost.
  3. Move all consumers to the same polling loop and claim that each gains an independent 2 MB/s shard quota.
  4. Change only the record retention duration, which assigns a separate read channel to every current consumer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Enhanced fan-out provides dedicated throughput per registered consumer per shard and pushes records instead of requiring GetRecords polling. It reduces consumer competition but introduces consumer-shard and retrieval charges.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS TTL does not control stream shard read quotas.

C:

Shared polling does not create separate throughput allocations for independent consumers.

D:

Retention changes how long records can be replayed, not the number of concurrent dedicated read channels.

Question 452

A Kinesis Data Streams application assigns the same partition key to every sensor event. One shard becomes hot and throttles writes although other shards have capacity. What publisher-side change helps distribute traffic?

  1. Set the stream retention to a longer period; retention automatically redistributes every new partition key across shards.
  2. Change only record timestamps so the same partition key hashes to different shards every second.
  3. Continue using one universal partition key and increase unrelated EC2 CPU capacity only.
  4. Choose partition keys with adequate cardinality and distribution, consistent with the required per-entity ordering scope.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Kinesis maps records to shards using partition keys. More balanced keys spread writes while preserving ordering for records that truly belong together.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Retention controls how far back readers can replay and does not fix a hot producer partition.

B:

Hash routing is based on the partition key, not an arbitrary timestamp payload attribute.

C:

Producer compute does not distribute a single hot hash key across Kinesis shards.

Question 453

A Kinesis reader may be down for forty hours and must replay the missed records when it resumes. The stream currently retains data for twenty-four hours. What configuration should the architect review?

  1. Increase Kinesis stream retention to a supported period that covers the outage and recovery interval.
  2. Enable an SQS visibility timeout on the stream; Kinesis retained records inherit SQS queue semantics.
  3. Increase the producer's EC2 Auto Scaling desired count without changing the stream retention setting.
  4. Use a shorter retention window to speed up reader recovery of records that have already expired.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Consumer checkpointing helps resume reads only while original stream records remain retained. An adequate retention window is essential for replay.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Kinesis retention/replay is distinct from SQS message invisibility after individual receives.

C:

More producer instances do not preserve older records after the configured Kinesis retention period ends.

D:

Decreasing retention removes historical data sooner and makes extended outage recovery worse.

Question 454

A Kinesis Data Streams pipeline hits write throughput limits while EC2 producers remain mostly idle. The team assumes adding more EC2 instances will automatically expand stream capacity. What should they assess?

  1. Add producer EC2 instances without examining Kinesis throttling because source compute automatically increases shard count.
  2. Review stream capacity mode, shard or on-demand scaling behavior and Kinesis throughput metrics and quotas.
  3. Increase S3 object storage capacity for an unrelated bucket, which raises Kinesis write capacity in the same Region.
  4. Turn off all stream monitoring to remove throughput limits observed in CloudWatch graphs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Kinesis stream ingress is bounded by its service capacity configuration and partition distribution, independently of how many producer VMs exist.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Higher producer capacity cannot bypass a fixed stream throughput ceiling and may intensify throttling.

C:

Object storage capacity and stream record throughput are separate service limits and resources.

D:

Suppressing metrics does not change service capacity or the underlying throttled API behavior.

Question 455

A financial processing task must run at 02:00 every weekday. Today a cron process on one EC2 instance triggers it, and jobs are missed when that host is replaced. What managed scheduling choice removes this dependency?

  1. Use a Lambda function that sleeps continuously for 24 hours, then starts the job.
  2. Increase the EC2 root volume size; a larger disk guarantees all future cron executions.
  3. Create an Amazon EventBridge Scheduler schedule targeting the supported job endpoint.
  4. Keep the single-instance cron and turn off EC2 health replacement to avoid schedule interruption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Scheduler invokes supported AWS targets at defined times without relying on a single long-running cron host, while supporting retries and timing configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Lambda execution cannot serve as an unlimited always-on timer and is ill-suited to long waits.

B:

Disk capacity alone cannot protect scheduled invocation against instance failure or restart.

D:

Suppressing host replacement introduces availability risk and does not make one operating-system scheduler resilient.

Question 456

An EventBridge Scheduler rule targets a Step Functions state machine in another account. The schedule is created, but invocations fail with AccessDenied because the scheduler has no right to start executions. What is missing?

  1. Change the state machine's display name and expect the role policy to be generated automatically.
  2. Embed the root account's long-term access key into the schedule description field.
  3. Increase Scheduler flexible time window to twelve hours to remove IAM authorization errors.
  4. Configure a suitable IAM execution role assumed by Scheduler with permission for the target action and any cross-account resource requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The Scheduler service uses an invocation role to call permitted targets. A schedule definition does not implicitly grant rights to start state-machine executions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Renaming a target does not grant the scheduler principal events or Step Functions API permissions.

B:

Static administrator credentials in schedule metadata are insecure and do not implement the expected invocation-role trust model.

C:

A schedule window affects delivery timing, not permission to invoke the protected target.

Question 457

A hospital schedules a data synchronization task at 09:00 local time each day, including daylight-saving transitions. A colleague specifies 09:00 UTC with a flexible twelve-hour execution window. Which Scheduler settings better honor the requirement?

  1. Hardcode UTC at 09:00 because all local civil times remain identical to UTC across daylight saving.
  2. Set the flexible window to the maximum solely because that always executes at the exact requested minute.
  3. Set the intended time-zone-aware schedule and an appropriate execution window for the deadline sensitivity.
  4. Use an EC2 Auto Scaling cooldown as the replacement for EventBridge calendar and time-zone semantics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Scheduler can express schedules in supported local time zones. A flexible window must be chosen to respect the actual business deadline rather than arbitrarily delaying execution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time zone offsets may change seasonally, so fixed UTC and local 09:00 are not generally equivalent.

B:

A flexible window permits service execution over an interval rather than guaranteeing an exact instantaneous run.

D:

Auto Scaling cooldown governs capacity changes and does not define a daily local-time job schedule.

Question 458

EventBridge Scheduler invokes a payment reconciliation job during a transient service outage. The job must not vanish without investigation after its allowed retries end. Which failure policy should be included?

  1. Configure a supported retry policy and dead-letter queue for failed schedule target deliveries.
  2. Make every failed target return HTTP 200 regardless of whether reconciliation executed correctly.
  3. Increase the schedule description length so AWS automatically retains failed job payloads indefinitely.
  4. Set the retry count to zero and disable all failure destinations because failed schedules are always replayed automatically later.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Scheduler retry controls transient invocation attempts, while an SQS DLQ can retain invocation failure information for operational recovery.

Incorrect Answers

B:

False success signals conceal business failure and defeat the objective of reliable scheduled completion.

C:

Metadata size does not create durable failure recovery or manage configured invocation retries.

D:

Without retries or durable failure routing, a missed invocation may require manual intervention and may be lost to the workflow.

Question 459

A genomics processing pipeline already runs container jobs in AWS Batch. A downstream variant-calling job must not begin before the upstream alignment job succeeds; merely submitting both to the same job queue causes occasional out-of-order execution. What should the submission include?

  1. Set both jobs to the same queue priority and assume priority alone expresses a success-dependent order.
  2. Increase the downstream job’s vCPU request and assume its scheduler automatically waits for a different job’s success.
  3. Use a CloudFront cache policy to sequence AWS Batch container jobs based on completed artifacts.
  4. Submit the downstream AWS Batch job with a dependency on the upstream alignment job ID so it becomes runnable only after the prerequisite succeeds.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS Batch job dependencies hold a dependent job in PENDING until referenced jobs complete successfully; failure of a dependency prevents the dependent run. This provides scheduling semantics without polling and guessing when work finished.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Priority affects runnable-job selection but does not encode a strict dependency on the outcome of another job.

B:

Compute resource requests affect scheduling fit rather than establishing required-success relationships.

C:

A CDN cache policy does not manage batch execution ordering.

Question 460

An AWS Batch platform must run one class of GPU inference jobs and another class of low-memory CPU transforms. The resources have very different cost and priority profiles. Which Batch constructs should separate scheduling?

  1. Put all jobs in one process on one untyped EC2 instance because Batch ignores CPU, GPU and memory differences.
  2. Define suitable job definitions and queues associated with compute environments matched to the resource classes.
  3. Use only S3 object tags to allocate GPUs to Batch jobs, without job resource definitions.
  4. Require all GPU tasks to run through API Gateway synchronous integrations until they finish.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Job definitions express workload resource needs, while queues and compute environments let the scheduler map workloads to appropriate capacity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Batch can schedule by job resource requirements, and ignoring them risks failed placement and wasted capacity.

C:

S3 metadata does not directly request container accelerators or govern Batch placement.

D:

Long compute jobs are better scheduled separately than coupled to finite HTTP request timeouts.

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